Free Medical Engineering MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

Q1 : Histopathological study of lichen planus shows:___________?

A: Mixed cellular inflammatory infiltrate B: Presence of T-lymphocytes predominantly C: Antiepithelial antibodies D: Scattered infiltrate with ill-defined lower border

Q2 : In the clinical evaluation, the most significant, finding of the parotid mass may be accompanying_____________?

A: Rapid progressive painless enlargement B: Nodular consistency C: Supramental and preauricular lymphadenopathy D: Facial paralysis

Q3 : A patient shows inability to close the right corner of the mouth is most probably suffering form_______________?

A: Myasthenia gravis B: Bell’s palsy C: TMJ dysfunction syndrome D: Multiple sclerosis

Q4 : Oral diagnostic features of scleroderma include all of the following, except:__________?

A: A hard and a rigid tongue B: Widening of the oral aperture C: Pseudo ankylosis of the T.M joint D: Difficulty in swallowing

Q5 : Histopathologically reversal lines are seen in_____________?

A: Cherubism B: Fibrous dysplasia C: Paget’s disease of the bone D: Craniofacial dysplasia

Q6 : Which of the following is cariostatic?

A: Selenium B: Magnesium C: Cadmium D: Molybdenum

Q7 : Trigeminal heuralgia (tic doulourex) is characterized by______________?

A: Paralysis of one side of the face B: Uncontrollable twitching of muscles C: Sharp, excruciating pain of short duration D: Prolonged episodes of plain on one side of the face

Q8 : Immature bony trabeculae are found in_____________?

A: Fibrous dysplasia B: Paget’s disease C: Rickets D: Cleidocranial Dysplasia

Q9 : L.E Cell phenomenon in peripheral blood is seen in:__________?

A: Rheumatic heart disease B: Infective endocarditis C: Ischemic heart disease D: Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

Q10 : Of the following which is most common disorder causing pain about the masticatory apparatus including the TMJ_____________?

A: Traumatic arthritis B: Trigeminal neuralgia C: Myofacial pain dysfunction syndrome D: Degenerative arthritis

Q11 : Which of the following differentiates between condensing osteitis and benign cementoblastoma?

A: Condensing osteitis is associated with vital teeth where as cementoblastoma is associated with non-vital teeth B: In condensing osteitis radiopacity is attached to tooth where as in cementoblastoma it is not C: Cementoblastoma is associated with vital tooth where as condensing osteitis is associated with non-vital tooth D: In cementoblastoma radiopacity is attached to tooth where as in condensing osteitis it is not

Q12 : Nodular growth of alveolus is seen in:___________?

A: Paget’s disease B: Osteomas C: Cementifying fibroma D: All of these

Q13 : Most common primary malignant bone tumor is_______________?

A: Osteosarcoma B: Ewing sarcoma C: Metastatic carcinoma D: Multiple Myeloma

Q14 : Best way to differentiate a periapical cyst and a perapical granuloma is:__________?

A: Radiographically B: Histologically C: Clinically D: None of the above

Q15 : Histological clefts in lichen planus are____________?

A: Civatte bodies B: Wickham’s Striae C: Max – Joseph spaces D: Auspitz’s sign

Q16 : The chronic osteomyelitis of the jaw consists of:_____________?

A: condensing osteitis B: Sclerotic cemental mass C: chronic diffuse sclerosing osteomyelitis D: All of the above

Q17 : Transformation into osteosarcoma is seen with________________?

A: pagets disease and polyostotic fibrous dysplasia B: pagets disease and osteopetrosis C: pagets disease and osteopetrosis D: Cherubism and pagets disease

Q18 : Conjoint tendon is formed by _________?

A: External and internal oblique B: External oblique and transversus abdominis C: Internal oblique and transversus abdominis D: Internal oblique

Q19 : The recurrence of pleomorphic adenoma is attributed to____________?

A: Presence of an incomplete capsule B: Mixed origin C: Absence of capsule D: Perineural spread

Q20 : A flat, cricumscribed discolouration of skin or mucosa that may vary in size and shape is referred to as:____________?

A: Epulits B: Macule C: Nodule D: papule

Q21 : Frey’s syndrome results from surgery of the ______________?

A: Submandibular salivary gland B: Parotid gland C: sublingual salivary gland D: TMJ

Q22 : Which of the following is a true neoplasm of functional cementoblasts:

A: Periapical cemental dysplasia B: Familial cemental dysplasia C: Benign cementoblastoma D: Hypercementosis

Q23 : A 15 years old boy reports with a rapidly growing swelling of the mandible with intermittent pain patient history is that the swelling occurred after an episode of trauma Radiographs reveal formation of new subperiosteal bone producing Onion skin appearance The patient also has lip paresthesia elevated white blood cell count Based on the clinical and radiographic picture, one of the following condition could be considered in the provisional diagnosis_________________?

A: Fracture of the jaw with cancellous bone formation B: Chronic suppurative osteomyelitis C: Burkitt’s Lymphoma D: Ewing’s sarcoma

Q24 : The latest drug of the choice in the management in trigeminal neuralgia is______________?

A: . valproic acid B: carbamazepine C: Diphen hydantoin D: None of the above

Q25 : Easy fatigability of muscles seen in______________?

A: Epilepsy B: MPDS C: Myasthenia gravis D: Cerebral palsy

Q26 : An attack of cluster headache can be aborted by _____________?

A: Morphine administration B: Breathing oxygen C: Aspirin administration D: Sublingual nitroglycerine administration

Q27 : Clavicle is absent is______________?

A: Osteogenesis imperfecta B: Cleidocranial dysostosis C: Fibrous dysplasia D: Osteopetrosis

Q28 : Unicentric, non-functional, anatomically benign, clinically persistent tumor is:___________?

A: CEOT B: Enameloma C: Odontoma D: Ameloblastoma

Q29 : Grinspan syndrome is associated with:_________?

A: Hypertension, diabetes, lichen planus B: Oral, ocular, genital lesions C: Hypertension with oral lesions D: lemphigus, CHF, diabetes

Q30 : Tender submandibular swelling is mostly due to________________?

A: Ludwig’s angina B: Stone or Sialolithiasis C: Enlarged lymph nodes D: All of the above

Q31 : Commonest site for ectopic salivary gland tumour is_______________?

A: Tongue B: Cheek C: Palate D: Neck

Q32 : Adenomatold odontogenic tumour is most commonly found in:

A: Anterior mandible B: Posterior maxilla C: Anterior maxilla D: Ramus of mandible

Q33 : Amber coloured tooth traslucency, blue sclerae and bone fragility and a history of pervious bone fractures are characteristic findings in_____________?

A: Osteoporosis B: Osteogenesis imperfecta C: Osteitis deformans D: Osteitis fibrosa cystic

Q34 : Spindle cell carinoma is a variant of_____________?

A: Pleomorphic Adenoma B: Adenoid cystic carcinoma C: Basal cell carcinoma D: Squamous cell carcinoma

Q35 : Lesion of facial nerve at level of stylomastoid foramen leads to____________?

A: Loss of taste sensation from Ant. 2/3 of tongue B: Paralysis of orbicularis oculi muscle C: Loss of innervation to stapedius D: Loss of lacrimal secretion

Q36 : Saliva is increased by_____________?

A: Cholinergic drugs B: Anticholinergic drugs C: Andrenergic drugs D: None of the above

Q37 : Bimanual palpation technique is carried out for____________________?

A: Submandibular gland B: Sublingual gland C: Ranula D: Cervical lymph nodes when they are enlarged due to inflammation

Q38 : A 3-year old patient has extensive vesicles on lip, tongue, oral mucous membrane, After 2-4 days vesicles rupture at followed by pseudomembrane formation and also some dermal lesions seen what will be the diagnosis?

A: Herpetic stomatitis B: EM C: ANUG D: Steven-Johnson syndrome

Q39 : Reversible pulpitis change to irreversible pulpitis primarily because of:__________?

A: Vacular strangulation B: Reduced host resistance C: Invasion of microorganisms D: An increase in microbial virulence

Q40 : COC is now called as:___________?

A: Odontogenic ghost cell tumor B: Dentinogenic ghost cell tumor C: Keratcysticodontogenic tumour D: A & C

Q41 : All of the following are inherited disorders of connective tissue EXCEPT:

A: Alport syndrome B: Ehlers-Danlos syndrome C: Marfan syndrome D: McArdle’s disease

Q42 : What is non characteristic of Eagle’s syndrome_______________?

A: Excessive lacrimation B: pain during mandibular movement C: Stabbing type pain orginate in the tonsillar regions D: When the jaws are closed the pain subsided

Q43 : Corticosteroids are useful in treatment of TMJ arthritis because they have_____________?

A: An analgesic effects B: An anti-inflammatory effect C: Inhibitory effect on synovial membrane D: Analgesic and anti-inflammatory effect

Q44 : Fine Needle aspiration biopsy is indicated to diagnose:_____________?

A: Traumatic ulcer B: Pemphigus C: Necrotic pulp D: Chronic gingivitis

Q45 : Xeroderma pigmentosum is characterized by:___________?

A: Autosomal dominant inheritance B: Inability to repair sunlight induced damage to DNA C: Irregular accemulation of melanin in the basal cell layer D: Acanthosis of epithelium with elongation of rete ridges

Q46 : Chronic hyperplastic pulpitis is:__________?

A: Necrotizing B: Suppurative lesion C: proliferation of a chronically inflamed pulp D: Also called as phoenix abscess

Q47 : A fluid filled elevated lesion of skin is called___________?

A: Bulla B: Macule C: Papule D: Nodule

Q48 : Ground glass appearance in bone is seen in_____________?

A: Hyper parathyroidism B: Fibrous dysplasia C: Condensing osteitis D: Osteopetrosis

Q49 : Target lesions are observed in case of:___________?

A: Erythema multiforme B: Lichenplanus C: Pemphigus vulgaris D: Psoriasis

Q50 : Eruption cyst:______________?

A: Transforms into dentigerous cyst B: Regresses after eruption of the tooth C: Is found in the place of the missing tooth D: Is a type of dentigerous cyst

Q51 : Tick the drug type for which microsomal oxidation is the most prominent:

A: Lipid soluble B: Water soluble C: Low molecular weight D: High molecular weight

Q52 : Which syndrome consists of flushing, warmness and perspiration over the cheek and pinna of the ear on the side following the ingestion of highly seasoned food ?

A: Fanconi’s B: Auriculotemporal C: Horner’s D: Cushin’s

Q53 : Chemical mumps’ is synonymous with_____________?

A: Epidemic parotitis B: Iodine mumps C: Nutritional mumps D: Nonspecific mumps

Q54 : Antinuclear antibodies are seen in:___________?

A: SLE B: Systemic sclerosis C: Morphea D: All of the above

Q55 : With prolonged use in seizure states, which of the following drugs can cause coarsening of facial features, hirsutism, gingival hyperplasia and osteomalacia?

A: Valproic acid. B: Carbamazepine. C: Ethosuximide. D: . Phenytoin

Q56 : Steven-Johnson syndrome involves:____________?

A: Type I hypersensitivity reactions B: Type II hypersensitivity reactions C: Type III hypersensitivity reactions D: Type IV hypersensitivity reactions

Q57 : Salivary gland stone most commonly involves___________?

A: Submandibular gland B: Parotid gland C: Sub lingual glands D: Lingual glands

Q58 : Intraepithelial vacuolation with formation of vesicle or bulla intraepithelially above the basal layer is characteristically seen in:___________?

A: Candida albicans B: Bullous pemphigoid C: Pemphigus D: Lichen planus

Q59 : Preauricular pain, grating sensation and partial trismus are the symptons of______________?

A: TMJ fibrous ankylosis B: . TMJ bony ankylosis C: TMJ pain dysfurction symdnome D: Ear infection

Q60 : The most common complication of mumps is______________?

A: myocarditis B: Orchitis C: Uveitis D: Conjunctivits

Q61 : Most common cyst in oral region is:__________?

A: Medial cyst B: Radicular cyst C: Follicular cyst D: Naso labial cyst

Q62 : Immunoflourescence test is positive in:____________?

A: Psoriasis B: pemphigus vulgaris C: Lupus erythematosus D: Both B & C

Q63 : A 10-years-old child presents with anemia and recurrent fractures. The X-ray shows diffuse hyper density of bone The diagnosis is most likely to be______________?

A: . Osteogenesis imperfecta B: Osteopetrosis C: Osteochondroma D: Hyperparathyroidism

Q64 : Streptococcus mutans produces an adhesive polymer from sucrose, known as:__________?

A: Levans B: Lectins C: Glucans D: Polyfructans

Q65 : Xerostomia, enlargment of salivary and lacrimal glands is seen in______________?

A: Sicca syndrome B: Sjogren’s syndrome C: Mickulicz’s disease D: None of the above

Q66 : Which of the following statements about sjogren’s syndrome is incorrect______________?

A: MRI shows salt and pepper appearance B: Lacrimal gland enlargement is common C: Minor salivary gland biopsy is diagnostic test D: Pilocarpine is the most useful and convenient drug in its treatment

Q67 : Pain due to acute irreversible pulpitis is:____________?

A: Spontaneous B: Sharp- shock like C: Lasting for short time D: Continuous

Q68 : Destructively invasive locally malignant with rare metastasis, the lesion is:

A: Fibroma B: Ameloblastoma C: Papilloma D: None of the above

Q69 : Which of the following is more prone to osteomyelitis:__________?

A: Maxilla B: zygoma C: palatine bone D: mandible

Q70 : Grinspan syndrome is associated with:___________?

A: Leukoplakia B: Lichen planus C: Aphthous ulcer D: Oral submucous fibrosis

Q71 : Adamantinoma is:_____________?

A: A tumour from embrynomal cells of developing teeth B: Also known as Amebloblastoma C: is a complication of dentigerous cyst D: All of the above

Q72 : Adeno lymphoma refers to_______________?

A: Adeno carcinoma B: Adeno cystic lymphoma C: Warthin’s tumour D: Pleomorphic adenoma

Q73 : Lesions associated with vital tooth?

A: condensing osteitis B: cementoma C: Periapical abscess D: None of the above

Q74 : Warthins tumor is_____________?

A: An adenolymphoma of the parotid gland B: A pleomorphic adenoma of parotid gland C: Carcinoma of the parotid gland D: None of the above

Q75 : Adenoid cystic carcinoma is also known as_______________?

A: Cylindroma B: Pindborg tumor C: Warthins tumor D: Pleomorphic adenoma

Q76 :

A: A patient with multiple impacted supernumerary teeth and can bring his shoulders together is suffering from______________? B: Klinefelter’s syndrome C: Down’s syndrome D: Down’s syndrome

Q77 : Lichen planus:____________?

A: Can undergo malignant change B: Treated only by medication C: Must be excised D: Is a idiosyncrasy reaction

Q78 : Anti-convulsants frequently used in management of trigeminal neuralgia are_______________?

A: Phenytoin B: Gabapentin C: Baclofen D: All of the above

Q79 : Which of the following periapical conditions is often associated with a vital pulp?

A: Apical cyst B: Apical scar C: Condensing osteitis D: Chronic apical periodontitis

Q80 : In which one of the following salivary gland tumors, the tumor is composed of ” intermediate cells” histologically?

A: Adenoid cystic carcinoma B: Mucoepidermoid carcinoma C: Pleomorphic adenoma D: Warthin’s tumour

Q81 : A non-neoplastic hereditary bone lesion, histologically similar to central giant cell granuloma affects children and shows, a bilateral involvement of the jaws with eye to heaven appearance clinically is_______________?

A: Fibrous dysplasia B: Cherubism C: Craniofacial dysostosis D: Chondro-ectodermal dysplasia

Q82 : Plaque microflora can-split carbohydrates. What does it means?

A: Sacchrolytic B: Saprophytic C: Virulant D: Avirulant

Q83 : Cyst arising from dental lamina:___________________?

A: Radicular cyst B: Paradental cyst C: Eruption cyst D: Glandular odontogenic cyst

Q84 : Intra Oral pleomorphic adenoma usually occurs in_______________?

A: Buccal mucosa B: Upper lip C: Floor of the mouth D: Palate

Q85 : Which of the following is inherited as a autosomal dominant triat?

A: Lichen planus B: Bullous pemphigoid C: Pemphigus yulgaris D: White sponge nevus

Q86 : Pindborg tumor arises from:_________?

A: Basal layer of cells B: Stratum intermedium C: Stratum corneum D: Both B & D

Q87 : Delayed eruption of teeth occurs in_________________?

A: Craniofacial dysostosis B: Hyperthyroidism C: Cleidocranial dysostosis D: Osteitis deformans

Q88 : Oral lesions are not seen in:_________?

A: Psoriasis B: Pemphigoid C: Stevens Johnson syndrome D: Candidiasis

Q89 : Which of the following has the potential of undergoing Spontaneous malignant transformation _____________?

A: Osteomalacia B: Albright’s syndrome C: Paget’s disease of bone D: Osteogenesis imperfecta

Q90 : Which is a degeneration disorder characterized by atrophic changes of the deeper structures (e.g fat, muscle, cartilage & bone) involving one side of the face:

A: Scleroderma B: Parry Romberg syndrome C: Miescher’s syndrome D: peutz-Jeghers syndrome

Q91 : joint erosions are not a feature of:____________?

A: Rhematoid arthritis B: Psoriasis C: Multicentric reticulohisticytosis D: Systemis lupus eythematosus

Q92 : Cafe au lait macules are seen in:___________?

A: Von Reklinghausen’s neurofibromatosis B: Albright’s syndrome and Bloom’s syndrome C: All of the above D: None of the above

Q93 : Which of the following diseases of the bone characteristically exhibits (in contrast to the other three conditions) a single lesion in a single bone ?

A: Central giant cell granuloma B: Osteopetrosis C: Paget’s disease of the bone D: Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia

Q94 : Intra-epithelial bulla are found in:__________?

A: pemphigus B: Bullous pemphigoid C: Bullous lichen planus D: Pemphigoid

Q95 : Pleomorphic adenoma is______________?

A: a teratomatous tumour of the salivary gland B: a neuroendocrine cell tumour C: multiple ectopic tissue proliferating in the salivary gland D: myoepithelial or ductal reserve cell origin

Q96 : Alkaline phosphatase increases in_____________?

A: Pagets disease B: Osteopetrosis C: Cherubism D: A and D

Q97 : Mask-like appearance of face with narrowing of aperture and rigidity of the mucosa is characteristic of______________?

A: Progressive systemic sclerosis B: Tetanus C: Multiple sclerosis D: Osteomalacia

Q98 : The cells most frequently found in a granuloma are:___________?

A: Mast cells B: Giant cells C: Lymphocytes D: Neutrophilis

Q99 : Which histopathological type of odontogenic keratocyst is commoner, more invasive & has a greater tendency for recurrence ?

A: Orthokeratinised B: Parakeratinised C: Non-Keratinised D: Diskeratinised

Q100 : Bifid ribs, multiple radiolucent lesions of the jaws multiple basal cell nevi and flax cerebri calcification are found in:_____________?

A: Basal cell nevus syndrome B: Sturge weber syndrome C: Horner syndrome D: Hereditary internal polyposis

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