Free Medical Engineering MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

Q1 : Generalised thickening of cortical and cancellous bones is seen in_______________?

A: Osteopetrsis B: Osteogenesis imperfecta C: Infantile hyperostosis D: Pagets disease

Q2 : Grinspan syndrome is associated with:___________?

A: Leukoplakia B: Lichen planus C: Aphthous ulcer D: Oral submucous fibrosis

Q3 : All of the following is the extraglandular manifestation of primary sjogren’s syndrome except________________?

A: Raynaud’s phenomena B: Arthritis C: Lymphadenopathy D: Thrombocytopenia

Q4 : The earliest radiographic sign of osteomyelitis is___________?

A: Solitary or multiple small radiolucent areas B: Increased granular radioopacity C: Blurring of trabecular outlines D: Formation of sequestrum appearing as radiopaque patches

Q5 : An attack of cluster headache can be aborted by _____________?

A: Morphine administration B: Breathing oxygen C: Aspirin administration D: Sublingual nitroglycerine administration

Q6 : Precocious puberty is most characteristic of which of the following ?

A: Jaffe’s syndrome B: Monostotic fibrous dysplasia C: Abright’s syndrome D: Osteogenesi imperfecta

Q7 : A painful crater like 1.5 cm ulcer develops within one week on the hard palate mucosa of a 40 year old female The most likely diagnosis is_______________?

A: Actinomycosis B: Squamous cell carcinoma C: Pleomorphic adenoma D: Necrotizing sialometaplasia

Q8 : Chocolate-coloured fluid is seen in the cystic space of_______________?

A: Dentigerous cyst B: Odontogenic deratocyst C: Unicystic ameloblastoma D: Papillary cystadenoma lymphomatosum

Q9 : Cotton-wool appearance is seen in______________?

A: Peget’s disease B: Osteoclerosis C: Pariapical cemential dysplasia D: Ossifying fibroma

Q10 : The chronic osteomyelitis of the jaw consists of:_____________?

A: condensing osteitis B: Sclerotic cemental mass C: chronic diffuse sclerosing osteomyelitis D: All of the above

Q11 : Abscess formation is particularly characteristic of infections with which of the following microorganisms:_____________?

A: Viruses B: Rickettsiae C: Streptococci D: Staphylococci

Q12 : A 25 year old male patient reports with bony expansile swelling of the right body of the mandible & mild paresthesia of the right IDN. OPG shows a multi locular radiolucency without root resorption. What would be your choice of next investigation?

A: Excision biopsy B: Aspiration Cytology C: CT Scan D: Pet Bone scan

Q13 : Steven-Johnson syndrome involves:____________?

A: Type I hypersensitivity reactions B: Type II hypersensitivity reactions C: Type III hypersensitivity reactions D: Type IV hypersensitivity reactions

Q14 : “Xerostomia” is seen in all of the following EXCEPT in_______________?

A: Anticholinergic drugs B: Dehydration C: Sjogren’s syndrome D: Oral sepsis

Q15 : Which of the following is inherited as a autosomal dominant triat?

A: Lichen planus B: Bullous pemphigoid C: Pemphigus yulgaris D: White sponge nevus

Q16 : Histopathological study of lichen planus shows:___________?

A: Mixed cellular inflammatory infiltrate B: Presence of T-lymphocytes predominantly C: Antiepithelial antibodies D: Scattered infiltrate with ill-defined lower border

Q17 : Nodular growth of alveolus is seen in:___________?

A: Paget’s disease B: Osteomas C: Cementifying fibroma D: All of these

Q18 : The most common odontogenic tumour which occurs in relationto an unerupted tooth in the anterior maxilla:____________?

A: Odontogenic adenomatoid tumour B: Odontoma C: Myxoma D: Cementifying fibroma

Q19 : Botryoid odontogenic cyst is a variant of:___________?

A: Lateral periodontal cyst B: Apical periodontal cyst C: Gingival cyst of new born D: Gingival cysts of adult

Q20 : Normal serum, Ca nd alkaline PO4 are in________________?

A: Cherubism B: Hypothyroidism C: Hyperparathyroidism D: Paget’s disease

Q21 : Transformation into osteosarcoma is seen with________________?

A: pagets disease and polyostotic fibrous dysplasia B: pagets disease and osteopetrosis C: pagets disease and osteopetrosis D: Cherubism and pagets disease

Q22 : A 3-year old patient has extensive vesicles on lip, tongue, oral mucous membrane, After 2-4 days vesicles rupture at followed by pseudomembrane formation and also some dermal lesions seen what will be the diagnosis?

A: Herpetic stomatitis B: EM C: ANUG D: Steven-Johnson syndrome

Q23 : The primary causative factor for myofacial pain dysfunction syndrome of the TMJ is_______________?

A: Infratemporal space infection B: Auriculotemporal neuritis C: Muscular overextension and over contraction D: Otitis media

Q24 : Eruption cyst:______________?

A: Transforms into dentigerous cyst B: Regresses after eruption of the tooth C: Is found in the place of the missing tooth D: Is a type of dentigerous cyst

Q25 : Mixed tumour of the salivary glands are_______________?

A: Most common in submandibular gland B: Usually malignant C: Most common in parotid gland D: Associated with calculi

Q26 : Cyst arising from dental lamina:___________________?

A: Radicular cyst B: Paradental cyst C: Eruption cyst D: Glandular odontogenic cyst

Q27 : If a patient with Raynaud’s disease puts his hand in cold water, the hand appears_______________?

A: Red B: Yellow C: White D: Blue

Q28 : After entering radiolucent lesion in a 30 years old man hollow cavity without epithelial lining is seen, the most probable diagnosis is:__________?

A: Aneurysmal bone cyst B: Static bone cavity C: Memorrhagic bone cyst D: Ameloblastoma

Q29 : “Fothergill’s disease” is one of the synonyms of_______________?

A: Sarcoidosis B: Multiple sclerosis C: Trigeminal neuralgia D: Lupus erythematosis

Q30 : In lichen planus the basal cells which are shrunken with an eosinophilic cytoplasm and with a pyknotic and fragmented nuclei are called__________?

A: Tzanck cells B: Civatte bodies C: Donovan bodies D: Rushton bodies

Q31 : Treacher collins syndrome is______________?

A: Maxillofacial Dysostosis B: . Mandibulofacial Dysostosis C: Maxillomandibulofacial Dysostosis D: Condylar Dysostosis

Q32 : Conjoint tendon is formed by _________?

A: External and internal oblique B: External oblique and transversus abdominis C: Internal oblique and transversus abdominis D: Internal oblique

Q33 : Which of the following is more prone to osteomyelitis:__________?

A: Maxilla B: zygoma C: palatine bone D: mandible

Q34 : Formation of multiple pinpoint bleeding spots on scratching the skin is characteristic of:__________?

A: pemphigus vulgaris B: Lupus erythematosus C: Psoriasis D: Herpangina

Q35 : Which of the following is an oral manifestation of lichen planus?

A: Dentinogenesis imperfecta B: Fordyce spots C: White, chalky enamel surface D: White radiating lines on the buccal mucosa

Q36 : Pindborg tumor arises from:_________?

A: Basal layer of cells B: Stratum intermedium C: Stratum corneum D: Both B & D

Q37 : Standard treatment of ameloblastoma:

A: Segmental resection with 1 cm of normal bone B: Enbloc resection C: Enucleation D: Enucleation with cauterization

Q38 : Osteosarcoma characteristically may develop in some causes of______________?

A: Osteopetrosis B: Osteogenesis imperfecta C: Acromegaly D: Osteitis deformans

Q39 : False about cherubism________________?

A: Unilocular lesion B: Bilateral C: Presence of Giant cell D: Delayed eruption of permanent teeth

Q40 : Ectodermal dysplasia is:___________?

A: Autosomal recessive B: Autosomal dominant C: X-linked dominant D: X-linked recessive

Q41 : Of the following which is most common disorder causing pain about the masticatory apparatus including the TMJ_____________?

A: Traumatic arthritis B: Trigeminal neuralgia C: Myofacial pain dysfunction syndrome D: Degenerative arthritis

Q42 : Keratocyst has all of the following features except:___________?

A: It is more common in mandible B: May be filled with thin straw coloured fluid C: Low recurrence rate D: Expansion of bone clinically seen

Q43 : Which syndrome consists of flushing, warmness and perspiration over the cheek and pinna of the ear on the side following the ingestion of highly seasoned food ?

A: Fanconi’s B: Auriculotemporal C: Horner’s D: Cushin’s

Q44 : Histopathologically reversal lines are seen in_____________?

A: Cherubism B: Fibrous dysplasia C: Paget’s disease of the bone D: Craniofacial dysplasia

Q45 : All of the following statements about the typical features of a periapical granuloma are true EXCEPT:

A: It consists of proliferating granulation tissue B: It can form only if the periapical bone is resorbed C: It shows evidence of local antibody production D: It results from immunologically mediated tissue damage

Q46 : L.E Cell phenomenon in peripheral blood is seen in:__________?

A: Rheumatic heart disease B: Infective endocarditis C: Ischemic heart disease D: Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

Q47 : Koebner’s phenomenon is seen with_____________?

A: Erythema multiforme B: Pemphigoid C: Psoriasis D: Impetigo

Q48 : Target lesions are observed in case of:___________?

A: Erythema multiforme B: Lichenplanus C: Pemphigus vulgaris D: Psoriasis

Q49 : Periapical cyst is usually preceded by:__________?

A: Periapical granuloma B: Periodontal abscess C: Periapical abscess D: All of the above

Q50 : Pathologic calcification is seen in:__________?

A: Scleroderma B: Lichen planus C: Dystrophic epidermolysis bullosa D: Lupus erythematosus

Q51 : Mask-like appearance of face with narrowing of aperture and rigidity of the mucosa is characteristic of______________?

A: Progressive systemic sclerosis B: Tetanus C: Multiple sclerosis D: Osteomalacia

Q52 : Which is a degeneration disorder characterized by atrophic changes of the deeper structures (e.g fat, muscle, cartilage & bone) involving one side of the face:

A: Scleroderma B: Parry Romberg syndrome C: Miescher’s syndrome D: peutz-Jeghers syndrome

Q53 : Which of the following is the most common lesion of the mandible?

A: Adamantinoma B: Osteogenic sarcoma C: Squamous cell carcinoma D: Osteoclastoma

Q54 : Polydactyly, craniosynostosis, late closure of fontanelles is a feature of_______________?

A: Apert’s syndrome B: Crouzon’s syndrome C: Pierre robin syndrome D: Down syndrome

Q55 : Oral lesion associated with ulcerative colitis?

A: Lichen planus B: pyostomatitis vegentanus C: sarcoidosis D: Dermatitis herpetiformis

Q56 : MONRO’s abscess are seen in:____________?

A: Pemphigus B: Lichen planus C: Leukoplakia D: Psoriasis

Q57 : Conjoint tendon is formed by _________?

A: External and internal oblique B: External oblique and transversus abdominis C: Internal oblique and transversus abdominis D: Internal oblique

Q58 : In which of the following disorders a circulating antibody directed to intercellular cementing substance of stratified squamous epithelium is observed:_________?

A: Lichen planus B: Verrucous vulgaris C: Bullous pemphigoid D: Pemphigus vulgari

Q59 : During a routine checkup a 70 year old male is found to have Serum Alkaline Phosphatase three time the upper limit of normal. Serum Calcium, Serum Phosphorous and liver function tests are normal. The most likely diagonsis is______________?

A: Primary hyperparathyroidism B: Paget’s disease of the bone C: Osteomalacia D: Metastatic bone disease

Q60 : Carbamazepine has been utilized to successfully diminish attacks in trigeminal neuralgia. During this therapy which of the following is indicated ?

A: Clinical observation only B: Clinical observation and complete blood and platelet counts prior to and at frequent intervals during therapy C: No monitoring D: Complete blood investigation only if adverse symptoms arise

Q61 : The caries of enamel surface leads to accentuation of:__________?

A: Incremental lines of retzius B: Perikymata C: Imbrication lines of pickerill D: Wickham’s striae

Q62 : A 60 year old has got severe bulla and target lesion Which erythema around halo and genital lesions:_____________?

A: Stevens Jhonson syndrome B: Herpes zoster C: Herpes simplex D: Herpangina

Q63 : A 3-year old patient reports of painless progressive bilateral facial swellings. The tentative diagnosis is______________?

A: Cherubism B: Monostotic fibrous dysplasia C: Ployostotic fibrous dysplasia D: Central giant cell granuloma

Q64 : Alkaline phosphatase increases in_____________?

A: Pagets disease B: Osteopetrosis C: Cherubism D: A and D

Q65 : Mucocutaneous lesions associated with neoplasia____________?

A: pemphigus vegentans B: Parapemphigus C: Paraneoplastic pemphigus D: familial benign pemphigus

Q66 : A flat, cricumscribed discolouration of skin or mucosa that may vary in size and shape is referred to as:____________?

A: Epulits B: Macule C: Nodule D: papule

Q67 : Dentigerous cyst is suspected if the follicular space is more than:

A: 2-3 mm B: 3-4 mm C: 1-2 mm D: >5 mm

Q68 : A multilocular cyst of the jaw is more likely:__________?

A: Dental cyst B: Dentigerous cyst C: Keratocyst D: Simple bone cyst

Q69 : Which of the following salivary gland tumors has highest rate of malignant transformation?

A: Patrotid B: Submanidbular C: Sublingual D: Minor

Q70 : Which of the following is NOT a clinical feature of Pierre-Robin syndrome ?

A: Micrognathia B: Retrognathia C: Glossoptosis D: Coloboma of lower eyelid

Q71 : A child with Down’s syndrome has Moon facies, retarded mentally and which of the facial characteristic________________?

A: Maxillary prognathism B: Mandibular retrognathia C: Mandibular prognathism D: Maxillary hypoplasia

Q72 : Complication of Rheumatoid arthritis of condyle is______________?

A: Fibrous ankylosis B: Subluxation C: Dislocation D: None of the above

Q73 : What is non characteristic of Eagle’s syndrome_______________?

A: Excessive lacrimation B: pain during mandibular movement C: Stabbing type pain orginate in the tonsillar regions D: When the jaws are closed the pain subsided

Q74 : Lesion of facial nerve at level of stylomastoid foramen leads to____________?

A: Loss of taste sensation from Ant. 2/3 of tongue B: Paralysis of orbicularis oculi muscle C: Loss of innervation to stapedius D: Loss of lacrimal secretion

Q75 : Psoriasis is associated with:____________?

A: Geographic tongue B: Benign median rhomboid glossitis C: Lupus erythematosus D: lupus vulgaris

Q76 : Fish Net pattern is pemphigus vulgaris is seen in which of the following tests?

A: Direct immunofluorescence B: Tzanck smear C: FNAC D: Histopathology

Q77 : Focal sclerosing osteomyelitis is:__________?

A: Due to excessive periosteal bone formation B: An extremely painful condition C: Due to low grade chronic infection D: A common sequel following sequestrectomy

Q78 : Tick the drug type for which microsomal oxidation is the most prominent:

A: Lipid soluble B: Water soluble C: Low molecular weight D: High molecular weight

Q79 : Which of the following structures are associated with bells palsy______________?

A: sub mandibular gland B: Seventh cranial nerve C: Temporomandibular joint D: Glosso pharyngeal nerve

Q80 : Which of the following periapical conditions is often associated with a vital pulp?

A: Apical cyst B: Apical scar C: Condensing osteitis D: Chronic apical periodontitis

Q81 : A 40 year old woman report with the complaint of burning sensation in the mouth. Clinical examination reveals lesions consisting of radiating white striations in a retiform arrangement affecting buccal mucosa, tongue, lips & gingiva bilaterally. An incisional biopsy is suggestive of lichen planus. The following are different clinical forms of lichen planus except:

A: Atrophic lichen planus B: Hypertrophic lichen planus C: bullous lichen planus D: Verrucous lichen planus

Q82 : Plaque microflora can-split carbohydrates. What does it means?

A: Sacchrolytic B: Saprophytic C: Virulant D: Avirulant

Q83 : The most likely diagnosis in a 23 year old, mentally alert, male dwarf with disproportionate arm and leg to body growth, prominent forehead and retruded maxilla is_______________?

A: Cretinism B: Pituitary dwarfism C: Acromegaly D: Achondroplasia

Q84 : The latest drug of the choice in the management in trigeminal neuralgia is______________?

A: . valproic acid B: carbamazepine C: Diphen hydantoin D: None of the above

Q85 : Erythema multiformae is:___________?

A: An acute self limiting disease, of skin and oral mucous membrane B: painless vesicular self limiting disease C: A viral disease D: Bacterial infection

Q86 : A fluid filled elevated lesion of skin is called___________?

A: Bulla B: Macule C: Papule D: Nodule

Q87 : Amber coloured tooth traslucency, blue sclerae and bone fragility and a history of pervious bone fractures are characteristic findings in_____________?

A: Osteoporosis B: Osteogenesis imperfecta C: Osteitis deformans D: Osteitis fibrosa cystic

Q88 : Three stages in progression of acute odontogenic infection are:___________?

A: Periapical osteitis, cellulitis, abscess B: Abscess, cellulitis, osteitis, Periapical C: cellulitis, Abscess, Periapical, osteitis D: Periapical osteitis, abscess, cellulitis,

Q89 : Bimanual palpation technique is carried out for____________________?

A: Submandibular gland B: Sublingual gland C: Ranula D: Cervical lymph nodes when they are enlarged due to inflammation

Q90 : The earliest response of pulpitis is:__________?

A: Cyst formation B: Calcification C: Hyalinization D: Formation of dental granuloma

Q91 : An asymptomatic tooth has deep has deep caries on occlusal surface. Radiograph shows radiopaque mass at apex of the tooth: this mass is most likely to be:____________?

A: Cementoma B: Condensing Osteitis C: Chronic apical periodontitis D: Acute apical periodontitis

Q92 : Which tumour does not occur in minor salivary gland ?

A: Pleomorphic adenoma B: Adenocarcinoma C: Mucoepidermoid carcinoma D: Warthin’s tumour

Q93 : Lichenoid reactions are mainly due to:____________?

A: intake of certain drugs B: betel nut chewing C: cigarette smoking D: intake of alcohol

Q94 : Severe pain which arise after injury to or sectioning of a peripheral sensory nerve is called as____________?

A: Temporal arteritis B: Neuralgia C: Neuritis D: Causalgia

Q95 : The granulomatous tissue that is responsible for destruction of articular surfaces of TMJ in rheumatoid arthritis is known as________________?

A: Pannus B: Pulse granuloma C: Baker’s cyst D: Immune granuloma

Q96 : The primary cause of acantholysis in pemphigus vulgaris is___________?

A: auto immunity B: Intercellular oedema C: intra epithelial oedema D: chronic alcoholism

Q97 : Reduction in flow of saliva is not generally seen in______________?

A: Elderly diabetics B: Patient undergoing radiation therapy C: Patients suffering from parkinsonism D: Patients on phenothiazine drugs

Q98 : Acute hemorrhage cystitis is a common toxic effect seen with: _________?

A: Vincristine. B: Tamoxifen. C: Doxorubicin. D: Cyclophosphamide

Q99 : White radiating lines can be observed in case of lesions of:___________?

A: Lichen planus B: Erythema multiforme C: Pemphigus D: Leukoplakia

Q100 : Patient comes with pain pharyngeal region and is having carcinoma of nasopharynx. The diagnosis is _____________?

A: Horner’s syndrome B: Glossopharyngeal neuralgia C: Trotter’s syndrome D: Eagles syndrome

Free Medical Engineering MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

Time to prove what you know!

LAT Test

GAT Test

Contact Info

Free Medical Engineering MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

Subscribe our Newsletter

LAT Test

GAT Test

Contact Info