Free Medical Engineering MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

Q1 : Osteomyelitis begins as an inflammation of:__________?

A: Cortical bone B: Periosteum C: Medullary bone D: periosteum and inner cortex

Q2 : Tiny linear or arc-shaped bodied, amorphous, brittle and eosinophilic in reaction found in association with some odontogenic cysts, are called:___________?

A: Civattle bodies B: Russell bodies C: Guarneri bodies D: rushton bodies

Q3 : Leafless fruit laden tree or cherry-blossom appearance on a sialogram indicates_____________?

A: Mucoepidermoid cell carcinoma B: Acinar cell carcinoma C: Sjogren’s syndrome D: Pleomorphic adenoma

Q4 : All of the following are true about trigeminal neuralgia EXCEPT______________?

A: it is unilateral B: it is of throbbing nature C: it is triggered by touching cheeks, mucosa etc D: occurs in bouts

Q5 : Which of the following salivary gland tumors has highest rate of malignant transformation?

A: Patrotid B: Submanidbular C: Sublingual D: Minor

Q6 : The swollen degenerating epithelial cell due to acantholysis is:__________?

A: Anitschow cell B: Tzanck cell C: Ghost cell D: Prickle cell

Q7 : If a patient with Raynaud’s disease puts his hand in cold water, the hand appears_______________?

A: Red B: Yellow C: White D: Blue

Q8 : Mikulicz’s disease is____________?

A: An inflammatory disease B: Neoplastic disease C: An autoimmune disease D: Viral infection

Q9 : A patient with ameloblastoma of the jaw can best be treated by:_____________?

A: Irradiation B: Excision C: Enucleation D: Surgical removal followed by cauterization

Q10 : In which one of the following salivary gland tumors, the tumor is composed of ” intermediate cells” histologically?

A: Adenoid cystic carcinoma B: Mucoepidermoid carcinoma C: Pleomorphic adenoma D: Warthin’s tumour

Q11 : The most common salivary gland malignant neoplasm in bones______________?

A: Plemorphic adenoma B: Adenoid cystic carcinoma C: Muceopidermoid carcinoma D: Adenolymphoma

Q12 : Tzancks smear test is used in the diagnosis of___________?

A: pemphigus B: ANUG C: Apthous disease D: Lichen planus

Q13 : Which sites are characteristically affected in Stevens-Johnson syndrome?

A: Liver, spleen, pancreas B: Conjunctive, genitalia, oral mucosa C: Oral mucosa, lacrimal apparatus, ears D: Parotid gland, palate, conjunctive

Q14 : A 6 year old patient with extra cusp on maxillary central incisor is associated with all except______________?

A: Mohr’s syndrome B: Sturge-Weber Syndrome C: Rubinstein Taybi Syndrome D: Proteus Syndrome

Q15 : Intraepithelial vacuolation with formation of vesicle or bulla intraepithelially above the basal layer is characteristically seen in:___________?

A: Candida albicans B: Bullous pemphigoid C: Pemphigus D: Lichen planus

Q16 : Mask-like appearance of face with narrowing of aperture and rigidity of the mucosa is characteristic of______________?

A: Progressive systemic sclerosis B: Tetanus C: Multiple sclerosis D: Osteomalacia

Q17 : Which of the following differentiates between condensing osteitis and benign cementoblastoma?

A: Condensing osteitis is associated with vital teeth where as cementoblastoma is associated with non-vital teeth B: In condensing osteitis radiopacity is attached to tooth where as in cementoblastoma it is not C: Cementoblastoma is associated with vital tooth where as condensing osteitis is associated with non-vital tooth D: In cementoblastoma radiopacity is attached to tooth where as in condensing osteitis it is not

Q18 : In an acute attack of migraine, the during of choice______________?

A: Ergontamine tortrate B: Methysergide C: Propranolol D: Caffeine

Q19 : Unusual extensibility of the tongue is a characteristic feature of:__________?

A: Epidermolysis bullose B: Syphilis C: Darier-White disease D: Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

Q20 : Which of the following is an oral manifestation of lichen planus?

A: Dentinogenesis imperfecta B: Fordyce spots C: White, chalky enamel surface D: White radiating lines on the buccal mucosa

Q21 : Formation of multiple pinpoint bleeding spots on scratching the skin is characteristic of:__________?

A: pemphigus vulgaris B: Lupus erythematosus C: Psoriasis D: Herpangina

Q22 : In Cicatrial pemphigoid, which antigen is bound by IgG on the epidermal side of the salt split skin technique:___________?

A: XVII collagen B: Epiligrin C: Laminin 5 D: BP antigen 1 & 2

Q23 : A flat, cricumscribed discolouration of skin or mucosa that may vary in size and shape is referred to as:____________?

A: Epulits B: Macule C: Nodule D: papule

Q24 : Commonest site for ectopic salivary gland tumour is_______________?

A: Tongue B: Cheek C: Palate D: Neck

Q25 : Which of the following is not a type of lichen planus?

A: Atrophic B: Hypertrophic C: Verrucous D: Erosive

Q26 : Oral lesions are not seen in:_________?

A: Psoriasis B: Pemphigoid C: Stevens Johnson syndrome D: Candidiasis

Q27 : An acute apical abscess is usually a result of:__________?

A: Periodontal pocket B: Occlusal interference C: Necrotic pulp D: Chronic gingivitis

Q28 : Adamantinoma is:_____________?

A: A tumour from embrynomal cells of developing teeth B: Also known as Amebloblastoma C: is a complication of dentigerous cyst D: All of the above

Q29 : Aminocaproic acid is a drug of choice for treatment of:

A: Acute myocardial infarction B: Bleeding from fibrinolytic therapy C: Heart failure D: Multiple pulmonary emboli

Q30 : All of the following statements about the typical features of a periapical granuloma are true EXCEPT:

A: It consists of proliferating granulation tissue B: It can form only if the periapical bone is resorbed C: It shows evidence of local antibody production D: It results from immunologically mediated tissue damage

Q31 : Salivary gland aplasia is seen in_________________?

A: Hemifacial microstomia B: LADD syndrome C: Mandibulo-facial dysostosis (Treacher Collins) D: All of the above

Q32 : Fine Needle aspiration biopsy is indicated to diagnose:_____________?

A: Traumatic ulcer B: Pemphigus C: Necrotic pulp D: Chronic gingivitis

Q33 : Albera-Schonberg’s disease is______________?

A: steomyelitis B: Osteopetrosis C: condensing osteitis D: Osteomalacia

Q34 : Standard treatment of ameloblastoma:

A: Segmental resection with 1 cm of normal bone B: Enbloc resection C: Enucleation D: Enucleation with cauterization

Q35 : Periapical cyst is usually preceded by:__________?

A: Periapical granuloma B: Periodontal abscess C: Periapical abscess D: All of the above

Q36 : Which of the following is more prone to osteomyelitis:__________?

A: Maxilla B: zygoma C: palatine bone D: mandible

Q37 : Which of the following is a true neoplasm of functional cementoblasts:

A: Periapical cemental dysplasia B: Familial cemental dysplasia C: Benign cementoblastoma D: Hypercementosis

Q38 : A patient complains of loss of visual acuity, deafness and enlargement of maxilla_______________?

A: Paget’s disease B: Osteomalacia C: Fibrous dysplaisa D: Osteogenesis imperfecta

Q39 : Chronic periostitis in children is known as__________?

A: Cherubism B: Garre’s osteomyelitis C: Histiocytosis X D: Tuberculous osteomyelitis

Q40 : Dentigerous cyst is associated with the following

A: Impacted 3rd molar B: Impacted supernumerary tooth C: Odontome D: All of the above

Q41 : Odontogenic epithelium responsible for the formation of dental cyst is:___________?

A: Cell rests of seirre B: Enamel organ C: Reduced enamel epithelium D: Cell rests of malassez

Q42 : Target lesions are observed in case of:___________?

A: Erythema multiforme B: Lichenplanus C: Pemphigus vulgaris D: Psoriasis

Q43 : Compound odontoma shows on a radiograph as:____________?

A: Supernumerary teeth B: Radiolucent and radiopaque areas C: Masses of calcified areas D: Distinguishable tooth – like structures

Q44 : Cyst arising from rests of malassez is:___________?

A: Dental cyst B: Dentigerous cyst C: Radicular cyst D: Karato cyst

Q45 : Dentigerous cyst is suspected if the follicular space is more than:

A: 2-3 mm B: 3-4 mm C: 1-2 mm D: >5 mm

Q46 : Ghost (shadow) cells are seen in:___________?

A: Amebloblastic fibroodontoma B: Calcifying odontogenic cyst C: Compound odontoma D: All of the above

Q47 : Constant feature associated with a radicular cyst

A: An impacted tooth B: A missing both C: A non-vital tooth D: An anomalous tooth

Q48 : Wickham’s striae are seen in:__________?

A: Lichen planus B: Leukoplakia C: Leukoedema D: Erythema multiformae

Q49 : Scleroderma involves:__________?

A: Tightening of oral mucosa and periodontal involvement B: Multiple palmar keratosis C: Raynaud’s phenomenon D: All of the above

Q50 : Severe pain which arise after injury to or sectioning of a peripheral sensory nerve is called as____________?

A: Temporal arteritis B: Neuralgia C: Neuritis D: Causalgia

Q51 : Sjorgen’s syndrome includes all except____________?

A: Xerostomia B: Keratoconjunctivitis C: Arthritis D: Lymphoma

Q52 : Oral diagnostic features of scleroderma include all of the following, except:__________?

A: A hard and a rigid tongue B: Widening of the oral aperture C: Pseudo ankylosis of the T.M joint D: Difficulty in swallowing

Q53 : Which of the following is an odontogenic tumor?

A: Arrhenoblastoma B: Astrocytoma C: Ameloblastoma D: Granular cell tumor

Q54 : A patient with fibrous dysplasia can be treated by________________?

A: Surgical excision B: Removal of adjacent teeth C: Irradiation of the lesion D: Conservative surgery

Q55 : Which of the following diseases of the bone characteristically exhibits (in contrast to the other three conditions) a single lesion in a single bone ?

A: Central giant cell granuloma B: Osteopetrosis C: Paget’s disease of the bone D: Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia

Q56 : A salivary gland tumour, which histologically shows a double layer of epithelial cells based on a reactive lymphoid stroma is_______________?

A: Pleomorphic adenoma B: Mucoepidermoid carcinoma C: Acinic cell tumour D: Warthin tumour

Q57 : The primary causative factor for myofacial pain dysfunction syndrome of the TMJ is_______________?

A: Infratemporal space infection B: Auriculotemporal neuritis C: Muscular overextension and over contraction D: Otitis media

Q58 : Delayed dentition with multiple supernumerary teeth is seen in________________?

A: Hypoparathyroidism B: Cleidocranial dysplasia C: Pierre Robin Syndrome D: Mongolism (Down’s Syndrome

Q59 : The most likely diagnosis in a 23 year old, mentally alert, male dwarf with disproportionate arm and leg to body growth, prominent forehead and retruded maxilla is_______________?

A: Cretinism B: Pituitary dwarfism C: Acromegaly D: Achondroplasia

Q60 : Botryoid odontogenic cyst is a variant of:___________?

A: Lateral periodontal cyst B: Apical periodontal cyst C: Gingival cyst of new born D: Gingival cysts of adult

Q61 : Psoralane Ultraviolet A (PUVA) therapy is advised in__________?

A: Pemphigus vulgaris B: Apthous ulcers C: Carcinoma in situ D: ANUG

Q62 : Which of the following drugs when used for prolonged period in the maintenance treatment of tonic-clonic seizures can lead to increased metabolism of warfarin like drugs?

A: Phenobarbital. B: Meprobamate C: Chlordiazepoxide D: Triazolam

Q63 : A non-neoplastic hereditary bone lesion, histologically similar to central giant cell granuloma affects children and shows, a bilateral involvement of the jaws with eye to heaven appearance clinically is_______________?

A: Fibrous dysplasia B: Cherubism C: Craniofacial dysostosis D: Chondro-ectodermal dysplasia

Q64 : The cyst with highest recurrence rate is:_____________?

A: Keratocyst B: Periapical cyst C: Nasoalveolar cyst D: Globulamaxilary cyst

Q65 : Keratocyst has all of the following features except:___________?

A: It is more common in mandible B: May be filled with thin straw coloured fluid C: Low recurrence rate D: Expansion of bone clinically seen

Q66 : Lichen planus:____________?

A: Can undergo malignant change B: Treated only by medication C: Must be excised D: Is a idiosyncrasy reaction

Q67 : Multiple fractures are seen in______________?

A: Rickets B: Osteogenesis imperfecta C: Osteomyelitis D: Osteoma

Q68 : Preauricular pain, grating sensation and partial trismus are the symptons of______________?

A: TMJ fibrous ankylosis B: . TMJ bony ankylosis C: TMJ pain dysfurction symdnome D: Ear infection

Q69 : A condition of the mouth with increase the caries activity in the oral cavity is_________________?

A: Xerostomia B: Malignancy C: Hairy tongue D: Watery saliva

Q70 : Low grade infection which leads to localized periosteal reaction is:____________?

A: Garre’s osteomyelitis B: Acute osteomyelitis C: Condensing osteitis D: Local alveolar osteitis

Q71 : Psoriasis is associated with:____________?

A: Geographic tongue B: Benign median rhomboid glossitis C: Lupus erythematosus D: lupus vulgaris

Q72 : Subepithelial vesicles are characteristic all of the following EXCEPT:

A: Bullous pemphigoid B: Cicatricial pemphigoid C: Pemphigus D: Epidermolysis bullosa acquisita

Q73 : Acute hemorrhage cystitis is a common toxic effect seen with: _________?

A: Vincristine. B: Tamoxifen. C: Doxorubicin. D: Cyclophosphamide

Q74 : Easy fatigability of muscles seen in______________?

A: Epilepsy B: MPDS C: Myasthenia gravis D: Cerebral palsy

Q75 : The most aggressive and destructive cyst is:_____________?

A: Periapical cyst B: Dentigerous cyst C: Globulomaxillary cyst D: Nasopalatine cyst

Q76 : Which of the following is cariostatic?

A: Selenium B: Magnesium C: Cadmium D: Molybdenum

Q77 : Which of the following statements concerning potassium channel openers is true?

A: These agents decrease transmembrane calcium current associated in a smooth muscle with long-lasting relaxation B: These agents has a moderate reflex and vascular dilative action caused by the stimulation of sensitive nerve endings C: Beneficial effects of these agents are related primarily to their hemodynamic effects – decreased heart rate, blood pressure, and contractility – which decrease myocardial oxygen requirements at rest and during exercise D: These agents increase the permeability of K channels, probably ATP-dependent K channels, that results in stabilizing the membrane potential of excitable cells near the resting potential

Q78 : Most demineralised zone in enamel caries:____________?

A: Translucent zone B: Body of lession C: Dark zone D: Surface zone

Q79 : Eruption fails in this bone disease, as there is no bone resorption_______________?

A: Primary hyperparathyroidism B: Phantom bone disease C: Paget’s disease D: Osteopetrosis

Q80 : The fascial spaces involved in ludwig’s angina are___________?

A: Unilateral – submandibular & sublingual spaces B: Bilateral – submandibular & sublingual spaces C: Unilateral – submandibular sublingual & submental spaces D: Bilateral – submandibular sublingual & submental spaces

Q81 : Steven-Johnson syndrome involves:____________?

A: Type I hypersensitivity reactions B: Type II hypersensitivity reactions C: Type III hypersensitivity reactions D: Type IV hypersensitivity reactions

Q82 : Multiple bilateral dentigerous cysts are seen in:___________?

A: Down’s syndrome B: Maroteaux lamy syndrome C: Teacher collin syndrome D: Gorlin Goltz syndrome

Q83 : Fish Net pattern is pemphigus vulgaris is seen in which of the following tests?

A: Direct immunofluorescence B: Tzanck smear C: FNAC D: Histopathology

Q84 : Histological clefts in lichen planus are____________?

A: Civatte bodies B: Wickham’s Striae C: Max – Joseph spaces D: Auspitz’s sign

Q85 : Radiographic finding in pindborg tumour is:___________?

A: Sun-burst appearance B: Onion – peel appearance C: Driven-snow appearance D: Cherry -blossom appearance

Q86 : An asymptomatic tooth has deep has deep caries on occlusal surface. Radiograph shows radiopaque mass at apex of the tooth: this mass is most likely to be:____________?

A: Cementoma B: Condensing Osteitis C: Chronic apical periodontitis D: Acute apical periodontitis

Q87 : Ground glass appearance in bone is seen in_____________?

A: Hyper parathyroidism B: Fibrous dysplasia C: Condensing osteitis D: Osteopetrosis

Q88 : Butterfly rash is typically seen in:____________?

A: Herpes simplex B: Systemic lupus erythematosus C: Scleroderma D: None of the above

Q89 : The following site is the common involvement in case of Myositis ossificans_______________?

A: Massetor B: Hyoglossus C: Stylohyoid D: Lateral pterygoid

Q90 :

A: A patient with multiple impacted supernumerary teeth and can bring his shoulders together is suffering from______________? B: Klinefelter’s syndrome C: Down’s syndrome D: Down’s syndrome

Q91 : Immunoflourescence is seen at basement membrane as patchy distribution in:___________?

A: Lichen planus B: Pemphigus C: Pemphigoid D: Lupus erythematosus

Q92 : Bell’s palsy is triggered by_______________?

A: Exposure to cold B: Tooth extraction C: Local and systemic infection D: Any of the above

Q93 : Normal serum, Ca nd alkaline PO4 are in________________?

A: Cherubism B: Hypothyroidism C: Hyperparathyroidism D: Paget’s disease

Q94 : The earliest response of pulpitis is:__________?

A: Cyst formation B: Calcification C: Hyalinization D: Formation of dental granuloma

Q95 : Streptococcus mutans produces an adhesive polymer from sucrose, known as:__________?

A: Levans B: Lectins C: Glucans D: Polyfructans

Q96 : MONRO’s abscess are seen in:____________?

A: Pemphigus B: Lichen planus C: Leukoplakia D: Psoriasis

Q97 : The most common odontogenic tumour which occurs in relationto an unerupted tooth in the anterior maxilla:____________?

A: Odontogenic adenomatoid tumour B: Odontoma C: Myxoma D: Cementifying fibroma

Q98 : Xerostomia, enlargment of salivary and lacrimal glands is seen in______________?

A: Sicca syndrome B: Sjogren’s syndrome C: Mickulicz’s disease D: None of the above

Q99 : Treacher collins syndrome is______________?

A: Maxillofacial Dysostosis B: . Mandibulofacial Dysostosis C: Maxillomandibulofacial Dysostosis D: Condylar Dysostosis

Q100 : Erythema multiformae is:___________?

A: An acute self limiting disease, of skin and oral mucous membrane B: painless vesicular self limiting disease C: A viral disease D: Bacterial infection

Free Medical Engineering MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

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