Free Medical Engineering MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

Q1 : A condition of the mouth with increase the caries activity in the oral cavity is_________________?

A: Xerostomia B: Malignancy C: Hairy tongue D: Watery saliva

Q2 : MONRO’s abscess are seen in:____________?

A: Pemphigus B: Lichen planus C: Leukoplakia D: Psoriasis

Q3 : Streptococcus mutans produces an adhesive polymer from sucrose, known as:__________?

A: Levans B: Lectins C: Glucans D: Polyfructans

Q4 : Transformation into osteosarcoma is seen with________________?

A: pagets disease and polyostotic fibrous dysplasia B: pagets disease and osteopetrosis C: pagets disease and osteopetrosis D: Cherubism and pagets disease

Q5 : Which of the following statements concerning potassium channel openers is true?

A: These agents decrease transmembrane calcium current associated in a smooth muscle with long-lasting relaxation B: These agents has a moderate reflex and vascular dilative action caused by the stimulation of sensitive nerve endings C: Beneficial effects of these agents are related primarily to their hemodynamic effects – decreased heart rate, blood pressure, and contractility – which decrease myocardial oxygen requirements at rest and during exercise D: These agents increase the permeability of K channels, probably ATP-dependent K channels, that results in stabilizing the membrane potential of excitable cells near the resting potential

Q6 : Which of the following is an odontogenic tumor?

A: Arrhenoblastoma B: Astrocytoma C: Ameloblastoma D: Granular cell tumor

Q7 : Salivary gland aplasia is seen in_________________?

A: Hemifacial microstomia B: LADD syndrome C: Mandibulo-facial dysostosis (Treacher Collins) D: All of the above

Q8 : Tender submandibular swelling is mostly due to________________?

A: Ludwig’s angina B: Stone or Sialolithiasis C: Enlarged lymph nodes D: All of the above

Q9 : The most aggressive and destructive cyst is:_____________?

A: Periapical cyst B: Dentigerous cyst C: Globulomaxillary cyst D: Nasopalatine cyst

Q10 : Plaque microflora can-split carbohydrates. What does it means?

A: Sacchrolytic B: Saprophytic C: Virulant D: Avirulant

Q11 : Erosive lichen planus resembles which of the following:

A: Monilial gingiviti B: Desquamative gingivitis C: Herpetic gingivitis D: Acute ulcerative gingivitis

Q12 : A 6 year old patient with extra cusp on maxillary central incisor is associated with all except______________?

A: Mohr’s syndrome B: Sturge-Weber Syndrome C: Rubinstein Taybi Syndrome D: Proteus Syndrome

Q13 : Target lesions are observed in case of:___________?

A: Erythema multiforme B: Lichenplanus C: Pemphigus vulgaris D: Psoriasis

Q14 : Complication of Rheumatoid arthritis of condyle is______________?

A: Fibrous ankylosis B: Subluxation C: Dislocation D: None of the above

Q15 : Chronic periostitis in children is known as__________?

A: Cherubism B: Garre’s osteomyelitis C: Histiocytosis X D: Tuberculous osteomyelitis

Q16 : False about cherubism________________?

A: Unilocular lesion B: Bilateral C: Presence of Giant cell D: Delayed eruption of permanent teeth

Q17 : Most demineralised zone in enamel caries:____________?

A: Translucent zone B: Body of lession C: Dark zone D: Surface zone

Q18 : Orange peel and Ground glass radiographic appearance is observed in case of______________?

A: Pagets disease B: Weing’s sarcoma C: Osteosarcoma D: Fibrous dysplasia

Q19 : Bifid ribs, multiple radiolucent lesions of the jaws multiple basal cell nevi and flax cerebri calcification are found in:_____________?

A: Basal cell nevus syndrome B: Sturge weber syndrome C: Horner syndrome D: Hereditary internal polyposis

Q20 : A 10-years-old child presents with anemia and recurrent fractures. The X-ray shows diffuse hyper density of bone The diagnosis is most likely to be______________?

A: . Osteogenesis imperfecta B: Osteopetrosis C: Osteochondroma D: Hyperparathyroidism

Q21 : Of the following which is most common disorder causing pain about the masticatory apparatus including the TMJ_____________?

A: Traumatic arthritis B: Trigeminal neuralgia C: Myofacial pain dysfunction syndrome D: Degenerative arthritis

Q22 : With prolonged use in seizure states, which of the following drugs can cause coarsening of facial features, hirsutism, gingival hyperplasia and osteomalacia?

A: Valproic acid. B: Carbamazepine. C: Ethosuximide. D: . Phenytoin

Q23 : Progression of dental caries caries on pit and fissure occurs from:

A: Apex of the pit and fissure B: Wide and of the pit and fissure C: Lateral surface of the pit and fissure D: Bottom of the pit and fissure

Q24 : Which of the following Orofacial pain is not associated with vascular origin ?

A: Cluster headache B: Giant cell arteritis C: Anaesthesia dolorosa D: Chronic paroxysmal hemicrania

Q25 : All of the following are true about trigeminal neuralgia EXCEPT______________?

A: it is unilateral B: it is of throbbing nature C: it is triggered by touching cheeks, mucosa etc D: occurs in bouts

Q26 : “Fothergill’s disease” is one of the synonyms of_______________?

A: Sarcoidosis B: Multiple sclerosis C: Trigeminal neuralgia D: Lupus erythematosis

Q27 : Acute osteomyelitis is most frequently caused by which of the following microorganisms?

A: Gonococcus B: Enterococcus C: Streptococcus D: Staphylococcus

Q28 : Amber coloured tooth traslucency, blue sclerae and bone fragility and a history of pervious bone fractures are characteristic findings in_____________?

A: Osteoporosis B: Osteogenesis imperfecta C: Osteitis deformans D: Osteitis fibrosa cystic

Q29 : Each of the following cyst is associated with an impacted tooth except:___________?

A: Dentigerous cyst B: Clacifying epithelial odontogenic cyst C: Keratocyst D: Primordial cyst

Q30 : Precocious puberty is most characteristic of which of the following ?

A: Jaffe’s syndrome B: Monostotic fibrous dysplasia C: Abright’s syndrome D: Osteogenesi imperfecta

Q31 : Odontogenic keratocyst has the following feature:____________?

A: Occurs due to infection periapically B: Is developmental in origin C: Can be treated by aspiration D: Has low recurrence rate

Q32 : The main causative agent of Ludwig’s angina is:__________?

A: Anaerobic streptococci B: Aerobic streptococci C: Staphylococci D: Legionella infection

Q33 : Radiographic finding in pindborg tumour is:___________?

A: Sun-burst appearance B: Onion – peel appearance C: Driven-snow appearance D: Cherry -blossom appearance

Q34 : Cyst arising from rests of malassez is:___________?

A: Dental cyst B: Dentigerous cyst C: Radicular cyst D: Karato cyst

Q35 : Tzancks smear test is used in the diagnosis of___________?

A: pemphigus B: ANUG C: Apthous disease D: Lichen planus

Q36 : A fluid filled elevated lesion of skin is called___________?

A: Bulla B: Macule C: Papule D: Nodule

Q37 : Which of the following is of salivary gland origin ?

A: Acinic cell carcinoma B: Granular cell myoblastoma C: Chondrosarcoma D: All of the above

Q38 : A patient with fibrous dysplasia can be treated by________________?

A: Surgical excision B: Removal of adjacent teeth C: Irradiation of the lesion D: Conservative surgery

Q39 : Oral ocular and genital lesions are seen in:__________?

A: Erythema multiforma B: Steven Johnson syndrome C: SLE D: None of the above

Q40 : Clavicle is absent is______________?

A: Osteogenesis imperfecta B: Cleidocranial dysostosis C: Fibrous dysplasia D: Osteopetrosis

Q41 : Chronic hyperplastic pulpitis is:__________?

A: Necrotizing B: Suppurative lesion C: proliferation of a chronically inflamed pulp D: Also called as phoenix abscess

Q42 : Robinson’s classification of ameloblastoma does not include:___________?

A: Multicentric B: Non-Functional C: Anatomically benign D: clinically persistent

Q43 : A non-neoplastic hereditary bone lesion, histologically similar to central giant cell granuloma affects children and shows, a bilateral involvement of the jaws with eye to heaven appearance clinically is_______________?

A: Fibrous dysplasia B: Cherubism C: Craniofacial dysostosis D: Chondro-ectodermal dysplasia

Q44 : Dentigerous cyst is associated with the following

A: Impacted 3rd molar B: Impacted supernumerary tooth C: Odontome D: All of the above

Q45 : Which of the following is absent in Crest syndrome

A: calcinosis cutis B: Raynaud’s phenomenon C: Telagietasis D: Endocrine disorders

Q46 : Antinuclear antibodies are seen in:___________?

A: SLE B: Systemic sclerosis C: Morphea D: All of the above

Q47 : Osteogenesis imperfecta_____________?

A: In a se*-linked disorder of bones that develop that develop in cartilage B: manifests with blue sclera which are pathognomonic of this diease C: May be associated with deafness D: Has associations with amelogenesis imperfecta

Q48 : Break up time (BUT) test is done in_______________?

A: Sjogren’s syndrome B: Multiple sclerosis C: SLE D: Myasthenia gravis

Q49 : Koebner’s phenomenon is seen with_____________?

A: Erythema multiforme B: Pemphigoid C: Psoriasis D: Impetigo

Q50 : Treacher collins syndrome is______________?

A: Maxillofacial Dysostosis B: . Mandibulofacial Dysostosis C: Maxillomandibulofacial Dysostosis D: Condylar Dysostosis

Q51 : Conjoint tendon is formed by _________?

A: External and internal oblique B: External oblique and transversus abdominis C: Internal oblique and transversus abdominis D: Internal oblique

Q52 : A 3-year old patient reports of painless progressive bilateral facial swellings. The tentative diagnosis is______________?

A: Cherubism B: Monostotic fibrous dysplasia C: Ployostotic fibrous dysplasia D: Central giant cell granuloma

Q53 : Adenomatoid odontogenic tumour is characterized histologically by:___________?

A: Polyhedral epithelial cells B: Tubular / duct like cells C: Stellate shaped cells D: Stratified squamous epithelial cells

Q54 : Best way to differentiate a periapical cyst and a perapical granuloma is:__________?

A: Radiographically B: Histologically C: Clinically D: None of the above

Q55 : Which of the following is inherited as a autosomal dominant triat?

A: Lichen planus B: Bullous pemphigoid C: Pemphigus yulgaris D: White sponge nevus

Q56 : Which of the following drugs is not effective in case of Trigeminal Neuralgia ?

A: Carbamazipine B: acetaminophen C: phenytoin sodium D: Baclofen

Q57 : In the clinical evaluation, the most significant, finding of the parotid mass may be accompanying_____________?

A: Rapid progressive painless enlargement B: Nodular consistency C: Supramental and preauricular lymphadenopathy D: Facial paralysis

Q58 : During a routine checkup a 70 year old male is found to have Serum Alkaline Phosphatase three time the upper limit of normal. Serum Calcium, Serum Phosphorous and liver function tests are normal. The most likely diagonsis is______________?

A: Primary hyperparathyroidism B: Paget’s disease of the bone C: Osteomalacia D: Metastatic bone disease

Q59 : Pain due to acute irreversible pulpitis is:____________?

A: Spontaneous B: Sharp- shock like C: Lasting for short time D: Continuous

Q60 : In Cicatrial pemphigoid, which antigen is bound by IgG on the epidermal side of the salt split skin technique:___________?

A: XVII collagen B: Epiligrin C: Laminin 5 D: BP antigen 1 & 2

Q61 : The following are the high grade salivary gland malignancies, EXCEPT______________?

A: Basal cell adenocarcinoma B: Mucoepidermoid carcinoma C: Adenoid Cystic carcinoma D: Salivary duct carcinoma

Q62 : Histological clefts in lichen planus are____________?

A: Civatte bodies B: Wickham’s Striae C: Max – Joseph spaces D: Auspitz’s sign

Q63 : A patient 18 years of age with sebaceous cysts on the scalp and back of the neck an osteroma on the right mandible: Radiographs reveal multiple impacted supernumerary teeth in both jaws. These findings suggest_______________?

A: Cleidocranial dysostosis B: Ectodermal dysplasia C: Gardner’s syndrome D: Osteogenesis imperfecta

Q64 : Easy fatigability of muscles seen in______________?

A: Epilepsy B: MPDS C: Myasthenia gravis D: Cerebral palsy

Q65 : Trigeminal neuralgia_______________?

A: Does not disturb the patient during sleep B: Can be treated with NSAID’s C: Always bilateral in distribution D: Is a hereditary condition

Q66 : The most common cause of TMJ ankylosis is______________?

A: Trauma B: Osteoarthritis C: Childhood illness D: Rheumatoid arthritis

Q67 : Which of the following statement is false in relation to myofacial pain dysfunction syndrome ?

A: Maily affects young females B: is caused by muscle fatigue due to chronic oral habits are grinding and clenching C: Treatment involves construction of occlusal guard and stress free emotional condition D: The perioral musculature becomes hypotonic

Q68 : The histopathology of osteopetrosis shows_______________?

A: Endosteal bone formation and lack of normal bone resorption B: Periosteal bone formation and lack of normal bone resorption C: . Persence of extra collagen fibres and less calcification resulting in resistance of bones to fracture D: Presence of numerous osteoclasts and a few osteoblasts

Q69 : Lesion of facial nerve at level of stylomastoid foramen leads to____________?

A: Loss of taste sensation from Ant. 2/3 of tongue B: Paralysis of orbicularis oculi muscle C: Loss of innervation to stapedius D: Loss of lacrimal secretion

Q70 : Which is not true of Ludwig’s angina?

A: Usually arises from an infected molar B: involves submandibular space C: May need emergency tracheostomy D: None of the above

Q71 : A twenty-one-year-old woman complains that regular, gentle brushing of her teeth is painful besides causing profuse bleeding. Oral examination reveals the loss of epithelium from the attached gingival of both arches. Which of the following dermatological problems is this patient most likely to have?

A: Benign mucous membrane pemphigiod B: Chronic discoid lupus erythematosus C: Pemphigus D: Psoriasis

Q72 : Biochemical abnormality associated with osteogenesis imperfecta is increase in______________?

A: Alkaline phosphatase B: Acid phosphatase C: Bicarbonate ion D: Phosphorylase enzyme

Q73 : Oral lesions are not seen in:_________?

A: Psoriasis B: Pemphigoid C: Stevens Johnson syndrome D: Candidiasis

Q74 : Pleomorphic adenoma is______________?

A: a teratomatous tumour of the salivary gland B: a neuroendocrine cell tumour C: multiple ectopic tissue proliferating in the salivary gland D: myoepithelial or ductal reserve cell origin

Q75 : The earliest response of pulpitis is:__________?

A: Cyst formation B: Calcification C: Hyalinization D: Formation of dental granuloma

Q76 : This drug reduces blood pressure by acting on vasomotor centers in the CNS:

A: Labetalol B: Clonidine C: Enalapril D: Nifedipine

Q77 : Osteosarcoma characteristically may develop in some causes of______________?

A: Osteopetrosis B: Osteogenesis imperfecta C: Acromegaly D: Osteitis deformans

Q78 : Unusual extensibility of the tongue is a characteristic feature of:__________?

A: Epidermolysis bullose B: Syphilis C: Darier-White disease D: Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

Q79 : Down’s syndrome is associated with all except__________________?

A: Retrognathia B: Periodontal disease C: Premature loss off deciduous teeth D: Delayed eruption of deciduous teeth

Q80 : The most common organism involved in a periapical abscess is:__________?

A: Strep. Pyogens B: Strep. viridans C: β hemolytic stretococci D: Non hemolytic stretococci

Q81 : Which of the following are characteristic feature of cherubism______________?

A: Premature exfoliation of primary teeth B: Hypoplastic defects C: Progressive painless symmetric D: A + C

Q82 : Most used selective medium for streptococcus mutans is:____________?

A: Mac conkey medium B: Mitus salivarius bacitracin agar C: Nutrient agar D: Tellurite medium

Q83 : In ectodermal dysplasia all of the following structures are affected except:___________?

A: Hair B: Nails C: Teeth D: Salivary glands

Q84 : Alkaline phosphatase increases in_____________?

A: Pagets disease B: Osteopetrosis C: Cherubism D: A and D

Q85 : Osteomyelitis begins as an inflammation of:__________?

A: Cortical bone B: Periosteum C: Medullary bone D: periosteum and inner cortex

Q86 : Which of the following is cariostatic?

A: Selenium B: Magnesium C: Cadmium D: Molybdenum

Q87 : All of the following lesions may be classified as Odontogenic Tumours EXCEPT:

A: Acanthomatous ameloblastoma B: Branchial cleft cyst C: Myxoma D: Simple ameloblastoma

Q88 : Lupus erythematosus is:____________?

A: Reactive lesion B: Degenerative condition C: Autoimmune disorder D: Neoplastic condition

Q89 : Subepithelial vesicles are characteristic all of the following EXCEPT:

A: Bullous pemphigoid B: Cicatricial pemphigoid C: Pemphigus D: Epidermolysis bullosa acquisita

Q90 : Class III malocclussion is seen in all of the following except___________________?

A: pierre robinson syndrome B: Cleft palate C: Cleidocranial dysplasia D: Craniofacial dysostosis

Q91 : IN MPDS which muscle is most apt to exhibit tenderness________________?

A: Temporalis B: Buccinator C: Masseter D: Lateral pterygoid

Q92 : Generalised thickening of cortical and cancellous bones is seen in_______________?

A: Osteopetrsis B: Osteogenesis imperfecta C: Infantile hyperostosis D: Pagets disease

Q93 : In a middle – aged man the radiograph shows cotton-wool appearance and blood investigation reveal an elevated alkaline phosphatase levels. The tentative diagnosis is____________?

A: Paget’s disease B: Cherubism C: Fibrous dysplasia D: Osteogenesis imperfecta

Q94 : Facial pain due to elongated styloid process is called_________________?

A: Cowden syndrome B: Tic doulourex C: Eagle’s syndrome D: Reiter’s syndrome

Q95 : Carbamazepine has been utilized to successfully diminish attacks in trigeminal neuralgia. During this therapy which of the following is indicated ?

A: Clinical observation only B: Clinical observation and complete blood and platelet counts prior to and at frequent intervals during therapy C: No monitoring D: Complete blood investigation only if adverse symptoms arise

Q96 : The characteristic alarm clock headache is a feature of_______________?

A: Auriculotemporal Neuralgia B: Trigeminal Neuralgia C: Sphenopalatine Neuralgia D: Glossopharyngeal Neuralgia

Q97 : Adenomatold odontogenic tumour is most commonly found in:

A: Anterior mandible B: Posterior maxilla C: Anterior maxilla D: Ramus of mandible

Q98 : Botryoid odontogenic cyst is a variant of:___________?

A: Lateral periodontal cyst B: Apical periodontal cyst C: Gingival cyst of new born D: Gingival cysts of adult

Q99 : Grinspan syndrome is associated with:___________?

A: Leukoplakia B: Lichen planus C: Aphthous ulcer D: Oral submucous fibrosis

Q100 : Bell’s palsy is triggered by_______________?

A: Exposure to cold B: Tooth extraction C: Local and systemic infection D: Any of the above

Free Medical Engineering MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

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