Free Dental MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

Q1 : Shape memory is seen in________________?

A: Stainless steel wire B: NITTINOL wire C: TMA wire D: Aluminium

Q2 : The component in very minor quantity in stainless steel that changes the properties to a maximum level is____________?

A: Carbon B: Molybdenum C: Chromium D: Nickel

Q3 : One bottle system of adhesive resins_____________?

A: 4th generation bonding agents B: Separate etching step not required C: Separate etching step not required D: Contains only primer

Q4 : Which of the following decrease with strain hardening______________?

A: Surface hardness B: Strength C: Proportion limit D: Corrosion resistance

Q5 : Acid-etching is done for_______________?

A: 30 seconds B: 60 seconds C: 90 seconds D: 120 seconds

Q6 : A highly polished surface on a metallic dental restoration aids considerably in the prevention of the____________?

A: Dimensional change B: Thermal conductivity C: Warpage D: Tarnish and corrosion

Q7 : About polymerization shrinkage of composite all are true, except______________?

A: Polymerization shrinkage is greater if bonded surface area is lesser than unbounded surface area B: Polymerization shrinkage is high if within the enamel margins C: Acid etching and priming will decrease polymerization shrinkage D: Microleakage can occur because of polymerization shrinkage

Q8 : In Base metal alloys, Corrosion resistance occurs due to___________________?

A: Passivity B: High Fusion Temperature C: High Molecular Weight D: Co-efficient of Thermal Expansion

Q9 : Two in one stage impression materials include______________?

A: Zinc Oxide eugenol impression paste B: Hydrocolloid impression material C: Elastomeric impression material D: All of the above

Q10 : The contraction of gold alloy on solidifying is approximately_____________?

A: 0.4% B: 1.4% C: 2.4% D: 3.4%

Q11 : The modulus of elasticity is defined as_______________?

A: The stress at the proportional limit B: The strain at the proportional limit C: The stress/strain ratio within the proportional limit D: None of the above

Q12 : Stages of annealing in order_________________?

A: Recovery recrystallization grain growth B: Recrystallization recovery, grain growth C: Grain Growth Recrystallization recovery D: Melting point, grain growth, Recrystallization

Q13 : The particle size in microfilled composites is_____________?

A: 0.05 to 0.04mm B: 0.5 to 1.0 microns C: 0.01 to 0.1 microns D: Surface porosity

Q14 : Which of the following is correct glass transition temperature of Impression compound ?

A: 43.5°C B: 39°C C: 65°C D: 100°C

Q15 : Which one of the following is the result of applying a load to a wire below its modulus of elasticity on a load deflection diagram ?

A: Fracture of the wire B: permanent deformation C: Spring back D: Increase in stiffness

Q16 : In measuring Vickers hardness no. Which of the following is used________________?

A: Spherical indenter B: Steel ball indentation C: Rhomboid shaped indenter D: 136-degree diamond pyramid

Q17 : Which of the following inhibitor accelerator system uses light activation composite ?

A: Diketone-amine B: Organic acid-metal oxide C: Organic acid-peroxide D: Peroxide-amine

Q18 : Boiling point of methyl methacrylate________________?

A: B.P of water B: < B.P of water C: Equal of BP of water D: Is at normal room temperature

Q19 : Gold content of an 18 carat alloy is______________?

A: 25% B: 50% C: 75% D: 100%

Q20 : 18-B Stainless steel orthodontic wire has_______________?

A: 18% Nickel 8% Chrominum B: 18% Chromium 8% Nickel C: 18% Chromium 8% Cobalt D: 18% Carbon 8% Iron

Q21 : Inlay wax is used to_______________?

A: Temporarily cement inlays: B: Make inlay wax patterns C: Invest inlay patterns D: Box models

Q22 : Wash or corrective impression is done by______________?

A: Impression plaster B: Impression paste C: Alginate D: Rubber base impression material

Q23 : Which of the following best describes the working time of elastomeric impression material ?

A: After the start of appearing elastic properties of impression material B: Just after the start of appearing elastic properties of impression material C: Just before the start of appearing elastic properties of impression material D: Loss of luster of impression material

Q24 : The porosity formed due to simultaneous nucleation of solid grains and gas bubbles at the first moment that metal freezes at the mold walls is called__________?

A: Pinhole porosity B: Gas inclusion porosity C: Micro porosity D: Subsurface porosity

Q25 : Which of the following is correct________________?

A: Type I and Type II gold can be heat treated and annealed B: Type III and Type IV gold can be heat treated and annealed C: Type I and IV gold can be heat treated and annealed D: All the type of gold can be heat treated and annealed

Q26 : Flow of a material refers to_______________?

A: Continued change of the material under a given load Continued change of the material under a given load B: The consistency of material when mixing C: The homogencity of gypsum products D: The homogencity of gypsum products

Q27 : The castability of chromium-cobait base metal alloys when compared to gold based noble metal alloys is_______________?

A: More B: Less C: Equal D: Depends on the alloy type

Q28 : For adhesion to be present between solid and liquid________________?

A: Liquid should wet solid surface B: Mechanical interlocking should be present C: Should have high contact angle D: None of the above

Q29 : Cold cure acrylic expand in water by___________?

A: 1% by volume 0.23% by weight B: 10% by volume 0.23% by weight C: 0.1% by volume 0.23% by weight D: None of the above

Q30 : Casting shrinkage is compensated by_______________?

A: Thermal expansion B: Hygroscopic expansion C: Wax expansion D: All of the above

Q31 : A good adhesive should possess all of the following EXCEPT________________?

A: High adherend wetting B: High contact angle C: Low contact angle D: High flow

Q32 : Mechanical properties of Cp Titanium are similar to alloys_____________?

A: Type III and Type IV gold B: Type V and type VI gold C: Type VII and type VIII gold D: None of the above

Q33 : Stress in defined as_______________?

A: An applied load or force B: A deformation resulting from an applied load C: An external force opposing an applied load D: An internal force opposing an applied load

Q34 : Which of the following will produce the most rigid restoration for framework of same dimension ?

A: Wrought alloy B: Palladium alloys C: Cobalt-chrome alloys D: Partial denture casting gold in hardened condition

Q35 : Dentin bonding agents usually contain_____________?

A: Only Hydrophobic component B: Only Hydrophilic component C: Hydrophobic and hydrophilic component D: Lyophillic and lyophobic component

Q36 : Sublimation is the conversion of a___________________?

A: Solid directly to gas B: Gas to liquid and then to soild C: Gas directly to liquid D: Solid to liquid and then to gas

Q37 : Which one of the following categories of dental materials has the highest thermal conductivity_________________?

A: Unfilled acrylic plastics B: Gold alloys C: Porcelains D: Zinc phosphate cements

Q38 : The pattern for the metallic framework of a removable partial denture is fabricated from________________?

A: Inlay wax type-II B: Boxing wax C: Modelling wax D: Casting wax

Q39 : During polymerisation of acrylic resin, above what temperature benzoyl peroxide form freeradicals_______________?

A: 25°C B: 37°C C: 50°C D: 60°C

Q40 : Type I and Type II zinc oxide impression paste differ with respect to_______________?

A: Their use B: Their hardness after setting C: Water content D: Eugenol content

Q41 : Ideal requirement of metal ceramic casting____________?

A: Low fusing ceramic and high fusing alloys B: Matching of coefficients of thermal expansion of ceramics and alloy C: Bonding between ceramic and alloy D: All of the above

Q42 : Fins and spines on the casting is seen due to_______________?

A: Prolonged heating: B: Rapid heating me C: Water film contamination D: Too high pressure during casting

Q43 : Which one of the following is used as filler in composite resins ?

A: Quartz B: Silicates C: Zinc particles D: Aluminium

Q44 : If resin is packed in sandy stage what will be seen in the processed denture ?

A: Distortion B: Porosity C: Inhomogeneous colour D: Increased strength

Q45 : Setting expansion is advantageous in__________________?

A: Casts B: Models C: Investment D: Dies

Q46 : The term given to the phenomenon of moisture absorption by an alginate impression in________________?

A: Imbibition B: Syneresis C: Hysteresis D: Gelation

Q47 : To prevent porosity in self-cure acrylic resin, curing should be carried in______________?

A: Cold water B: Hot water C: Under tap water D: Under vacuum pressure

Q48 : A common electrolyte used for plating copper indirect dies is_______________?

A: Copper cynide B: Ionic copper C: Ionic copper D: Silver cyanide

Q49 : Which one of the following is used as filler in composite resins ?

A: Quartz B: Silicates C: Zinc particles D: Aluminium

Q50 : Hydrocolloid material, show all except______________?

A: Hysterisis B: Imbibition C: Recrytallisation D: Syneresis

Q51 : The point at which a stress of a material exhibits a specific limited deviation P is called_______________?

A: Proportional limit B: Tensile strength C: Ultimate strength D: Yield strength

Q52 : Incomplete casting is the result of_____________?

A: More porous investment in the mould B: Narrow sprue diameter C: Hollow sprue pin D: Large reservoir

Q53 : Coefficienty of thermal expansion of tooth enamel is closest to_______________?

A: Slicate cement B: Composite C: GIC D: Polycarboxylate

Q54 : Which of the following procedure is indicated to produce cross-linking in the polymerization of linear chains of acrylic_______________?

A: Addition of grain refining agents B: Addition of difunctional monomers C: Increasing the amount of heat required for linear polymerization D: Incorporation of terminating agents

Q55 : Pickling________________?

A: Is accomplished by soaking the casting in baking soda B: Causes porosity in gold C: Removes surface oxides from gold castings D: Remove investment from gold casting

Q56 : With indirect spruing. Which one of the following porosities can be minimised_______________?

A: Back pressure porosity B: Localized shrinkage porosity C: Micro porosity D: Pin hole porosity

Q57 : Gypsum bonded investment should not be heated over______________?

A: 700°C B: 1,300°C C: 1,063°C D: 900°C

Q58 : Gap between true end of casting ring and wax pattern should be______________?

A: ¼ inch B: ½ inch C: 3/8 inch D: one inch

Q59 : A material behaves in certain ways above and below the proportional limit on a stress strin curve, which of the following is correct______________?

A: Above the proportional limit a material function in a plastic manner, while below the proportional limit it behaves as an elastic B: Above the proportional limit a material functions in an elastic manner, while below the proportional limit it behaves as an plastic C: Either A or B D: Neither A or B

Q60 : During setting of alginate impression materials________________?

A: Trisodium phosphate reacts with sodium alginate B: Trisodium phosphate reacts with calcium sulphate C: Colloidal changes to sol D: Material in contact with soft tissues sets last

Q61 : Use of dimethyl-P-toluidine is indicated for_______________?

A: Thermal polymerization of acrylic B: Chemical polymerization C: Retarding the polymerization reaction D: To inhibit the action of benzoyl peroxide

Q62 : Solder and flux used for joining Elgiloy wires are_____________?

A: Gold solder and borax flux B: Gold solder and fluoride flux C: Silver Solder and borax flux D: Silver solder and fluoride flux

Q63 : The most commonly used Titanium alloy for dental and medical purposes is________________?

A: Ti 6Al 4V B: Ti 5Al 4V C: Ti 5Al 5V D: Ti 6Al 6V

Q64 : Ductility of a material is a measure of it’s_______________?

A: Grain elongation B: Anealing C: Cold working D: Work hardening

Q65 : Which of the following constituents is common in occlusal sealants, bonding agents, composite resins ?

A: BIS GMA B: Polymethyl methacrylate C: Benzoin methyl ether D: Silica filter

Q66 : Composite resins in comparison to acrylic have_______________?

A: Low compressive strength B: High abrasive resistance C: High water absorption D: High polymerization shrinkage

Q67 : The wetting of an adherent surface by an adhesive is related to________________?

A: Surface energy of the adherent B: Surface texture of the adherent C: Surface tension of the adherent D: Nature of the adherent that is crystalline or amorphous

Q68 : The standard perforated tray for us with alginate impression materials may be brought to more customized contour by_______________?

A: Utility wax B: Base plate wax C: Beading wax D: Boxing wax

Q69 : Liquids which become more rigid as the rate of deformation increases is termed as_____________?

A: Thixotropic B: Pseudoplastic C: Dilatant D: Newton

Q70 : The best fuel gas when used with oxygen is______________?

A: Hydrogen B: Natural gas C: Propane D: Propane

Q71 : Which material undergoes hysteresis ?

A: Irreversible hydrocolloid B: Reversible hydrocolloid C: Impression plaster D: Metallic oxide paste

Q72 : The base constituents of dental waxes come from three main sources except______________?

A: Animal B: Mineral C: Insect D: Vegetable

Q73 : Hydroquinone is added to methyl methacrylate monomer_________________?

A: To prevent polymerization during storage B: To initiate release of free radicalls C: To enable polymerization reaction at room temperature D: All of the above

Q74 : A material which is a mixture of two different materials and its properties are_____________?

A: Composite B: Complex material C: Combined D: Compound

Q75 : What is the minimum thickness of the elastomeric impression material for an accurate impression_______________?

A: 2 mm B: 2-4 mm C: Greater than 3 mm D: Maximum in the area of operation

Q76 : Which of the following is an example of a composite material ?

A: A filled resin B: Colloidal silica C: Gold alloy D: Wax

Q77 : Most biocompatible material in oral cavity is_______________?

A: Platinium B: Palladium C: Titanium D: Gold

Q78 : The rapid decrease in tensile strength and increase in ductility of a wrought metal is seen in which stage of annealing ?

A: Recovery stage B: Recrystallisation stage C: Grain growth stage D: All of the above

Q79 : Marginal leakage related to temperature change occurs to the greatest extent with_______________?

A: Amalgam alloy B: Unfilled resin C: Composite resin D: Direct filling gold

Q80 : The Knoop Hardness Number of Microfilled composite Restorative material ranges from____________?

A: 50 – 60 KHN B: 25 – 35 KHN C: 15 – 20 KHN D: 40 – 48 KHN

Q81 : Hardness number which does not depend on the ductility of metal_____________?

A: KNH B: VHN C: RHN D: BHN

Q82 : The melting point of silver is_____________?

A: 1063° centigrade B: 960° Centigrade C: 960° Centigrade D: 1123° Centrigrade

Q83 : Impression material that Do NOT harden by chemical reaction_______________?

A: Zinc oxide eugenol B: Impression compound C: Alginate D: Plaster of paris

Q84 : Which of the following is true about Agar hydrocolloid impression material ?

A: Liquefies between 71 – 100°C B: Solidfies between 50 – 70°C C: Facilitates fabrication of metal dyes D: Cannot register fine surface details

Q85 : Crucible indicated for casting base metal alloys is______________?

A: Carbon crucible B: Clay crucible C: Quartz crucible D: High melting plastic crucible

Q86 : Flux is used during casting to________________?

A: Remove the oxides formed on the gold alloy B: Lower the melting point C: Replace casting wax D: Speed the burnout process

Q87 : Which is the use of boxing an impression______________?

A: Ease of construction of denture B: Preserving the sulci C: Ease of pouring an impression D: All of the above

Q88 : The function of a sprue is to_______________?

A: Form an opening of molten metal to enter the mold B: Help polish cast restorations C: Eliminate air bubbles on the wax pattern D: Reproduce fine detail

Q89 : Etching of dentin does not include_____________?

A: Removal of smear layer B: Exposure of collagen fibers C: Opening of dentinal tubules D: Increases surface energy

Q90 : Rough surface of elastomeric impression results from_______________?

A: Inadequate mixing B: Air bubbles C: Too rapid polymerization D: Incomplete polymerization caused by premature removal from mouth

Q91 : The process wherein two or more chemically different monomers, each with some desirable property, can be combined to yield specific physical properties of a polymer is known as_____________?

A: Step-growth polymerization B: Addition polymerization C: Condensation polymerization D: Copolymerization

Q92 : Polymerisation of heat-cured methyl methacrylate is initiated by______________?

A: Tertiary amine B: Benzoyl peroxide free radical C: Hydroquinone D: Methyl ether

Q93 : The term ordered hardening heat treatment used in which of the following dental alloys ?

A: Gold-Copper B: Nickel-Chromium C: Nickel-Titanium D: Silver-Palladium

Q94 : Agar is prepared from_______________________?

A: Bullock heart B: Chemicals C: Sea weed D: Chick cells

Q95 : Back pressure porosity can be avoided by________________?

A: Using asbestos linear B: Placing the sprue at least one quarter inch away form the end of casting ring C: Preventing rapid heating the investment in burnout oven D: Using a short and wide sprue

Q96 : Dendrites in cst alloys form by mechanism of_________________?

A: Constitutional superconductivity B: Constitutional supercooling C: Constitutional supergriting D: Constitutional supergraining

Q97 : The gold alloys used for casting contain at least…. percent of precious metal according to ADA specification number 5________________?

A: 55 B: 65 C: 75 D: 85

Q98 : Benzoin methyl ether in a polymer indicates that they may be cured in the presence of________________?

A: UV light B: Visible light C: Infrared light D: Diketone

Q99 : Percentage of gold in high noble alloy is______________?

A: N 25% B: 25% C: >40% D: 0%

Q100 : Addition of large amounts of platinum to a casting gold alloy will________________?

A: Decrease its strength and ability to be hardened B: Decrease its tarnish resistance C: Increase its fusion temperature D: Redden the alloy

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