Free Medical Engineering MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

Q1 : A 6 year old patient with extra cusp on maxillary central incisor is associated with all except______________?

A: Mohr’s syndrome B: Sturge-Weber Syndrome C: Rubinstein Taybi Syndrome D: Proteus Syndrome

Q2 : Trigeminal neuralgia_______________?

A: Does not disturb the patient during sleep B: Can be treated with NSAID’s C: Always bilateral in distribution D: Is a hereditary condition

Q3 : In Xerostomia the salivary pH is_______________?

A: Unaffected B: Low C: High D: Increased in morning & decrease in day

Q4 : Odontogenic keratocyst has the following feature:____________?

A: Occurs due to infection periapically B: Is developmental in origin C: Can be treated by aspiration D: Has low recurrence rate

Q5 : An acute apical abscess is usually a result of:__________?

A: Periodontal pocket B: Occlusal interference C: Necrotic pulp D: Chronic gingivitis

Q6 : Leafless fruit laden tree or cherry-blossom appearance on a sialogram indicates_____________?

A: Mucoepidermoid cell carcinoma B: Acinar cell carcinoma C: Sjogren’s syndrome D: Pleomorphic adenoma

Q7 : Formation of multiple pinpoint bleeding spots on scratching the skin is characteristic of:__________?

A: pemphigus vulgaris B: Lupus erythematosus C: Psoriasis D: Herpangina

Q8 : The appendix is situated in the ____________?

A: Left Lower Quadrant B: Right Upper Quadrant C: Right lower Quadrant D: Left Upper Quadrant

Q9 : Darier’s disease is associated with:____________?

A: Pernicious anaemia B: Rickets with involvement of teeth and bones C: Vitamin A deficiency and involvement of oral epithelium and skin D: Diffuse tender ulceration on the palate predominantly

Q10 : The swollen degenerating epithelial cell due to acantholysis is:__________?

A: Anitschow cell B: Tzanck cell C: Ghost cell D: Prickle cell

Q11 : Psoriasis is associated with:____________?

A: Geographic tongue B: Benign median rhomboid glossitis C: Lupus erythematosus D: lupus vulgaris

Q12 : The fascial spaces involved in ludwig’s angina are___________?

A: Unilateral – submandibular & sublingual spaces B: Bilateral – submandibular & sublingual spaces C: Unilateral – submandibular sublingual & submental spaces D: Bilateral – submandibular sublingual & submental spaces

Q13 : Delayed dentition with multiple supernumerary teeth is seen in________________?

A: Hypoparathyroidism B: Cleidocranial dysplasia C: Pierre Robin Syndrome D: Mongolism (Down’s Syndrome

Q14 : The following site is the common involvement in case of Myositis ossificans_______________?

A: Massetor B: Hyoglossus C: Stylohyoid D: Lateral pterygoid

Q15 : In which of the following disorders a circulating antibody directed to intercellular cementing substance of stratified squamous epithelium is observed:_________?

A: Lichen planus B: Verrucous vulgaris C: Bullous pemphigoid D: Pemphigus vulgari

Q16 : The chronic osteomyelitis of the jaw consists of:_____________?

A: condensing osteitis B: Sclerotic cemental mass C: chronic diffuse sclerosing osteomyelitis D: All of the above

Q17 : Butterfly rash is typically seen in:____________?

A: Herpes simplex B: Systemic lupus erythematosus C: Scleroderma D: None of the above

Q18 : Nikolsky’s sign in positive in:_____________?

A: bullous pemphigus B: eipdermolysis bullosa C: herpes simplex D: erythema multiforme

Q19 : An asymptomatic tooth has deep has deep caries on occlusal surface. Radiograph shows radiopaque mass at apex of the tooth: this mass is most likely to be:____________?

A: Cementoma B: Condensing Osteitis C: Chronic apical periodontitis D: Acute apical periodontitis

Q20 : Acute osteomyelitis is most frequently caused by which of the following microorganisms?

A: Gonococcus B: Enterococcus C: Streptococcus D: Staphylococcus

Q21 : Organism involved in cellulitis is:___________?

A: Strept. mutans B: Strept. pyogenes C: Pneumococci D: klebsiella

Q22 : Which of the following is a true neoplasm of functional cementoblasts:

A: Periapical cemental dysplasia B: Familial cemental dysplasia C: Benign cementoblastoma D: Hypercementosis

Q23 : A neuralgia with trigger zones in the oropharynx and pain in the ear pharynx, nasopharynx, tonsils and posterior tongue is most likely_______________?

A: Trigeminal neuralgia B: Bell’s palsy C: Glossopharyngeal neuralgia D: Sphenopalatine neuralgia

Q24 : What is non characteristic of Eagle’s syndrome_______________?

A: Excessive lacrimation B: pain during mandibular movement C: Stabbing type pain orginate in the tonsillar regions D: When the jaws are closed the pain subsided

Q25 : Wickham’s striae are seen in:__________?

A: Lichen planus B: Leukoplakia C: Leukoedema D: Erythema multiformae

Q26 : In Cicatrial pemphigoid, which antigen is bound by IgG on the epidermal side of the salt split skin technique:___________?

A: XVII collagen B: Epiligrin C: Laminin 5 D: BP antigen 1 & 2

Q27 : Chronic periostitis in children is known as__________?

A: Cherubism B: Garre’s osteomyelitis C: Histiocytosis X D: Tuberculous osteomyelitis

Q28 : In which one of the following salivary gland tumors, the tumor is composed of ” intermediate cells” histologically?

A: Adenoid cystic carcinoma B: Mucoepidermoid carcinoma C: Pleomorphic adenoma D: Warthin’s tumour

Q29 : Cafe au lait macules are seen in:___________?

A: Von Reklinghausen’s neurofibromatosis B: Albright’s syndrome and Bloom’s syndrome C: All of the above D: None of the above

Q30 : If a patient with Raynaud’s disease puts his hand in cold water, the hand appears_______________?

A: Red B: Yellow C: White D: Blue

Q31 : One of them is not a true cyst:__________?

A: Nemorrhagic cyst B: Median palatal C: Globulomaxillary D: Nasolabial

Q32 : Immunoflourescence is seen at basement membrane as patchy distribution in:___________?

A: Lichen planus B: Pemphigus C: Pemphigoid D: Lupus erythematosus

Q33 : Eruption cyst:______________?

A: Transforms into dentigerous cyst B: Regresses after eruption of the tooth C: Is found in the place of the missing tooth D: Is a type of dentigerous cyst

Q34 : In a middle – aged man the radiograph shows cotton-wool appearance and blood investigation reveal an elevated alkaline phosphatase levels. The tentative diagnosis is____________?

A: Paget’s disease B: Cherubism C: Fibrous dysplasia D: Osteogenesis imperfecta

Q35 : Robinson’s classification of ameloblastoma does not include:___________?

A: Multicentric B: Non-Functional C: Anatomically benign D: clinically persistent

Q36 : A patient shows inability to close the right corner of the mouth is most probably suffering form_______________?

A: Myasthenia gravis B: Bell’s palsy C: TMJ dysfunction syndrome D: Multiple sclerosis

Q37 : Mucocutaneous lesions associated with neoplasia____________?

A: pemphigus vegentans B: Parapemphigus C: Paraneoplastic pemphigus D: familial benign pemphigus

Q38 : The treatment for a child with cherubism is______________?

A: surgical excision B: cosmetic surgery after puberty C: radiation D: Enbloc dissection

Q39 : Pleomorphic adenoma arises from______________?

A: Myoepithelial cells B: Aciner cells C: Connective tissue D: Stem cells

Q40 : White radiating lines can be observed in case of lesions of:___________?

A: Lichen planus B: Erythema multiforme C: Pemphigus D: Leukoplakia

Q41 : Immunoflourescence test is positive in:____________?

A: Psoriasis B: pemphigus vulgaris C: Lupus erythematosus D: Both B & C

Q42 : Unicentric, non-functional, anatomically benign, clinically persistent tumor is:___________?

A: CEOT B: Enameloma C: Odontoma D: Ameloblastoma

Q43 : Saliva is increased by_____________?

A: Cholinergic drugs B: Anticholinergic drugs C: Andrenergic drugs D: None of the above

Q44 : Primordial cyst develops:______________?

A: In place of missing teeth B: In teeth in which crown development is completed C: In periapical region D: In mandibular body

Q45 : A patient aged 50 years presented with a history of jaw expansion and enlargement of maxilla_____________? 0

A: paget’s disease B: Acromegaly C: Fibrous dysplasia D: Hyperparathyroidism

Q46 : Clavicle is absent is______________?

A: Osteogenesis imperfecta B: Cleidocranial dysostosis C: Fibrous dysplasia D: Osteopetrosis

Q47 : Which of the following statements concerning potassium channel openers is true?

A: These agents decrease transmembrane calcium current associated in a smooth muscle with long-lasting relaxation B: These agents has a moderate reflex and vascular dilative action caused by the stimulation of sensitive nerve endings C: Beneficial effects of these agents are related primarily to their hemodynamic effects – decreased heart rate, blood pressure, and contractility – which decrease myocardial oxygen requirements at rest and during exercise D: These agents increase the permeability of K channels, probably ATP-dependent K channels, that results in stabilizing the membrane potential of excitable cells near the resting potential

Q48 : The most common salivary gland malignant neoplasm in bones______________?

A: Plemorphic adenoma B: Adenoid cystic carcinoma C: Muceopidermoid carcinoma D: Adenolymphoma

Q49 : Ghost (shadow) cells are seen in:___________?

A: Amebloblastic fibroodontoma B: Calcifying odontogenic cyst C: Compound odontoma D: All of the above

Q50 : Three stages in progression of acute odontogenic infection are:___________?

A: Periapical osteitis, cellulitis, abscess B: Abscess, cellulitis, osteitis, Periapical C: cellulitis, Abscess, Periapical, osteitis D: Periapical osteitis, abscess, cellulitis,

Q51 : A 60 year old has got severe bulla and target lesion Which erythema around halo and genital lesions:_____________?

A: Stevens Jhonson syndrome B: Herpes zoster C: Herpes simplex D: Herpangina

Q52 : Delayed eruption of teeth occurs in_________________?

A: Craniofacial dysostosis B: Hyperthyroidism C: Cleidocranial dysostosis D: Osteitis deformans

Q53 : A 15 years old boy reports with a rapidly growing swelling of the mandible with intermittent pain patient history is that the swelling occurred after an episode of trauma Radiographs reveal formation of new subperiosteal bone producing Onion skin appearance The patient also has lip paresthesia elevated white blood cell count Based on the clinical and radiographic picture, one of the following condition could be considered in the provisional diagnosis_________________?

A: Fracture of the jaw with cancellous bone formation B: Chronic suppurative osteomyelitis C: Burkitt’s Lymphoma D: Ewing’s sarcoma

Q54 : Scleroderma involves:__________?

A: Tightening of oral mucosa and periodontal involvement B: Multiple palmar keratosis C: Raynaud’s phenomenon D: All of the above

Q55 : Destructively invasive locally malignant with rare metastasis, the lesion is:

A: Fibroma B: Ameloblastoma C: Papilloma D: None of the above

Q56 : Generalised hyper cementesis is seen in_______________?

A: Hypophosphatasia B: Pagets disease C: Fibrous dysplasia D: Cherubism

Q57 : Garre’s chronic non suppurative sclerosing osteomyelitis is characterized clinically by:____________?

A: Endosteal bone formation B: Periosteal bone formation C: Resorption of medullary bone D: Resorption of cortical bone

Q58 : Adenomatold odontogenic tumour is most commonly found in:

A: Anterior mandible B: Posterior maxilla C: Anterior maxilla D: Ramus of mandible

Q59 : Which of the following is NOT a clinical feature of Pierre-Robin syndrome ?

A: Micrognathia B: Retrognathia C: Glossoptosis D: Coloboma of lower eyelid

Q60 : Conjoint tendon is formed by _________?

A: External and internal oblique B: External oblique and transversus abdominis C: Internal oblique and transversus abdominis D: Internal oblique

Q61 : Oral lesion associated with ulcerative colitis?

A: Lichen planus B: pyostomatitis vegentanus C: sarcoidosis D: Dermatitis herpetiformis

Q62 : Ameloblastoma most frequently occurs in:___________?

A: Mandibular moral region B: Maxillary molar region C: Mandibular premolar region D: Maxillary premolar region

Q63 : Histological clefts in lichen planus are____________?

A: Civatte bodies B: Wickham’s Striae C: Max – Joseph spaces D: Auspitz’s sign

Q64 : A 3-year old patient reports of painless progressive bilateral facial swellings. The tentative diagnosis is______________?

A: Cherubism B: Monostotic fibrous dysplasia C: Ployostotic fibrous dysplasia D: Central giant cell granuloma

Q65 : Histopathologically reversal lines are seen in_____________?

A: Cherubism B: Fibrous dysplasia C: Paget’s disease of the bone D: Craniofacial dysplasia

Q66 : The granulomatous tissue that is responsible for destruction of articular surfaces of TMJ in rheumatoid arthritis is known as________________?

A: Pannus B: Pulse granuloma C: Baker’s cyst D: Immune granuloma

Q67 : Precocious puberty is most characteristic of which of the following ?

A: Jaffe’s syndrome B: Monostotic fibrous dysplasia C: Abright’s syndrome D: Osteogenesi imperfecta

Q68 : Intraepithelial vacuolation with formation of vesicle or bulla intraepithelially above the basal layer is characteristically seen in:___________?

A: Candida albicans B: Bullous pemphigoid C: Pemphigus D: Lichen planus

Q69 : The cells most frequently found in a granuloma are:___________?

A: Mast cells B: Giant cells C: Lymphocytes D: Neutrophilis

Q70 : Which of the following shows the presence of cholesterol crystals:___________?

A: Keratocyst B: Periodontal cyst C: Aneurysmal cyst D: Hemorrhagic cyst

Q71 : Progression of dental caries caries on pit and fissure occurs from:

A: Apex of the pit and fissure B: Wide and of the pit and fissure C: Lateral surface of the pit and fissure D: Bottom of the pit and fissure

Q72 : All of the following are inherited disorders of connective tissue EXCEPT:

A: Alport syndrome B: Ehlers-Danlos syndrome C: Marfan syndrome D: McArdle’s disease

Q73 : The primary cause of acantholysis in pemphigus vulgaris is___________?

A: auto immunity B: Intercellular oedema C: intra epithelial oedema D: chronic alcoholism

Q74 : Mosaic pattern of bone is seen in radiographic features of_____________?

A: fibrous dysplasia B: paget’s disease C: Osteopetrosis D: Osteogenesis imperfecta

Q75 : In a 60 year old adult, which of the following diseases causes expansile maxillary lesions ?

A: Paget’s disease B: Acromegaly C: Fibrous Dysplasia D: Rickets

Q76 : Intra Oral pleomorphic adenoma usually occurs in_______________?

A: Buccal mucosa B: Upper lip C: Floor of the mouth D: Palate

Q77 : Salivary duct calculi______________?

A: produce pain on eating B: Are commonest in the parotid ducts C: Are common cause of acute parotitis D: Are associated with hypercaleaemic states

Q78 : With prolonged use in seizure states, which of the following drugs can cause coarsening of facial features, hirsutism, gingival hyperplasia and osteomalacia?

A: Valproic acid. B: Carbamazepine. C: Ethosuximide. D: . Phenytoin

Q79 : Amber coloured tooth traslucency, blue sclerae and bone fragility and a history of pervious bone fractures are characteristic findings in_____________?

A: Osteoporosis B: Osteogenesis imperfecta C: Osteitis deformans D: Osteitis fibrosa cystic

Q80 : In the clinical evaluation, the most significant, finding of the parotid mass may be accompanying_____________?

A: Rapid progressive painless enlargement B: Nodular consistency C: Supramental and preauricular lymphadenopathy D: Facial paralysis

Q81 : Oral lesions are not seen in:_________?

A: Psoriasis B: Pemphigoid C: Stevens Johnson syndrome D: Candidiasis

Q82 : Most demineralised zone in enamel caries:____________?

A: Translucent zone B: Body of lession C: Dark zone D: Surface zone

Q83 : A patient with ameloblastoma of the jaw can best be treated by:_____________?

A: Irradiation B: Excision C: Enucleation D: Surgical removal followed by cauterization

Q84 : Osteosclerosis of bone occurs due to______________?

A: Decreased host resistance B: Increase in the virulence of organisms causes infection C: Increased host response D: Occurs in immunocompromised patients

Q85 : Which of the following are seen in ectodermal dysplasia?

A: Hyperpyrexia B: Protuberant lips and frontal bossing C: Defective or absence of sweat glands D: Any of the above

Q86 : Warthins tumor is_____________?

A: An adenolymphoma of the parotid gland B: A pleomorphic adenoma of parotid gland C: Carcinoma of the parotid gland D: None of the above

Q87 : Lesions associated with vital tooth?

A: condensing osteitis B: cementoma C: Periapical abscess D: None of the above

Q88 : A 40 year old woman report with the complaint of burning sensation in the mouth. Clinical examination reveals lesions consisting of radiating white striations in a retiform arrangement affecting buccal mucosa, tongue, lips & gingiva bilaterally. An incisional biopsy is suggestive of lichen planus. The following are different clinical forms of lichen planus except:

A: Atrophic lichen planus B: Hypertrophic lichen planus C: bullous lichen planus D: Verrucous lichen planus

Q89 : Ectodermal dysplasia is:___________?

A: Autosomal recessive B: Autosomal dominant C: X-linked dominant D: X-linked recessive

Q90 : An attack of cluster headache can be aborted by _____________?

A: Morphine administration B: Breathing oxygen C: Aspirin administration D: Sublingual nitroglycerine administration

Q91 : Dentigerous cyst is likely to cause which neoplasia?

A: Ameloblastoma B: Adeno carcinoma C: Fibrosarcoma D: All of the above

Q92 : Preauricular pain, grating sensation and partial trismus are the symptons of______________?

A: TMJ fibrous ankylosis B: . TMJ bony ankylosis C: TMJ pain dysfurction symdnome D: Ear infection

Q93 : Anti-convulsants frequently used in management of trigeminal neuralgia are_______________?

A: Phenytoin B: Gabapentin C: Baclofen D: All of the above

Q94 : Severe pain which arise after injury to or sectioning of a peripheral sensory nerve is called as____________?

A: Temporal arteritis B: Neuralgia C: Neuritis D: Causalgia

Q95 : Koebner’s phenomenon is seen with_____________?

A: Erythema multiforme B: Pemphigoid C: Psoriasis D: Impetigo

Q96 : Which is not true of Ludwig’s angina?

A: Usually arises from an infected molar B: involves submandibular space C: May need emergency tracheostomy D: None of the above

Q97 : TENS therapy is useful in ______________?

A: MPDS B: Trigeminal neuralgia C: Facial palsy D: Neurosis

Q98 : Sjogren’s syndrome affects_____________?

A: Exocrine glands B: Paracrine glands C: Endocrine glands D: Autocrine glands

Q99 : The most common organism involved in a periapical abscess is:__________?

A: Strep. Pyogens B: Strep. viridans C: β hemolytic stretococci D: Non hemolytic stretococci

Q100 : Which is a degeneration disorder characterized by atrophic changes of the deeper structures (e.g fat, muscle, cartilage & bone) involving one side of the face:

A: Scleroderma B: Parry Romberg syndrome C: Miescher’s syndrome D: peutz-Jeghers syndrome

Free Medical Engineering MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

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