Free Medical Engineering MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

Q1 : Generally , contact areas between posterior teeth are located in which directions from the centr of the proximal surface ____________?

A: Facially and occlusally B: Facially and gingivally C: Lingually and gingivally D: Lingually and occlusally

Q2 : Blood is carried towards the heart by __________?

A: Arteries B: Capillaries C: Veins D: none of these

Q3 : The biting forces at molar region during mastication is_______________?

A: 20 to 55 pounds B: 30 to 75 pounds C: 50 to 75 pounds D: 90 to 200 pounds

Q4 : Difference between mandibular and maxillary premolars is that in the mandibular premolars ?

A: The buccal and lingual cusps are more prominent B: The lingual cusp is sharper and longer C: The lingual surface rounded and less developed D: The buccal surface is rounded and less developed

Q5 : After myocardial infarction all of the following enzyme levels are high except_____________?

A: Serum glutamic oxaloacetic transaminase (SGOT) B: Lactic Dehydrogenase (LDH) C: Creatine phospho kinase (CPK) D: Serum ornithine carbamyl transferase (SOCT)

Q6 : Which one is not correct for a productive theory?

A: It is predictive B: It discourages suggestion of different hypotheses C: It has explanatory power D: None of these

Q7 : Which utilitarian states that biodiversity is important for many ecosystem services that nature provides?

A: Narrowly utilitarian B: Broadly utilitarian C: Big utilitarian D: Small utilitarian

Q8 : Basically TMJ is a_____________?

A: Ball and socket joint B: Hinge and axis joint C: Synovial joint D: Diartmodal joint

Q9 : IN occlusion, the teeth have______________?

A: Cusp – to – cusp contact B: Edge- to – edge contact C: Marginal contact D: Surface – to- surface contact

Q10 : Thrombocytopenia due to increased platelet destruction is seen in_________________?

A: Aplasti anemia B: Cancer chemotherapy C: Acute leukemia D: Systemic lupus erythematosus

Q11 : Generally in majority of children, the sequence of eruption of permanent teeth in mandible is____________?

A: 1-6-2-3-5-4-7-8 B: 6-1-2-4-5-3-7-8 C: 6-1-2-3-4-5-7-8 D: 6-1-2-4-3-5-7-8

Q12 : The primary lateral incisors begin to calcify about the_____________?

A: 4th month of life B: 4th month in utero C: 41/2 month in utero D: 5th month in utero

Q13 : Which statement is incorrect for cloning?

A: The nucleus of a fertilized egg is replaced by the nucleus from the cell of a fully developed individual B: Division of a single egg into one or more separate embryos. C: The individual is the mirror image of the parent organism D: It involve methods of sexual reproduction

Q14 : The activation of caspases is likely to lead to_________________?

A: Apoptotic cell death B: Blood coagulation C: Mitotic cell division D: G1 to S phase of cell cycle

Q15 : Mesial concavity making the prognosis poor for a furcation involvement is present in_____________?

A: Maxillary canine B: Maxillary 1st premolar C: Mandibular 1st premolar D: Maxillary 2nd premolar

Q16 : Ratio of mesiodistal width to height of crown of maxillary canine is______________?

A: 6:10 B: 8:10 C: 6:8 D: 7:10

Q17 : In hemephilic patient which of the following should not be given_______________?

A: Factor VIII concentrate B: Cryoprecipitate C: EACA D: Platelet factor

Q18 : All of the following can be transmitted through blood tranfusion except ______________?

A: Malaria B: Leukemia C: Hepatitis D: AIDS

Q19 : Auto immune hymolytic anemia is seen in_______________?

A: AML B: CML C: CLL D: ALL

Q20 : Animals that eat plants are called___________________?

A: Herbivores B: Consumer C: Carnivores D: Omnivores

Q21 : Dytrophic calcification are calcifications seen in__________________?

A: Skin layers B: Salivary glands C: Normal tissues D: Dead tissue

Q22 : The last primary tooth to be replaced by a permanent tooth is usually the_____________?

A: Maxillary second molar B: Mandibular second molar C: Maxillary canine D: Mandibular canine

Q23 : Mesiolingual grooves may be found on which of the following permanent teeth ______________?

A: Mandibular second molars B: Mandibular first premolars C: Maxillary first molars D: Maxillary canines

Q24 : Which of the following is NOT true of dystrophic calcification ?

A: Occurs in damaged tissue B: Tuberculous lesions C: Atherosclerotic lesions D: Serum calcium levels are high

Q25 : Maximum contact between occlusal surfaces, of maxillary and mandibular teeth occur during________________?

A: Centric occlusion B: Rest position C: Protrusive contacts D: Laterotrusive contacts

Q26 : A child has 12 permanent and 12 decidous teeth, what is his age____________?

A: 8½ years B: 11½ years C: 4½ years D: 13½ years

Q27 : Nut meg liver occurs in_______________?

A: Jaundice B: Chronic venous congestion C: Cirrhosis D: Hepatocellular carcinoma

Q28 : Following eruption , the root of the maxillary central incisor completes development at what approximate age ?

A: 7 years B: 8 years C: 9 years D: 10 years

Q29 : Articular disc of tmj receives insertion from which muscle______________?

A: Medial pterygoid B: Massetor C: Temporalis D: Lateral pterygoid

Q30 : Which is the most widely used technique for removing particulate matter?

A: Loudspeakers B: Growing trees C: Electrostatic precipitator D: Magnets

Q31 : Acute angled cusps in permanent maxillary first molar are_____________?

A: DB and ML B: MB and DL C: MB and DB D: ML and DL

Q32 : The following are recognized causes of neutropenia Except_______________?

A: Corticosteroid therapy B: Typhoid fever C: Aplastic anemia D: Viral infection

Q33 : Which of the following is the largest root_____________?

A: The lingual root of a maxillary first molar B: The lingual root of a maxillary second molar C: The root of a mandibular canine D: The root of a maxillary canine

Q34 : During the development of a tooth, sound coalescence of the lobes results in_____________?

A: Slender mesiodistally B: Slender anteroposteriorly C: Bulkier mesiodistally D: Buliker anteroposteriorly

Q35 : The first permanent tooth to erupt in the oral cavity is the_____________?

A: Mandibular central incisor B: Mandibular first molar C: Maxillary central incisor D: Maxillary first molar

Q36 : For what reason is the conservation of natural resources important?

A: Maintaining the ecological processes B: Disturbing the ecological balance C: Extinction of biological species D: Disruption of quality of the environment

Q37 : Which of the following contains a linear system of conjugated double bonds?

A: β-carotene B: chlorophyll C: chloroplast D: thylakoid

Q38 : Five cusps are present in___________________?

A: Maxillary first molar only B: Mandibular first molar only C: Maxillary and mandibular first molar D: Maxillary and Mandibular second molar

Q39 : Animals fats are ______________ at room temperature?

A: Liquids B: Gases C: Solids D: None of these

Q40 : Why is CNG (Compressed Natural Gas) preferred over petrol?

A: Burns most efficiently B: It is expensive C: Burns less efficiently D: Can be adulterated

Q41 : The sharpest cusp of primary first molar tooth is____________?

A: Mesiobuccal B: Distobuccal C: Mesiolingual D: Distolingual

Q42 : Mandibular second premolar 3- cusp type id developed from_______________?

A: 3 B: 4 C: 5 D: 6

Q43 : Target cells are seen in peripheral blood in_______________?

A: Thalassemia B: Pernicious anemia C: Aplastic anemia D: Sickle cell anemia

Q44 : Which of the following is an example of “molecule”?

A: Chloroplast B: A Nerve Cell C: DNA D: Hydrogen Advertisement

Q45 : Permanent Mandibular central incisor develops from_____________?

A: 1 lobe B: 3 lobes C: 4 lobes D: 5 lobes

Q46 : Which one of them is a micro-molecule?

A: Polysaccharide B: Protein C: Hemoglobin D: ATP

Q47 : The protein that carries iron from the gut to the body tissues is called________________?

A: Ferritin B: Haemosiderin C: Myoglobin D: Transferrin

Q48 : Which of the following is not an example of massive splenomegaly ________________?

A: Chronic myeloid leukemia B: Chronic malaria C: Tropical splenomegaly D: Acute lymphoblastic leukemia

Q49 : Crown formation of all permanent teeth except third molars is completed between_____________?

A: Birth to 8 years B: Birth to 12 years C: Birth to 6 years D: 6 years to 12 years

Q50 : The most common curvature of the palatal root of maxillary first molar is_____________?

A: Facial B: Lingual C: Distal D: Mesial

Q51 : Which of the following is true of permanent first molar’s occlusal surface_____________?

A: Maxillary molar has 2 major fossa, 2 minor fossa, 4 triangular ridges,1 oblique ridge and 5 grooves B: Mandibular molar has 1 major fossa, 2 minor fossa, 5 triangular ridges and 4 grooves C: Rhomboidal shape in maxillary molars and hexagonal shape in Mandibular molars D: All of the above

Q52 : Secondary amylodosis is seen most commonly in_______________?

A: Actinomycosis B: Tuberculosis C: Rabies D: Secondary Iues

Q53 : The contact area on the distal surface of a maxillary first premolar should be placed in________________?

A: Middle 3rd of proximal surface with lingual embrasure greater than the facial embrasure B: Occlusal 3rd of proximal surface with the lingual embrasure greater than facial embrasure C: Occlusal 3rd of proximal surface with facial embrasure greater than lingual embrasure D: Middle 3rd with facial embrasure greater than the lingual embrasure

Q54 : Which statement is correct about decidous dentition?

A: Calcification of maxillary primary first premolar is completed at birth B: Mandibular first molar erupts at one and half years of age C: The crowns of primary dentition are more yellowish than permanent D: The primary dentition is initiated at 10th month in uterus

Q55 : The maxillary tooth exhibiting the greatest variation in root alignment is______________?

A: Central incisor B: First premolar C: Third molar D: Second molar

Q56 : Which of the following has a bifid root ?

A: 32,42 B: 31,41 C: 34,44 D: 13,23

Q57 : Which of the following is correctly matched_______________?

A: Coagulation necrosis Tuberculosis B: Caseation yellow fever C: Fat necrosis Pancreatitis D: Gumma infarction

Q58 : In the majority of situations, that first decidous tooth to erupt is the____________?

A: Mandibular central incisor B: Mandibular first molar C: Maxillary central incisor D: Maxillary second molar

Q59 : The infarct of the following organs is invariably haemorrhagic_____________?

A: Kidney B: Lung C: Spleen D: Heart

Q60 : All of the following causes excessive bleeding during tooth extraction except _______________?

A: Haemophilia – A B: Haemophilia – B C: Anti thrombin – III deficiency D: Von-willebrand disease

Q61 : Torniquet test is function of________________?

A: Platelet function B: capillary fragility C: Intrinsic pathway D: Extrinic pathway

Q62 : What is the functional form of anterior teeth from the mesial or the distal aspect ?

A: Rhomboidal B: Trapezoidal C: Elliptical D: Wedge- shaped

Q63 : The total number of cingula in each dentition is_______________?

A: 6 B: 12 C: 24 D: 32

Q64 : The direction of enamel rods in decidous teeth is_____________?

A: Same as permanent teeth B: Inclined in an apical direction in the cervical third of crown C: Inclined in an occlusal direction in the cervical third of crown D: None of the above

Q65 : Which of the following permanent teeth is usually bilaterally symmetric when viewed labially and incissaly ______________?

A: Mandibular lateral incisor B: Mandibular canine C: Mandibular central incisor D: Maxillary central incisor

Q66 : A 14 year old boy complains with gingival bleeding oral ulcers, anaemia with hepatomegaly but no lymphadenopathy, total eukocyte count of one-lakh cells per mm3 is suffering from________________?

A: Acute myeloid leukemia B: Chronic monocytic leukemia C: Chronic lymphoblastic leukemia D: Chronic myeloid leukemia

Q67 : As compared to permanent tooth , root formation in primary tooth______________?

A: Take less time B: Take more time C: Same time D: Is complete when tooth erupts in oral cavity

Q68 : The zygomatic bone does not articulate with________________?

A: Frontal bone B: Maxillary bone C: Nasal bone D: Temporal bone

Q69 : Depression of mandible is achieved by_______________?

A: Digastric B: Lateral pterygoid C: Geniohyoid D: All of the above

Q70 : Infarcts are not common in______________?

A: Liver B: Kidney C: Lung D: Both A and B

Q71 : Which of these teeth are highly sturdy and usually the last ones to be lost ?

A: First molar B: Central incisors C: Canines D: Premolars

Q72 : Gingiva are enlarged in leukemia because of__________________?

A: Capillary dilation B: Erythrocyte engorgement C: Edema D: WBC infiltration

Q73 : In Hodgkin’s disease the lymphoa cells seen are__________________?

A: Eosinophilis B: Plasma cells C: Reed-sternberg cells D: Giant cells

Q74 : How many roots does a primary maxillary first molar have ___________?

A: One B: Two C: Three D: Four

Q75 : Venous emboli are most often lodged in_____________?

A: Intestines B: Lungs C: Kidneys D: Heart

Q76 : Which of the following is an odd one?

A: Zoological parks B: Biosphere reserves C: National parks D: Wildlife sanctuaries

Q77 : Sideroblastic anemia is caused due to______________?

A: Mercury B: Lead C: Arsenic D: Iron

Q78 : The largest permanent tooth in the mouth usually is_____________?

A: Maxillary canine B: Mandibular canine C: Mandibular first molar D: Maxillary first molar

Q79 : Aplastic anemia results from______________?

A: Cytotoxic drugs B: Whole body irradiation C: HIV infection D: All of the above

Q80 : The Latin word of the name given to a human being Homo Sapiens, include the: __________?

A: Genus & Family B: Family & Order C: Genus & Class D: Genus & Species

Q81 : All of the following differs antemortum thrombus from a postmortem intravascular costs except_____________?

A: Chicken fat appearance B: Lines of zahn C: Dry and friable D: Firm adherence to endothelium where as absent in postmorten clots

Q82 : Primary dentition period is______________?

A: From birth to 11 years B: From 6 months to 11 years C: From 6 months to 6 years D: From 6 years to 11 years

Q83 : First evidence of initiation of primary dentition is usually around_____________?

A: 4 months in utere B: Birth C: 4 months after birth D: One year after birth

Q84 : Calcification of roots of decidous teeth is completed by_____________?

A: 4 years B: 2 years C: 6 years D: 8 years

Q85 : Primary amyloidosis occurs in _________________?

A: Multiple myeloma B: Tuberculosis C: Hodgkin’s diseaes D: Chronic osteomyelitis

Q86 : IN fanconi anemia there is a_______________?

A: Deficiency of copper B: Mutation of DNA repair gene C: No increased risk of Sq. cell carcinoma D: Purely nutritional disorder etiology

Q87 : What are the species confined to a particular region and not found anywhere else called?

A: Pandemic B: Endemic C: Extinct D: Vulnerable

Q88 : Hemophilia A is caused due to deficiency of___________________?

A: Factor X B: Factor XI C: Factor IX D: Factor VIII

Q89 : The eruption age of maxillary permanent lateral incisor is________________?

A: 8-9 years B: 10-11 years C: 7-9 months D: 6-7 years

Q90 : Synthesis of DNA occurs in which phase ____________________?

A: G1 B: S C: G2 D: M

Q91 : Pallor, spoon shaped nails, atrophic glossitis, with accompanied dysphagia is typical picture of ______________?

A: Plummer – Vinson syndrome B: Trotters syndrome C: Vincent stomatitis D: None of the above

Q92 : Animals obtain carbohydrates mainly from___________?

A: Glucose B: Starch C: Sucrose D: Glycogen

Q93 : Which teeth the proximal aspect shows rhomboidal appearance________________?

A: Maxillary posteriors B: Mandibular posteriors C: Maxillary anteriors D: Mandibular anteriors

Q94 : Which cusp is poorly developed in a permanent maxillary second molar_____________?

A: DB B: DL C: MB D: ML

Q95 : The shape of the occlusal surface of the permanent maxillary first molar is_______________________?

A: Oval B: Trapezoidal C: Triangular D: Rhomboidal

Q96 : Desmodont is another name for_____________?

A: The tooth with one wall pocket B: Tooth with three walled pocket C: periodontal ligament D: Dehiscence

Q97 : The mesial surface of the crown is almost parallel to long axis and the root of a______________?

A: Maxillary 1st premolar B: Mandibular 2nd premolar C: Maxillary canine D: Mandibular canine

Q98 : A maxillary right canine may be distinguished from a maxillary left canine because ____________?

A: The root curves to mesial in the apical 1/3rd B: The distal half of canine shows more convexity than the mesical half C: Facially the cusp tip is placed distal to Bisecting line D: Lingually the cervical line slopes mesially

Q99 : All of the following muscles are elevators of the mandible except______________?

A: Digastric B: Massetor C: Medial pterygoid D: Temporalis

Q100 : Rounded protuberances on the incisal edges of newly erupted permanent incisors are____________?

A: Mamelons B: Tubercles C: Enamel pits D: Cingulum

Free Medical Engineering MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

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