Free Medical Engineering MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

Q1 : Which of the following salivary gland tumors has highest rate of malignant transformation?

A: Patrotid B: Submanidbular C: Sublingual D: Minor

Q2 : The gelatinous deposit adherent on the tooth surface is called as:__________?

A: Materia alba B: Plaque C: Calculus D: All of the above

Q3 : Down’s syndrome is associated with all except__________________?

A: Retrognathia B: Periodontal disease C: Premature loss off deciduous teeth D: Delayed eruption of deciduous teeth

Q4 : All of the following statements about the typical features of a periapical granuloma are true EXCEPT:

A: It consists of proliferating granulation tissue B: It can form only if the periapical bone is resorbed C: It shows evidence of local antibody production D: It results from immunologically mediated tissue damage

Q5 : The Pathogenesis of Periapical Cyst is___________?

A: Increased pressure within the cyst B: Immune mediated bone destruction C: Proliferation of epithelium D: None of the above

Q6 : Target lesions are observed in case of:___________?

A: Erythema multiforme B: Lichenplanus C: Pemphigus vulgaris D: Psoriasis

Q7 : A neuralgia with trigger zones in the oropharynx and pain in the ear pharynx, nasopharynx, tonsils and posterior tongue is most likely_______________?

A: Trigeminal neuralgia B: Bell’s palsy C: Glossopharyngeal neuralgia D: Sphenopalatine neuralgia

Q8 : In an acute attack of migraine, the during of choice______________?

A: Ergontamine tortrate B: Methysergide C: Propranolol D: Caffeine

Q9 : Chocolate-coloured fluid is seen in the cystic space of_______________?

A: Dentigerous cyst B: Odontogenic deratocyst C: Unicystic ameloblastoma D: Papillary cystadenoma lymphomatosum

Q10 : After entering radiolucent lesion in a 30 years old man hollow cavity without epithelial lining is seen, the most probable diagnosis is:__________?

A: Aneurysmal bone cyst B: Static bone cavity C: Memorrhagic bone cyst D: Ameloblastoma

Q11 : The most common complication of mumps is______________?

A: myocarditis B: Orchitis C: Uveitis D: Conjunctivits

Q12 : Bullae formation after striking an intact skin/mucosal surface is known as:__________?

A: Tinel’s sign B: Bablnski’s sign C: Nikolsky’s sign D: Chovstek’s sign

Q13 : Alkaline phosphatase increases in_____________?

A: Pagets disease B: Osteopetrosis C: Cherubism D: A and D

Q14 : TENS therapy is useful in ______________?

A: MPDS B: Trigeminal neuralgia C: Facial palsy D: Neurosis

Q15 : Only Aspirin can:

A: Reduce fever. B: Irreversible inhibit its target enzyme. C: Prevent episodes of gouty arthritis with long term use. D: Reduce the risk of colon cancer.

Q16 : A 3-year old patient has extensive vesicles on lip, tongue, oral mucous membrane, After 2-4 days vesicles rupture at followed by pseudomembrane formation and also some dermal lesions seen what will be the diagnosis?

A: Herpetic stomatitis B: EM C: ANUG D: Steven-Johnson syndrome

Q17 : Delayed eruption of teeth occurs in_________________?

A: Craniofacial dysostosis B: Hyperthyroidism C: Cleidocranial dysostosis D: Osteitis deformans

Q18 : Trigeminal neuralgia_______________?

A: Does not disturb the patient during sleep B: Can be treated with NSAID’s C: Always bilateral in distribution D: Is a hereditary condition

Q19 : Salivary gland aplasia is seen in_________________?

A: Hemifacial microstomia B: LADD syndrome C: Mandibulo-facial dysostosis (Treacher Collins) D: All of the above

Q20 : Mixed tumour of the salivary glands are_______________?

A: Most common in submandibular gland B: Usually malignant C: Most common in parotid gland D: Associated with calculi

Q21 : The most aggressive and destructive cyst is:_____________?

A: Periapical cyst B: Dentigerous cyst C: Globulomaxillary cyst D: Nasopalatine cyst

Q22 : In a middle – aged man the radiograph shows cotton-wool appearance and blood investigation reveal an elevated alkaline phosphatase levels. The tentative diagnosis is____________?

A: Paget’s disease B: Cherubism C: Fibrous dysplasia D: Osteogenesis imperfecta

Q23 : Pleomorphic adenoma arises from______________?

A: Myoepithelial cells B: Aciner cells C: Connective tissue D: Stem cells

Q24 : Multiple fractures are seen in______________?

A: Rickets B: Osteogenesis imperfecta C: Osteomyelitis D: Osteoma

Q25 : Which of the following are characteristic feature of cherubism______________?

A: Premature exfoliation of primary teeth B: Hypoplastic defects C: Progressive painless symmetric D: A + C

Q26 : A patient complains of loss of visual acuity, deafness and enlargement of maxilla_______________?

A: Paget’s disease B: Osteomalacia C: Fibrous dysplaisa D: Osteogenesis imperfecta

Q27 : Steven-Johnson syndrome involves:____________?

A: Type I hypersensitivity reactions B: Type II hypersensitivity reactions C: Type III hypersensitivity reactions D: Type IV hypersensitivity reactions

Q28 : Butterfly rash is typically seen in:____________?

A: Herpes simplex B: Systemic lupus erythematosus C: Scleroderma D: None of the above

Q29 : Trigeminal heuralgia (tic doulourex) is characterized by______________?

A: Paralysis of one side of the face B: Uncontrollable twitching of muscles C: Sharp, excruciating pain of short duration D: Prolonged episodes of plain on one side of the face

Q30 : Mosaic pattern of bone is seen in radiographic features of_____________?

A: fibrous dysplasia B: paget’s disease C: Osteopetrosis D: Osteogenesis imperfecta

Q31 : Which of the following are a triad of the sign and symptoms of osteogenesis imperfecta________________?

A: blue sclera, sparse hair, anhydrosis B: enlarged hand, feet, maxilla, mandible C: Blue sclera, brittle bones opalescent dentin D: blue sclera, arachnodactyly, brittle bones

Q32 : Multiple bilateral dentigerous cysts are seen in:___________?

A: Down’s syndrome B: Maroteaux lamy syndrome C: Teacher collin syndrome D: Gorlin Goltz syndrome

Q33 : Dentigerous cyst is associated with the following

A: Impacted 3rd molar B: Impacted supernumerary tooth C: Odontome D: All of the above

Q34 : Formation of multiple pinpoint bleeding spots on scratching the skin is characteristic of:__________?

A: pemphigus vulgaris B: Lupus erythematosus C: Psoriasis D: Herpangina

Q35 : Facial nerve paralysis is common with:___________?

A: Pleomorphic adenoma B: Epidermoid carcinoma C: Warthin’s stumour D: Lymphoepithelial carcinoma

Q36 : All of the following are true about trigeminal neuralgia EXCEPT______________?

A: it is unilateral B: it is of throbbing nature C: it is triggered by touching cheeks, mucosa etc D: occurs in bouts

Q37 : Severe pain which arise after injury to or sectioning of a peripheral sensory nerve is called as____________?

A: Temporal arteritis B: Neuralgia C: Neuritis D: Causalgia

Q38 : Dentigerous cyst is suspected if the follicular space is more than:

A: 2-3 mm B: 3-4 mm C: 1-2 mm D: >5 mm

Q39 : The fascial spaces involved in ludwig’s angina are___________?

A: Unilateral – submandibular & sublingual spaces B: Bilateral – submandibular & sublingual spaces C: Unilateral – submandibular sublingual & submental spaces D: Bilateral – submandibular sublingual & submental spaces

Q40 : A 60 year old has got severe bulla and target lesion Which erythema around halo and genital lesions:_____________?

A: Stevens Jhonson syndrome B: Herpes zoster C: Herpes simplex D: Herpangina

Q41 : Treacher collins syndrome is______________?

A: Maxillofacial Dysostosis B: . Mandibulofacial Dysostosis C: Maxillomandibulofacial Dysostosis D: Condylar Dysostosis

Q42 : Primordial cyst develops:______________?

A: In place of missing teeth B: In teeth in which crown development is completed C: In periapical region D: In mandibular body

Q43 : Which of the following Orofacial pain is not associated with vascular origin ?

A: Cluster headache B: Giant cell arteritis C: Anaesthesia dolorosa D: Chronic paroxysmal hemicrania

Q44 : All of the following are inherited disorders of connective tissue EXCEPT:

A: Alport syndrome B: Ehlers-Danlos syndrome C: Marfan syndrome D: McArdle’s disease

Q45 : Which of the following is not a type of lichen planus?

A: Atrophic B: Hypertrophic C: Verrucous D: Erosive

Q46 : Parotid fatty change is sign of_____________?

A: Aging B: Alcoholism C: Malnutrition D: None of the above

Q47 : Burning Mouth Syndrome describes pain associated with_____________?

A: Oral lichen planus B: Oral submucous fibrosis C: Aphthous stomatitis D: No detectable oral disease

Q48 : Adamantinoma is:_____________?

A: A tumour from embrynomal cells of developing teeth B: Also known as Amebloblastoma C: is a complication of dentigerous cyst D: All of the above

Q49 : If a patient with Raynaud’s disease puts his hand in cold water, the hand appears_______________?

A: Red B: Yellow C: White D: Blue

Q50 : MONRO’s abscess are seen in:____________?

A: Pemphigus B: Lichen planus C: Leukoplakia D: Psoriasis

Q51 : The primary cause of acantholysis in pemphigus vulgaris is___________?

A: auto immunity B: Intercellular oedema C: intra epithelial oedema D: chronic alcoholism

Q52 : Eruption cyst:______________?

A: Transforms into dentigerous cyst B: Regresses after eruption of the tooth C: Is found in the place of the missing tooth D: Is a type of dentigerous cyst

Q53 : Polydactyly, craniosynostosis, late closure of fontanelles is a feature of_______________?

A: Apert’s syndrome B: Crouzon’s syndrome C: Pierre robin syndrome D: Down syndrome

Q54 : Corticosteroids are useful in treatment of TMJ arthritis because they have_____________?

A: An analgesic effects B: An anti-inflammatory effect C: Inhibitory effect on synovial membrane D: Analgesic and anti-inflammatory effect

Q55 : Lupus erythematosus is:____________?

A: Reactive lesion B: Degenerative condition C: Autoimmune disorder D: Neoplastic condition

Q56 : A cyst occurs under the tongue, caused by obstruction of a salivary gland. Such a cyst is called_______________?

A: Mucocele B: Ranula C: Dermoid cyst D: Dentigerous cyst

Q57 : Which of the following periapical conditions is often associated with a vital pulp?

A: Apical cyst B: Apical scar C: Condensing osteitis D: Chronic apical periodontitis

Q58 : Acute hemorrhage cystitis is a common toxic effect seen with: _________?

A: Vincristine. B: Tamoxifen. C: Doxorubicin. D: Cyclophosphamide

Q59 : Salivary gland stone most commonly involves___________?

A: Submandibular gland B: Parotid gland C: Sub lingual glands D: Lingual glands

Q60 : Mutation in GNAS 1 gene is associated with________________?

A: Fibrous dysplasia B: Ossifying fibroma C: Focal cementoosseous dysplasia D: Periapical cementoosseous dysplasia

Q61 : A tooth with a 3 month history of pain, which was worse when hot liquid were in mouth. After extraction, the tooth was split open. The pulp chamber was completely filled with pus. A few remnants of pulp tissue were found in apical end. The condition is:__________?

A: Acute partial pulpits B: Acute total pulpits C: Suppurative pulpitis D: Strangulation of pulp

Q62 : Intraepithelial vacuolation with formation of vesicle or bulla intraepithelially above the basal layer is characteristically seen in:___________?

A: Candida albicans B: Bullous pemphigoid C: Pemphigus D: Lichen planus

Q63 : L.E Cell phenomenon in peripheral blood is seen in:__________?

A: Rheumatic heart disease B: Infective endocarditis C: Ischemic heart disease D: Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

Q64 : Target lesions are observed in case of:___________?

A: Erythema multiforme B: Lichenplanus C: Pemphigus vulgaris D: Psoriasis

Q65 : Lesions associated with vital tooth?

A: condensing osteitis B: cementoma C: Periapical abscess D: None of the above

Q66 : Most demineralised zone in enamel caries:____________?

A: Translucent zone B: Body of lession C: Dark zone D: Surface zone

Q67 : Commonest salivary gland tumour in children______________?

A: Lymphoma B: Pleomorphic adenoma C: Adenoid cystic carcinoma D: Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

Q68 : In a 60 year old adult, which of the following diseases causes expansile maxillary lesions ?

A: Paget’s disease B: Acromegaly C: Fibrous Dysplasia D: Rickets

Q69 : Mask-like appearance of face with narrowing of aperture and rigidity of the mucosa is characteristic of______________?

A: Progressive systemic sclerosis B: Tetanus C: Multiple sclerosis D: Osteomalacia

Q70 : IN MPDS which muscle is most apt to exhibit tenderness________________?

A: Temporalis B: Buccinator C: Masseter D: Lateral pterygoid

Q71 : The swollen degenerating epithelial cell due to acantholysis is:__________?

A: Anitschow cell B: Tzanck cell C: Ghost cell D: Prickle cell

Q72 : “Fothergill’s disease” is one of the synonyms of_______________?

A: Sarcoidosis B: Multiple sclerosis C: Trigeminal neuralgia D: Lupus erythematosis

Q73 : “Xerostomia” is seen in all of the following EXCEPT in_______________?

A: Anticholinergic drugs B: Dehydration C: Sjogren’s syndrome D: Oral sepsis

Q74 : Tick the drug type for which microsomal oxidation is the most prominent:

A: Lipid soluble B: Water soluble C: Low molecular weight D: High molecular weight

Q75 : Plaque microflora can-split carbohydrates. What does it means?

A: Sacchrolytic B: Saprophytic C: Virulant D: Avirulant

Q76 : Reduction in flow of saliva is not generally seen in______________?

A: Elderly diabetics B: Patient undergoing radiation therapy C: Patients suffering from parkinsonism D: Patients on phenothiazine drugs

Q77 : The granulomatous tissue that is responsible for destruction of articular surfaces of TMJ in rheumatoid arthritis is known as________________?

A: Pannus B: Pulse granuloma C: Baker’s cyst D: Immune granuloma

Q78 : Which of the following shows the presence of cholesterol crystals:___________?

A: Keratocyst B: Periodontal cyst C: Aneurysmal cyst D: Hemorrhagic cyst

Q79 : Lichen planus:____________?

A: Can undergo malignant change B: Treated only by medication C: Must be excised D: Is a idiosyncrasy reaction

Q80 : A child with Down’s syndrome has Moon facies, retarded mentally and which of the facial characteristic________________?

A: Maxillary prognathism B: Mandibular retrognathia C: Mandibular prognathism D: Maxillary hypoplasia

Q81 : Which of the following is an odontogenic tumor?

A: Arrhenoblastoma B: Astrocytoma C: Ameloblastoma D: Granular cell tumor

Q82 : Pathologic calcification is seen in:__________?

A: Scleroderma B: Lichen planus C: Dystrophic epidermolysis bullosa D: Lupus erythematosus

Q83 : The characteristic alarm clock headache is a feature of_______________?

A: Auriculotemporal Neuralgia B: Trigeminal Neuralgia C: Sphenopalatine Neuralgia D: Glossopharyngeal Neuralgia

Q84 : Which of the following statement is false in relation to myofacial pain dysfunction syndrome ?

A: Maily affects young females B: is caused by muscle fatigue due to chronic oral habits are grinding and clenching C: Treatment involves construction of occlusal guard and stress free emotional condition D: The perioral musculature becomes hypotonic

Q85 : The primary causative factor for myofacial pain dysfunction syndrome of the TMJ is_______________?

A: Infratemporal space infection B: Auriculotemporal neuritis C: Muscular overextension and over contraction D: Otitis media

Q86 : Amber coloured tooth traslucency, blue sclerae and bone fragility and a history of pervious bone fractures are characteristic findings in_____________?

A: Osteoporosis B: Osteogenesis imperfecta C: Osteitis deformans D: Osteitis fibrosa cystic

Q87 : The earliest response of pulpitis is:__________?

A: Cyst formation B: Calcification C: Hyalinization D: Formation of dental granuloma

Q88 : In Xerostomia the salivary pH is_______________?

A: Unaffected B: Low C: High D: Increased in morning & decrease in day

Q89 : Osteosclerosis of bone occurs due to______________?

A: Decreased host resistance B: Increase in the virulence of organisms causes infection C: Increased host response D: Occurs in immunocompromised patients

Q90 : Adenomatoid odontogenic tumour is characterized histologically by:___________?

A: Polyhedral epithelial cells B: Tubular / duct like cells C: Stellate shaped cells D: Stratified squamous epithelial cells

Q91 : A condition of the mouth with increase the caries activity in the oral cavity is_________________?

A: Xerostomia B: Malignancy C: Hairy tongue D: Watery saliva

Q92 : Low grade infection which leads to localized periosteal reaction is:____________?

A: Garre’s osteomyelitis B: Acute osteomyelitis C: Condensing osteitis D: Local alveolar osteitis

Q93 : All are diseases of skin except:

A: Erythema multiforme B: Keratosis follicularis C: Erythema migrans D: Psoriasis form lesion

Q94 : Wickham’s striae are seen in:__________?

A: Lichen planus B: Leukoplakia C: Leukoedema D: Erythema multiformae

Q95 : In ectodermal dysplasia all of the following structures are affected except:___________?

A: Hair B: Nails C: Teeth D: Salivary glands

Q96 : The main causative agent of Ludwig’s angina is:__________?

A: Anaerobic streptococci B: Aerobic streptococci C: Staphylococci D: Legionella infection

Q97 : Oral lesions are not seen in:_________?

A: Psoriasis B: Pemphigoid C: Stevens Johnson syndrome D: Candidiasis

Q98 : The chronic osteomyelitis of the jaw consists of:_____________?

A: condensing osteitis B: Sclerotic cemental mass C: chronic diffuse sclerosing osteomyelitis D: All of the above

Q99 : All of the following is the extraglandular manifestation of primary sjogren’s syndrome except________________?

A: Raynaud’s phenomena B: Arthritis C: Lymphadenopathy D: Thrombocytopenia

Q100 : Odontogenic keratocyst has the following feature:____________?

A: Occurs due to infection periapically B: Is developmental in origin C: Can be treated by aspiration D: Has low recurrence rate

Free Medical Engineering MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

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