Free Medical Engineering MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

Q1 : Mixed tumour of the salivary glands are_______________?

A: Most common in submandibular gland B: Usually malignant C: Most common in parotid gland D: Associated with calculi

Q2 : The earliest response of pulpitis is:__________?

A: Cyst formation B: Calcification C: Hyalinization D: Formation of dental granuloma

Q3 : Dentigerous cyst is suspected if the follicular space is more than:

A: 2-3 mm B: 3-4 mm C: 1-2 mm D: >5 mm

Q4 : Ameloblastoma most frequently occurs in:___________?

A: Mandibular moral region B: Maxillary molar region C: Mandibular premolar region D: Maxillary premolar region

Q5 : Osteosarcoma characteristically may develop in some causes of______________?

A: Osteopetrosis B: Osteogenesis imperfecta C: Acromegaly D: Osteitis deformans

Q6 : The most common cause of TMJ ankylosis is______________?

A: Trauma B: Osteoarthritis C: Childhood illness D: Rheumatoid arthritis

Q7 : The most common salivary gland malignant neoplasm in bones______________?

A: Plemorphic adenoma B: Adenoid cystic carcinoma C: Muceopidermoid carcinoma D: Adenolymphoma

Q8 : Ghost (shadow) cells are seen in:___________?

A: Amebloblastic fibroodontoma B: Calcifying odontogenic cyst C: Compound odontoma D: All of the above

Q9 : The characteristic alarm clock headache is a feature of_______________?

A: Auriculotemporal Neuralgia B: Trigeminal Neuralgia C: Sphenopalatine Neuralgia D: Glossopharyngeal Neuralgia

Q10 : Target lesions are observed in case of:___________?

A: Erythema multiforme B: Lichenplanus C: Pemphigus vulgaris D: Psoriasis

Q11 : Lichen planus:____________?

A: Can undergo malignant change B: Treated only by medication C: Must be excised D: Is a idiosyncrasy reaction

Q12 : The most ideal expianation for recurrence of odontogenic keratocyst is:____________?

A: Increased mitotic activity of the epithelial lining B: Friability of the epithelial lining C: Presence of satellite cysts or daughter cysts D: Continued proliferation of rests of dental lamina

Q13 : Which of the following is an oral manifestation of lichen planus?

A: Dentinogenesis imperfecta B: Fordyce spots C: White, chalky enamel surface D: White radiating lines on the buccal mucosa

Q14 : Best way to differentiate a periapical cyst and a perapical granuloma is:__________?

A: Radiographically B: Histologically C: Clinically D: None of the above

Q15 : Patient comes with pain pharyngeal region and is having carcinoma of nasopharynx. The diagnosis is _____________?

A: Horner’s syndrome B: Glossopharyngeal neuralgia C: Trotter’s syndrome D: Eagles syndrome

Q16 : Which of the following statements concerning potassium channel openers is true?

A: These agents decrease transmembrane calcium current associated in a smooth muscle with long-lasting relaxation B: These agents has a moderate reflex and vascular dilative action caused by the stimulation of sensitive nerve endings C: Beneficial effects of these agents are related primarily to their hemodynamic effects – decreased heart rate, blood pressure, and contractility – which decrease myocardial oxygen requirements at rest and during exercise D: These agents increase the permeability of K channels, probably ATP-dependent K channels, that results in stabilizing the membrane potential of excitable cells near the resting potential

Q17 : The following are the high grade salivary gland malignancies, EXCEPT________?

A: Basal cell adenocarcinoma B: Mucoepidermoid carcinoma C: Adenoid Cystic carcinoma D: Salivary duct carcinoma

Q18 : Which of the following are characteristic feature of cherubism______________?

A: Premature exfoliation of primary teeth B: Hypoplastic defects C: Progressive painless symmetric D: A + C

Q19 : Which of the following is wrong about keratocyst:

A: Haw low recurrence rate B: Has low protein content C: High recurrence rate D: B and C

Q20 : Adenomatold odontogenic tumour is most commonly found in:

A: Anterior mandible B: Posterior maxilla C: Anterior maxilla D: Ramus of mandible

Q21 : Burning Mouth Syndrome describes pain associated with_____________?

A: Oral lichen planus B: Oral submucous fibrosis C: Aphthous stomatitis D: No detectable oral disease

Q22 : Ground glass appearance in bone is seen in_____________?

A: Hyper parathyroidism B: Fibrous dysplasia C: Condensing osteitis D: Osteopetrosis

Q23 : Which of the following is cariostatic?

A: Selenium B: Magnesium C: Cadmium D: Molybdenum

Q24 : Which of the following are a triad of the sign and symptoms of osteogenesis imperfecta________________?

A: blue sclera, sparse hair, anhydrosis B: enlarged hand, feet, maxilla, mandible C: Blue sclera, brittle bones opalescent dentin D: blue sclera, arachnodactyly, brittle bones

Q25 : The cyst with highest recurrence rate is:_____________?

A: Keratocyst B: Periapical cyst C: Nasoalveolar cyst D: Globulamaxilary cyst

Q26 : Mucocele most commonly arise as a result of_____________?

A: Rupture of a salivary duct B: Partial or complete compression of the salivary acini C: Inflammatory changes in the glandular interestitial tissue D: Partial or complete obstruction of teh salivary duct by calculus

Q27 : True about caries, all except:

A: Infectious and transmissible B: Not due to microorganisms C: Can develop in the absence of sucrose D: Microorganisms play the most essential role

Q28 : Mosaic pattern of bone is seen in radiographic features of_____________?

A: fibrous dysplasia B: paget’s disease C: Osteopetrosis D: Osteogenesis imperfecta

Q29 : Chronic hyperplastic pulpitis is:__________?

A: Necrotizing B: Suppurative lesion C: proliferation of a chronically inflamed pulp D: Also called as phoenix abscess

Q30 : Botryoid odontogenic cyst is a variant of:___________?

A: Lateral periodontal cyst B: Apical periodontal cyst C: Gingival cyst of new born D: Gingival cysts of adult

Q31 : Which of the following is more prone to osteomyelitis:__________?

A: Maxilla B: zygoma C: palatine bone D: mandible

Q32 : Mucocutaneous lesions associated with neoplasia____________?

A: pemphigus vegentans B: Parapemphigus C: Paraneoplastic pemphigus D: familial benign pemphigus

Q33 : Which of the following parotid malignancy shows perineural spread_______________?

A: Pleomorphic adenoma B: Adenoid cystic carcinoma C: Warthin’s tumor D: Ductal papilloma

Q34 : Spindle cell carinoma is a variant of_____________?

A: Pleomorphic Adenoma B: Adenoid cystic carcinoma C: Basal cell carcinoma D: Squamous cell carcinoma

Q35 : Which of the following statement is false in relation to myofacial pain dysfunction syndrome ?

A: Maily affects young females B: is caused by muscle fatigue due to chronic oral habits are grinding and clenching C: Treatment involves construction of occlusal guard and stress free emotional condition D: The perioral musculature becomes hypotonic

Q36 : Alkaline phosphatase increases in_____________?

A: Pagets disease B: Osteopetrosis C: Cherubism D: A and D

Q37 : A fluid filled elevated lesion of skin is called___________?

A: Bulla B: Macule C: Papule D: Nodule

Q38 : Pleomorphic adenoma arises from______________?

A: Myoepithelial cells B: Aciner cells C: Connective tissue D: Stem cells

Q39 : Conjoint tendon is formed by _________?

A: External and internal oblique B: External oblique and transversus abdominis C: Internal oblique and transversus abdominis D: Internal oblique

Q40 : Xeroderma pigmentosum is characterized by:___________?

A: Autosomal dominant inheritance B: Inability to repair sunlight induced damage to DNA C: Irregular accemulation of melanin in the basal cell layer D: Acanthosis of epithelium with elongation of rete ridges

Q41 : Intra-epithelial bulla are found in:__________?

A: pemphigus B: Bullous pemphigoid C: Bullous lichen planus D: Pemphigoid

Q42 : In lichen planus the basal cells which are shrunken with an eosinophilic cytoplasm and with a pyknotic and fragmented nuclei are called__________?

A: Tzanck cells B: Civatte bodies C: Donovan bodies D: Rushton bodies

Q43 : Grinspan syndrome is associated with:_________?

A: Hypertension, diabetes, lichen planus B: Oral, ocular, genital lesions C: Hypertension with oral lesions D: lemphigus, CHF, diabetes

Q44 : Mask-like appearance of face with narrowing of aperture and rigidity of the mucosa is characteristic of______________?

A: Progressive systemic sclerosis B: Tetanus C: Multiple sclerosis D: Osteomalacia

Q45 : Low grade infection which leads to localized periosteal reaction is:____________?

A: Garre’s osteomyelitis B: Acute osteomyelitis C: Condensing osteitis D: Local alveolar osteitis

Q46 : Pemphigus is characterized by:____________?

A: Acanthosis B: Acantholysis C: Hyperorthokeratosis D: Hyperparakeratosis

Q47 : The most common odontogenic cyst is:____________?

A: Primordial cyst B: Dentigerous cyst C: Radicular cyst D: Mucocele

Q48 : Mikulicz’s disease is____________?

A: An inflammatory disease B: Neoplastic disease C: An autoimmune disease D: Viral infection

Q49 : Chronic periostitis in children is known as__________?

A: Cherubism B: Garre’s osteomyelitis C: Histiocytosis X D: Tuberculous osteomyelitis

Q50 : Tiny linear or arc-shaped bodied, amorphous, brittle and eosinophilic in reaction found in association with some odontogenic cysts, are called:___________?

A: Civattle bodies B: Russell bodies C: Guarneri bodies D: rushton bodies

Q51 : Erosive lichen planus resembles which of the following:

A: Monilial gingiviti B: Desquamative gingivitis C: Herpetic gingivitis D: Acute ulcerative gingivitis

Q52 : A salivary gland tumour, which histologically shows a double layer of epithelial cells based on a reactive lymphoid stroma is_______________?

A: Pleomorphic adenoma B: Mucoepidermoid carcinoma C: Acinic cell tumour D: Warthin tumour

Q53 : Immunoflourescence is seen at basement membrane as patchy distribution in:___________?

A: Lichen planus B: Pemphigus C: Pemphigoid D: Lupus erythematosus

Q54 : Ectodermal dysplasia is:___________?

A: Autosomal recessive B: Autosomal dominant C: X-linked dominant D: X-linked recessive

Q55 : Which is not true of Ludwig’s angina?

A: Usually arises from an infected molar B: involves submandibular space C: May need emergency tracheostomy D: None of the above

Q56 : An acute apical abscess is usually a result of:__________?

A: Periodontal pocket B: Occlusal interference C: Necrotic pulp D: Chronic gingivitis

Q57 : A 6 year old patient with extra cusp on maxillary central incisor is associated with all except______________?

A: Mohr’s syndrome B: Sturge-Weber Syndrome C: Rubinstein Taybi Syndrome D: Proteus Syndrome

Q58 : During a routine checkup a 70 year old male is found to have Serum Alkaline Phosphatase three time the upper limit of normal. Serum Calcium, Serum Phosphorous and liver function tests are normal. The most likely diagonsis is______________?

A: Primary hyperparathyroidism B: Paget’s disease of the bone C: Osteomalacia D: Metastatic bone disease

Q59 : Which of the following diseases of the skin is the most likely to be associated with partial anodontia?

A: erythema multiformae B: hereditary actodermal dysplasia C: Keratosis follicularils D: lichen planus

Q60 : Histological clefts in lichen planus are____________?

A: Civatte bodies B: Wickham’s Striae C: Max – Joseph spaces D: Auspitz’s sign

Q61 : Chocolate-coloured fluid is seen in the cystic space of_______________?

A: Dentigerous cyst B: Odontogenic deratocyst C: Unicystic ameloblastoma D: Papillary cystadenoma lymphomatosum

Q62 : IN MPDS which muscle is most apt to exhibit tenderness________________?

A: Temporalis B: Buccinator C: Masseter D: Lateral pterygoid

Q63 : Tick the feature of the sublingual route:

A: Pretty fast absorption B: A drug is exposed to gastric secretion C: A drug is exposed more prominent liver metabolism D: A drug can be administrated in a variety of doses

Q64 : Keratocyst has all of the following features except:___________?

A: It is more common in mandible B: May be filled with thin straw coloured fluid C: Low recurrence rate D: Expansion of bone clinically seen

Q65 : Which of the following is not a type of lichen planus?

A: Atrophic B: Hypertrophic C: Verrucous D: Erosive

Q66 : A cyst occurs under the tongue, caused by obstruction of a salivary gland. Such a cyst is called_______________?

A: Mucocele B: Ranula C: Dermoid cyst D: Dentigerous cyst

Q67 : COC is now called as:___________?

A: Odontogenic ghost cell tumor B: Dentinogenic ghost cell tumor C: Keratcysticodontogenic tumour D: A & C

Q68 : Generalised thickening of cortical and cancellous bones is seen in_______________?

A: Osteopetrsis B: Osteogenesis imperfecta C: Infantile hyperostosis D: Pagets disease

Q69 : A 36 year old man with an asymptomatic swelling in the body of the mandible with radiographic features of radiolucency with radiopaque flecks in suffering from:

A: Odontogenic keratocyst B: Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor (CEOT) C: Ameloblastoma D: None of the above

Q70 : Psoriasis is associated with:____________?

A: Geographic tongue B: Benign median rhomboid glossitis C: Lupus erythematosus D: lupus vulgaris

Q71 : Multiple fractures are seen in______________?

A: Rickets B: Osteogenesis imperfecta C: Osteomyelitis D: Osteoma

Q72 : Precocious puberty is most characteristic of which of the following ?

A: Jaffe’s syndrome B: Monostotic fibrous dysplasia C: Abright’s syndrome D: Osteogenesi imperfecta

Q73 : A patient complains of loss of visual acuity, deafness and enlargement of maxilla_______________?

A: Paget’s disease B: Osteomalacia C: Fibrous dysplaisa D: Osteogenesis imperfecta

Q74 : Destructively invasive locally malignant with rare metastasis, the lesion is:

A: Fibroma B: Ameloblastoma C: Papilloma D: None of the above

Q75 : In Cleidorcranial dysostosis, sometimes the roots of the permanent teeth are_____________?

A: Thin and long B: thin and short C: Thick and short D: Fused

Q76 : Adamantinoma is:_____________?

A: A tumour from embrynomal cells of developing teeth B: Also known as Amebloblastoma C: is a complication of dentigerous cyst D: All of the above

Q77 : Adeno lymphoma refers to_______________?

A: Adeno carcinoma B: Adeno cystic lymphoma C: Warthin’s tumour D: Pleomorphic adenoma

Q78 : Which of the following structures are associated with bells palsy______________?

A: sub mandibular gland B: Seventh cranial nerve C: Temporomandibular joint D: Glosso pharyngeal nerve

Q79 : All are diseases of skin except:

A: Erythema multiforme B: Keratosis follicularis C: Erythema migrans D: Psoriasis form lesion

Q80 : Severe pain which arise after injury to or sectioning of a peripheral sensory nerve is called as____________?

A: Temporal arteritis B: Neuralgia C: Neuritis D: Causalgia

Q81 : Delayed dentition with multiple supernumerary teeth is seen in________________?

A: Hypoparathyroidism B: Cleidocranial dysplasia C: Pierre Robin Syndrome D: Mongolism (Down’s Syndrome

Q82 : A flat, cricumscribed discolouration of skin or mucosa that may vary in size and shape is referred to as:____________?

A: Epulits B: Macule C: Nodule D: papule

Q83 : Lesions associated with vital tooth?

A: condensing osteitis B: cementoma C: Periapical abscess D: None of the above

Q84 : TENS therapy is useful in ______________?

A: MPDS B: Trigeminal neuralgia C: Facial palsy D: Neurosis

Q85 : The most aggressive and destructive cyst is:_____________?

A: Periapical cyst B: Dentigerous cyst C: Globulomaxillary cyst D: Nasopalatine cyst

Q86 : Fine Needle aspiration biopsy is indicated to diagnose:_____________?

A: Traumatic ulcer B: Pemphigus C: Necrotic pulp D: Chronic gingivitis

Q87 : A 15 years old boy reports with a rapidly growing swelling of the mandible with intermittent pain patient history is that the swelling occurred after an episode of trauma Radiographs reveal formation of new subperiosteal bone producing Onion skin appearance The patient also has lip paresthesia elevated white blood cell count Based on the clinical and radiographic picture, one of the following condition could be considered in the provisional diagnosis_________________?

A: Fracture of the jaw with cancellous bone formation B: Chronic suppurative osteomyelitis C: Burkitt’s Lymphoma D: Ewing’s sarcoma

Q88 : Periapical cyst is usually preceded by:__________?

A: Periapical granuloma B: Periodontal abscess C: Periapical abscess D: All of the above

Q89 : Odontogenic keratocyst has the following feature:____________?

A: Occurs due to infection periapically B: Is developmental in origin C: Can be treated by aspiration D: Has low recurrence rate

Q90 : Which is a degeneration disorder characterized by atrophic changes of the deeper structures (e.g fat, muscle, cartilage & bone) involving one side of the face:

A: Scleroderma B: Parry Romberg syndrome C: Miescher’s syndrome D: peutz-Jeghers syndrome

Q91 : Which of the following statement is FALSE?

A: A salivary duct obstruction can cause a unilateral swelling in the floor of the mouth that is largest before a meal and smallest after a meal B: The lesion termed a ranula is associated with the sublingual salivary gland C: The sublingual salivary gland is the most common site of salivary gland neoplasia D: A pleomorphic adenoma is the most common salivary gland neoplasm

Q92 : A person experiences throbbing pain at night. It is due to:__________?

A: Acute Pulpal degeneration B: Acute periodontal abscess C: Chronic pulpitis D: Cellulitis

Q93 : Complication of Rheumatoid arthritis of condyle is______________?

A: Fibrous ankylosis B: Subluxation C: Dislocation D: None of the above

Q94 : Each of the following cyst is associated with an impacted tooth except:___________?

A: Dentigerous cyst B: Clacifying epithelial odontogenic cyst C: Keratocyst D: Primordial cyst

Q95 : Reduction in flow of saliva is not generally seen in______________?

A: Elderly diabetics B: Patient undergoing radiation therapy C: Patients suffering from parkinsonism D: Patients on phenothiazine drugs

Q96 : Mutation in GNAS 1 gene is associated with________________?

A: Fibrous dysplasia B: Ossifying fibroma C: Focal cementoosseous dysplasia D: Periapical cementoosseous dysplasia

Q97 : Steven-Johnson syndrome involves:____________?

A: Type I hypersensitivity reactions B: Type II hypersensitivity reactions C: Type III hypersensitivity reactions D: Type IV hypersensitivity reactions

Q98 : The tooth most commonly involved in chronic focal sclerosing osteomyelitis is:___________?

A: Maxillary second molar B: Maxillary third molar C: Maxillary first molar D: Mandibular first molar

Q99 : All of the following are inherited disorders of connective tissue EXCEPT:

A: Alport syndrome B: Ehlers-Danlos syndrome C: Marfan syndrome D: McArdle’s disease

Q100 : In Cicatrial pemphigoid, which antigen is bound by IgG on the epidermal side of the salt split skin technique:___________?

A: XVII collagen B: Epiligrin C: Laminin 5 D: BP antigen 1 & 2

Free Medical Engineering MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

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