Free Dental MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

Q1 : Most rigid elastomer is___________________?

A: Polyether B: Polysulphide C: Addition silicone D: Condensation silicone

Q2 : A technique of combining reversible and irreversible hydrocolloid that could bond to irreversible hydrocolloid is known as________________?

A: Injecting technique B: Laminate technique C: Immersion technique D: Immersion technique

Q3 : The pattern for the metallic framework of a removable partial denture is fabricated from________________?

A: Inlay wax type-II B: Boxing wax C: Modelling wax D: Casting wax

Q4 : Property of the material, which describes the resistance to abrasion, is_________________?

A: Hardness B: Yield strength C: Modulus of elasticity D: None of the above

Q5 : No trail closure is necessary with which one of the technique during denture fabrication_____________?

A: Compression moulding technique B: Injection moulding technique C: Fluid resin technique D: Light cured technique

Q6 : Annealing is also known as_______________?

A: Soft hardening treatment B: Hard hardening treatment C: Precipitating heat treatment D: Stress relieving heat treatment

Q7 : In heat cure denture base acrylic resins the monomer is___________?

A: Methacrylate B: Ethylmethacrylate C: Methyl ethyl methacrylate D: Polymethylmethacrylate

Q8 : The main form of iron carbide found in 18-8 steel________________?

A: Martensite B: Ferrite C: Austenite D: Pearlite

Q9 : Compressive stress is computed by dividing the external force by the_______________?

A: Area of the test specimen upon which the weight rests B: Elasticity of the test specimen in strain C: Length of the test specimen beneath the force D: Strain of the test specimen per unit length

Q10 : Dentin conditioner has the following function______________?

A: Removes smear layer B: Increases surface energy of dentin C: Forms a thin resin layer over exposed collagen fibrils D: Helps in bonding with composite

Q11 : Agar impression materials differ from alginate impression materials in that the former sets by_______________?

A: Mechanical action of saliva B: Physical change C: Evolution D: Chemical change

Q12 : Rubber base impressions are poured immediately as they_______________?

A: Continue to polymerize B: Become elastic C: Show imbibition and syneresis D: Show gelation

Q13 : Quartz is added to gypsum bonded investment to______________?

A: Increase the strength B: Counter balance contraction of gypsum during heating C: aid in hygroscopic expansion D: Increase the shelf life of investment

Q14 : Minimum flow of Type-I impression compound at mouth temperature is___________________?

A: 4% B: 6% C: 6% D: 10%

Q15 : The simplest alloy is a_______________?

A: Solid solution B: Eutectic alloy C: Peritectic allowy D: Ternary alloy

Q16 : In measuring Vickers hardness no. Which of the following is used________________?

A: Spherical indenter B: Steel ball indentation C: Rhomboid shaped indenter D: 136-degree diamond pyramid

Q17 : What is the disadvantage of using composites as restorative material ?

A: Increased thermal conductivity B: Decreased wear resistance C: Decreased thermal conductivity D: None of the above

Q18 : Along with polymerisation shrinkage, one of the major disadvantages of polymethyl methacrylate as denture base resin are its poor_____________?

A: Biological properties B: Thermal properties C: Mechanical properties D: Mechanical properties

Q19 : Mechanical properties of Cp Titanium are similar to alloys_____________?

A: Type III and Type IV gold B: Type V and type VI gold C: Type VII and type VIII gold D: None of the above

Q20 : Acrylic resins were first introduced as a denture base material in______________?

A: 1925 B: 1937 C: 1951 D: 1956

Q21 : Which of the following fuel gases is the best choice of heat source to carry out soldering process ?

A: Propane B: Acetylene C: Natural gas D: Hydrogen

Q22 : In processing methyl methacrylate, the resin may show porosity if the flask is placed too soon porosity most likely occur_____________?

A: Throughout the denture B: Near the borders C: In the thickest part D: On the denture surface

Q23 : Setting expansion is advantageous in__________________?

A: Casts B: Models C: Investment D: Dies

Q24 : Which one of the following is used as filler in composite resins ?

A: Quartz B: Silicates C: Zinc particles D: Aluminium

Q25 : Most ideally elastic among the following_______________?

A: Polyether B: Addition silicone C: Polysulphide D: Condensation silicone

Q26 : The contraction of gold alloy on solidifying is approximately_____________?

A: 0.4% B: 1.4% C: 2.4% D: 3.4%

Q27 : Suck back porosity in the casting can be eliminated by________________?

A: Increasing the mould metal temperature difference B: Increasing the flow of molten metal C: Flaring the point of the sprue attachment D: All of the above

Q28 : Fins and spines on the casting is seen due to_______________?

A: Prolonged heating: B: Rapid heating me C: Water film contamination D: Too high pressure during casting

Q29 : Heat hardening is the process done at_______________?

A: Heating 750°C and slowly cooling to zero degree B: Heating 750°C and slowly cooling to zero degree C: Heating upto 250°C for 15 to 30 min D: Heating at 750°C and then quenching to room temperature

Q30 : Compared with noble metals, base metals show_______________?

A: Increased hardness B: Increased ductility C: Better biocompatibility D: Increased density

Q31 : A material behaves in certain ways above and below the proportional limit on a stress strin curve, which of the following is correct______________?

A: Above the proportional limit a material function in a plastic manner, while below the proportional limit it behaves as an elastic B: Above the proportional limit a material functions in an elastic manner, while below the proportional limit it behaves as an plastic C: Either A or B D: Neither A or B

Q32 : Strain is defined as_____________?

A: An applied load or force B: A deformation resulting from an applied load C: An external force opposing an applied load D: An internal force opposing an applied load

Q33 : Benzoin methyl ether in a polymer indicates that they may be cured in the presence of________________?

A: UV light B: Visible light C: Infrared light D: Diketone

Q34 : Which of the following increases castability of base metal alloys________________?

A: Tin B: Beryllium C: Molybdenum D: Carbon

Q35 : The deoxidizing agent added to dental alloys is______________?

A: Palladium B: Silver C: Copper D: Zinc

Q36 : Which one of the following impression materials is elastic, sets by a chemical reaction and is catalyzed by chloroplatinic acid_______________?

A: Condensation silicone B: Polyether C: Polysulfide D:

Q37 : The latest method of curing denture base resins______________?

A: Heat B: Visible light C: Chemicals D: Lasers

Q38 : The cross linking agent of polysulphide rubber base impression material is______________?

A: Aromatic sulfonate esters B: Stannous octate C: Platinum salt catalyst D: Lead dioxide

Q39 : The elastic of plastic deformation to fracture a material is its_______________?

A: Toughness B: Brittleness C: Young’s modulus D: Proportional limit

Q40 : A material which partially transmits light & partially scatters it________________?

A: Reflector B: Translucent C: Transparent D: Opaque

Q41 : Which zone is the hottest and efficient burning zone of the flame used for casting ?

A: Oxidizing zone B: Reducing zone C: Combustion zone D: None of the above

Q42 : Impression material that Do NOT harden by chemical reaction_______________?

A: Zinc oxide eugenol B: Impression compound C: Alginate D: Plaster of paris

Q43 : Palladium is added to polyvinyl siloxane to_____________?

A: Act as a scavenger B: Helps as surfactant C: Acts as plasticizer D: Acts as a catalyst

Q44 : Lenolin is added is ZOE paste to______________?

A: Decrease flow B: Increase flow C: Accelerate reaction D: Decrease irritation due to eugenol

Q45 : The purity of gold is expressed in________________?

A: Carats B: Percentage C: Fineness D: Gram

Q46 : The restoration which shows percolation and shrinkage along the margins is_____________?

A: Composites B: Unfilled resins C: Amalgam D: Polycarboxylate

Q47 : When making a polysulphide impression for a caste crown, custom trays are usually preferred over stock trays for all of the following reasons except_______________?

A: Custom trays facilitate uniform contraction of impression material B: Custom trays require less impression material C: Stock trays may be short in the flange area D: Impressions made n the custom trays are easier to remove from the mouth

Q48 : Which of the following is true about Agar hydrocolloid impression material ?

A: Liquefies between 71 – 100°C B: Solidfies between 50 – 70°C C: Facilitates fabrication of metal dyes D: Cannot register fine surface details

Q49 : Acid-etching is done for_______________?

A: 30 seconds B: 60 seconds C: 90 seconds D: 120 seconds

Q50 : Which of the following may result if an excessive amount of monomer is incorporated into an acrylic resin mixture ?

A: Excessive expansion B: Low impact strength C: Excessive shrinkage D: Excessive brittleness

Q51 : Type I and Type II zinc oxide impression paste differ with respect to_______________?

A: Their use B: Their hardness after setting C: Water content D: Eugenol content

Q52 : Which of the following physical property can be used to estimate indirectly the proportional limit of gold alloys ?

A: Vickers’s hardness number B: Knoop hardness number C: Knoop hardness number D: Rockwell hardness number

Q53 : Hydrocolloid material, show all except______________?

A: Hysterisis B: Imbibition C: Recrytallisation D: Syneresis

Q54 : Stainless steel orthodontic wire can be hardened by________________?

A: Tempering B: Work hardening C: Age hardening D: Precipitation hardening

Q55 : The term given to the phenomenon of moisture absorption by an alginate impression in________________?

A: Imbibition B: Syneresis C: Hysteresis D: Gelation

Q56 : Titanium casting is done_____________?

A: Under vacuum in argon atmosphere B: Under air pressure in nitrogen atmosphere C: In specially fabricated aluminium vanadium D: Using CAD-CAM technique

Q57 : Which one of the following is used as filler in composite resins ?

A: Quartz B: Silicates C: Zinc particles D: Aluminium

Q58 : Which one of the following elements is NOT added is small amount to be used as grain refiners ?

A: Iridium B: Ruthinium C: Indium D: Platinum

Q59 : The proportional limit is defined as______________?

A: The maximum stress in a structure B: The minimum force required to cause a structure to break C: The maximum stress that can be induced without permanent deformation D: The maximum elongation under tension that can be measured before failure

Q60 : Stainless steel is used mostly in dentistry_________________?

A: To strength amalgam B: In orthodontic wires C: To construct clasps for partial dentures D: To replace internal gold restorations

Q61 : Shape memory is seen in________________?

A: Stainless steel wire B: NITTINOL wire C: TMA wire D: Aluminium

Q62 : When solid gets wet completely contact angle is______________?

A: 90° B: 0° C: 0 – 90° D: >90°

Q63 : A restorative material which has a high proportional limit, compared with one with a lower proportional limit would have________________?

A: Greater ductility B: Greater toughness C: A higher modulus of elasticity D: More resistance to permanent deformation

Q64 : The rate of tarnish and corrosion of class II cast material having VHN 200 is_______________?

A: 0% B: 2 to 3% C: 5 to 10% D: <1%

Q65 : Immediate pouring of impressions is most critical in_____________?

A: Condensation polysillicon B: Addition Polysilicon C: Polyether D: A and B

Q66 : Corrosion of stainless steel is due to formulation of_________________?

A: Chromium carbide B: Carbon carbide C: Iron carbide D: Nickel carbide

Q67 : The chemical used to etch enamel is_______________?

A: Zinc oxide B: Methyl methacrylate C: Phosphoric acid D: Eugenol

Q68 :

A: The stiffness of a dental gold alloy is determined by its________________? B: Proportional limit C: Modulus of elasticity D: Flow

Q69 : Solder and flux used for joining Elgiloy wires are_____________?

A: Gold solder and borax flux B: Gold solder and fluoride flux C: Silver Solder and borax flux D: Silver solder and fluoride flux

Q70 : Which of the following is function of fluoride flux in soldering process ?

A: It prevents the formation of copper oxide B: It prevents the formation of chromium oxide or dissolves chromic oxide layer C: It prevents the flow of material in undesirable area D: Increase the strength of solder

Q71 : If resin is packed in sandy stage what will be seen in the processed denture ?

A: Distortion B: Porosity C: Inhomogeneous colour D: Increased strength

Q72 : For photo-curing the composite resin the light source______________?

A: Should be held at a millimeter distance from the restoration B: Need no protection while in use C: Will cure composite upto a depth of 5 millimeter thickness D: Is fiber optic

Q73 : The forces that hold atoms together are called_____________?

A: Primary forces B: Secondary forces C: Cohesive forces D: Ionic forces

Q74 : Maxwell – Voigt Model is to determine________________?

A: Elastic Behaviour B: Plastic Behaviour C: Viscoelastic Behaviour D: All of the above

Q75 : Addition of large amounts of platinum to a casting gold alloy will________________?

A: Decrease its strength and ability to be hardened B: Decrease its tarnish resistance C: Increase its fusion temperature D: Redden the alloy

Q76 : Localised shrinkage porosity is seen when there________________?

A: Thin sprue B: No reservoir C: Investment heated strongly D: Inadequate air discharge

Q77 : Liquids which become more rigid as the rate of deformation increases is termed as_____________?

A: Thixotropic B: Pseudoplastic C: Dilatant D: Newton

Q78 : Reduction in the fusion temperature of dental gold casting alloys is caused by presence of______________?

A: Platinum B: Copper C: Silver D: Gold

Q79 : The gold alloys used for casting contain at least…. percent of precious metal according to ADA specification number 5________________?

A: 55 B: 65 C: 75 D: 85

Q80 : Which is best material for RPD impression_______________?

A: . Impression plaster B: Irreversible hydrocolloid C: Reversible hydroollioid D: None of the above

Q81 : Apart from composites and ceramics, another material that could be copy milled easily and inexpensively is_________________?

A: Molybdenum B: Germanium C: Titanium D: Chromium

Q82 : The % of free monomer in a heat – cured acrylic resin is_______________?

A: 3% to 5% B: 8% to 10% C: 0.2% to 0.5% D: 0.6% to 0.8%

Q83 : A fluid having constant viscosity that does not depend upon the strain rate is said to be_______________?

A: Viscoelastic B: Pseudoplastic C: Plastic D: Newtonian

Q84 : The main ingredient of inlay wax is__________________?

A: Candellila wax B: Paraffin wax C: Carnauba wax D: Gum dammar

Q85 : The greatest stress which may be produced in a material such that stress is directly proportional to the strain is know as_____________?

A: The elastic limit B: The proportional limit C: The yield strength D: Modulus of elasticity

Q86 : Impurities in casting is removed by________________?

A: Annealing B: Degassing C: Pickling D: Conditioning

Q87 : Co-efficient of thermal expansion is highest for_____________?

A: Amalgam B: Silicate cement C: Gold alloy D: Acrylic resin

Q88 : VLC resins are also called as______________?

A: Microwave-activated resins B: Tertiary amine-activated resins C: . Light activated resins D: Heat activated resins

Q89 : Which of the following is correct________________?

A: Type I and Type II gold can be heat treated and annealed B: Type III and Type IV gold can be heat treated and annealed C: Type I and IV gold can be heat treated and annealed D: All the type of gold can be heat treated and annealed

Q90 : Which of the following is correct________________?

A: Type I and Type II gold can be heat treated and annealed B: Type III and Type IV gold can be heat treated and annealed C: Type I and IV gold can be heat treated and annealed D: All the type of gold can be heat treated and annealed

Q91 : Light cure system, side effect is____________?

A: Iritis B: Cataract C: Conjunctivitis D: Retinal damage

Q92 : Which of the waxes are derived from the lignite_________________?

A: Paraffin wax B: Inlay wax C: Microcrystalline wax D: Montan wax

Q93 : Most biocompatible material in oral cavity is_______________?

A: Platinium B: Palladium C: Titanium D: Gold

Q94 : Disadvantage of having a short sprue is________________?

A: Rapid solidification of metal B: No place for reservoirs C: Incomplete evacuation of gases D: Difficulty in removing casting from investment

Q95 : Suck back porosity is due to_________________?

A: Attached impurities on undersurface of casting B: Hot spot C: No rapid cooling D: Inadequate melting temperature

Q96 : Brazilian test is used to determine the ultimates tensile strength of_________________?

A: Ductile materials B: Flexible materials C: Brittle materials D: Malleable materials

Q97 : Silver plated dyes use an electrolytic bath of_______________?

A: Silver fluorides B: Silver cyanide C: Silver bromide D: Silver iodide

Q98 : Which of the following inhibitor accelerator system uses light activation composite ?

A: Diketone-amine B: Organic acid-metal oxide C: Organic acid-peroxide D: Peroxide-amine

Q99 : Best impression material to be used for securing impression after crown preparation_______________?

A: Alginate B: Agar C: Elastome D: Zno paste

Q100 : Etching of dentin does not include_____________?

A: Removal of smear layer B: Exposure of collagen fibers C: Opening of dentinal tubules D: Increases surface energy

Free Dental MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

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