Free Medical Engineering MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

Q1 : Resorption of root of primary incisors starts at_____________?

A: 4 yrs B: 6 yrs C: 8 yrs D: 10 yrs

Q2 : In which of the tooth is the mesiodistal measurements is greater lingually than facially_____________?

A: Maxillary 1stpremolar B: Mandibular 2ndpremolar C: Mandibular 1st premolar D: Maxillary 1st molar

Q3 : Protein factory is___________?

A: nucleus B: ribosome C: golgi complex D: centriole

Q4 : The type of acute myelogenous leukemia associated with a high incidence of disseminated intravascular coagulation in________________?

A: Acute erythroleukaemia B: Acute promyelocytic leukaemia C: Acute megakaryocytic leukaemia D: Acute myelomonocytic leukaemia

Q5 : A 3-year old child presented with progressive anaemia, jaundice & failure to thrive. O/E: pallor, splenomegaly are seen Peripheral smear showed normoblasts and small round intensely stained red cells. The likely diagnosis is________________?

A: Here ditary spherocytosis B: Thalassaemia C: Sickle cell anaemia D: Vitamin B12 deficiency anaemia

Q6 : Increase in number of RBC is seen in ____________?

A: Neutropenia B: Leukemia C: Polycythemia D: Anaemia

Q7 : Three days after the onset of myocardial infarction, which enzyme level has the best predictive value____________?

A: Serum CPK B: Serum LDH C: Serum SGOT D: Serum SGPT

Q8 : Oblique ridge in maxillary first molar joins which of the following cusps____________________?

A: DL and DB B: ML and MB C: ML and DB D: DL and MB

Q9 : The most common site of origin for venous thrombi leading to pulmonary embolism is_____________?

A: Ascending oaorta B: Portal vein C: Deep leg veins D: Right atrium

Q10 : Which teeth the proximal aspect shows rhomboidal appearance________________?

A: Maxillary posteriors B: Mandibular posteriors C: Maxillary anteriors D: Mandibular anteriors

Q11 : The largest embrasure in posterior teeth is the__________?

A: Buccal B: Distal C: Lingual D: Occlusal

Q12 : Which anterior teeth have both mesial and distal contact areas of at the incisal third____________?

A: Mandibular centrals B: Mandibular laterals C: Both A and B D: None of the above

Q13 : The teeth that are retained for the longest period of time are__________________?

A: Maxillary incisors B: Maxillary canines C: Mandibular incisors D: B & D

Q14 : Which is the predominant factor in the formation of the alveolar process_____________?

A: Eruption of teeth B: Normal process of growth C: Lengthening of the condyle D: Overall growth of the bodies of the maxilla and the mandible

Q15 : Over jet is defined as______________?

A: Horizontal overlap B: Vertical overlap C: Transverse plane discrepancy D: All the above

Q16 : Desmodont is another name for_____________?

A: The tooth with one wall pocket B: Tooth with three walled pocket C: periodontal ligament D: Dehiscence

Q17 : Which of the following teeth have more than one occlusal form____________?

A: Maxillary 1st premolar B: Maxillary 2nd premolar C: Maxillary 1st molar D: Mandibular 1stmolar

Q18 : Animals that eat plants are called___________________?

A: Herbivores B: Consumer C: Carnivores D: Omnivores

Q19 : All of the following causes excessive bleeding during tooth extraction except _______________?

A: Haemophilia – A B: Haemophilia – B C: Anti thrombin – III deficiency D: Von-willebrand disease

Q20 : The protein that carries iron from the gut to the body tissues is called________________?

A: Ferritin B: Haemosiderin C: Myoglobin D: Transferrin

Q21 : Prothrombin time indicates the integrity of ____________________?

A: Intrinsic pathway B: Extrinsic pathway C: Capillary function D: All of the above

Q22 : The widest incisal embrasure is normally found between which of the following permanent maxillary teeth _____________?

A: Central incisors B: Central and lateral incisors C: Lateral incisor and canine D: First and 2nd premolar

Q23 : Intrinsic factor for absorption of Vit B12 secreted in ______________?

A: Duodenum B: Stomach C: Intestine D: Ileum

Q24 : Apoptosis is suggestive of_______________?

A: Liquefaction degeneration B: Coagulative necrosis C: Neo angiogenesis D: Epithelial dysplasia

Q25 : The premolar alveoli are what shape in cross section_____________?

A: Rectangular B: Triangular C: Kidney shaped D: Oval

Q26 : Group function occlusion is common in_____________?

A: 10 – 14 years B: 15 -25 years C: Above 30 years D: Edentulous patients

Q27 : Divergence from contact area in proximal surfaces causes embrasures____________?

A: Facially B: Lingually C: Cervically D: Facially, lingually , cervically & occlusally

Q28 : Which of the following tooth shows largest Mesio- buccal ridge _____________?

A: Maxillary 1st premolar B: Maxillary 2nd premolar C: Mandibular 1st molar D: Mandibular 2nd premolar

Q29 : Protective crests of contour on buccal and lingual surfaces are found______________?

A: In the middle third of the lingual B: Nearest the occlusal third of the lingual C: In the cervical third of the buccal D: Both A and C

Q30 : Pale infarcts are seen in all of the following except______________?

A: Lung B: Liver C: Kidney D: Spleen

Q31 : Calcification of permanent first molar usually begins in the_____________?

A: Third month of intrauterine life B: In the sixth month of intrauterine life C: At birth D: In the third month of extra uterine life

Q32 : A radiograph of 4- years old child reveals no evidence of calcification of mandibular second pre molar. This indicates______________?

A: It is too early to make final predication B: The teeth may develop later C: Primary second molar extracted to allow mesial drifting of permanent first molar D: The child may never develop premolars

Q33 : Acute angled cusps in permanent maxillary first molar are_____________?

A: DB and ML B: MB and DL C: MB and DB D: ML and DL

Q34 : Five cusps are present in___________________?

A: Maxillary first molar only B: Mandibular first molar only C: Maxillary and mandibular first molar D: Maxillary and Mandibular second molar

Q35 : The number of species of organisms currently known to science is?

A: 3500000 B: 35000 C: 2500000 D: 25000000

Q36 : Which of the following permanent teeth is usually bilaterally symmetric when viewed labially and incissaly ______________?

A: Mandibular lateral incisor B: Mandibular canine C: Mandibular central incisor D: Maxillary central incisor

Q37 : In Hodgkin’s disease the lymphoa cells seen are__________________?

A: Eosinophilis B: Plasma cells C: Reed-sternberg cells D: Giant cells

Q38 : The root of maxillary lateral incisors if curved is usually in which direction ?

A: Distal B: Mesial C: Facial D: Palatal

Q39 : All of the following muscles are elevators of the mandible except______________?

A: Digastric B: Massetor C: Medial pterygoid D: Temporalis

Q40 : ___________ are needed as a source of energy for the vital activities of the body?

A: Calcium B: Iron C: Water D: Carbohydrates

Q41 : The necrotic tissue and deposits of immune complexes, complement and plasma protein produce a smudy eosinophilic deposit is termed as_____________?

A: Coagulative necrosis B: Fibrinoid necrosis C: Caesous necrosis D: Caesous necrosis

Q42 : If a permanent first molar is lost, the permanent second molar drifts to the______________?

A: Buccal side B: Distal side C: Mesial side D: Lingual side

Q43 : The term diphydont means____________?

A: Second dentition B: Two same sets of dentition C: Two separate sets of dentition D: More than two sets of dentition

Q44 : How many cusps does the crown of the maxillary first primary molar have ?

A: 2 B: 3 C: 4 D: 5

Q45 : Among which of the following Peroxisomes are absent?

A: Bacillus subtilis B: Zea mays C: Homo habilis D: Euphlyctis hexadactylus

Q46 : Glycosidic bond is formed by the

A: Removal of water B: Removal of oxygen C: Addition of oxygen D: Addition of water

Q47 : Crown formation of all permanent teeth except third molars is completed between_____________?

A: Birth to 8 years B: Birth to 12 years C: Birth to 6 years D: 6 years to 12 years

Q48 : Secondary amylodosis is seen most commonly in_______________?

A: Actinomycosis B: Tuberculosis C: Rabies D: Secondary Iues

Q49 : Lateral movement of condyle is caused by_____________?

A: Contralateral lateral pterygoid muscle B: Both lateral and medial pterygoid muscle C: Epsilateral lateal pterygoid muscle D: Bilateral contraction of lateral pterygoid muscle

Q50 : The number of line angles a permanent maxillary central incisor is_____________?

A: Two B: Four C: six D: Eight

Q51 : The usual order of appearance of the primary teeth in the mouth is____________?

A: Central incisors, first molars, lateral incisors, second molars, canines B: Central incisors, lateral incisors, canines, second molars, first molars C: Central incisors, lateral incisors, first molars canines, second molars D: Central incisors, lateral incisors, first molars second molars, canines

Q52 : An infarct is most frequently is characterized by What type of necrosis ?

A: Fatty B: Caseous C: Gangrenous D: Coagulative

Q53 : Pallor, spoon shaped nails, atrophic glossitis, with accompanied dysphagia is typical picture of ______________?

A: Plummer – Vinson syndrome B: Trotters syndrome C: Vincent stomatitis D: None of the above

Q54 : The largest mesiodistal diameter in primary dentition is____________?

A: Mandibular 1st molar B: Mandibular2nd molar C: Maxillary 2nd molar D: None of the above

Q55 : Which of the following has a bifid root ?

A: 32,42 B: 31,41 C: 34,44 D: 13,23

Q56 : Which statement is incorrect for pasteurization?

A: It is used to preserve yogurt and milk B: It was developed by Louis Pasteur C: It involves heating the substance at high temperature for just few sec. D: It can be used to preserve vegetables and meat.

Q57 : Mesial contact area of the permanent canine is at the______________?

A: Middle third B: Junction of the incisal and middle thirds C: Junction of the middle and cedrvical thirds D: None of the above

Q58 : What percent of the total oxygen in the Earth’s atmosphere is released by the Amazon forest?

A: 50 % B: 20 % C: 40 % D: 2 %

Q59 : An 8 – yr old child comes to your clinic with large front teeth having jagged margins, what is the treatment plan for this patient ?

A: Smoothen the jagged margins and apply fluoride varnish B: Build up other teeth to large size C: Extraction of big teeth D: Assure him and send him back

Q60 : Maltory’s degeneration seen in alcoholic liver disease is a form of___________________?

A: Hyaline degeneartion B: Amyloid degeneration C: Hydropic degeneration D: Fatty degeneration

Q61 : A shift to left indicates an increase in number of______________?

A: immature neutrophils B: erythrocytes C: matures neutrophils D: Platelets

Q62 : Which of the following is correctly matched with the forms of extravasation hemorrhages______________?

A: Ecchymosis – large extravasation of blood in to the skin and mucous membrane B: Purpura – small areas (1cm) of hemorrhage in to the skin and mucous membrane C: petechiae – small pin point hemorrhages D: All of the above

Q63 : In which of the tooth is the mesiodistal measurements is greater lingually than facially________________?

A: Maxillary 1stpremolar B: Mandibular 2ndpremolar C: Mandibular 1st premolar D: Maxillary 1st molar

Q64 : First evidence of initiation of primary dentition is usually around_____________?

A: 4 months in utere B: Birth C: 4 months after birth D: One year after birth

Q65 : Tritubercular cusps are_______________?

A: ML B: MB C: DB D: All of the above

Q66 : Severe generalized edema is called as_______________?

A: Myxoedema B: Pitting edema C: Anasarca D: Dependent edema

Q67 : The tooth bud for the third molar is initiated at about the age of______________?

A: 6th month I.U B: 1st year of life C: 2nd year of life D: 8th year of life

Q68 : Animals obtain carbohydrates mainly from___________?

A: Glucose B: Starch C: Sucrose D: Glycogen

Q69 : Among the difference between teeth in the decidous and the permanent dentition is that_____________?

A: Buccal surfaces of the permanent molars are flatter B: Cervical ridges are more pronounced in permanent molars C: Root trunks of decidous teeth are larger compared with their overall root lengths D: Crowns of decidous incisors are wider mesiodistally than their cervico incisal lengths

Q70 : The most constant and valuable trait to differentiate among maxillary first, second and third molars i____________?

A: Depth of central fossae B: Number of roots C: Comparative size of the cusp of carabelli D: Relative position of the distolingual grooves

Q71 : Dytrophic calcification are calcifications seen in__________________?

A: Skin layers B: Salivary glands C: Normal tissues D: Dead tissue

Q72 : What is the major role of peroxisomes in our body?

A: Breakdown of Formaldehyde B: Breakdown of proteins C: Breakdown of Hydrogen Peroxide D: Breakdown of Phthalates

Q73 : The faciolingual angulation of the upper central incisor is approximately___________________?

A: 20° B: 28° C: 33° D: 38°

Q74 : The mesial surface of the crown is almost parallel to long axis and the root of a______________?

A: Maxillary 1st premolar B: Mandibular 2nd premolar C: Maxillary canine D: Mandibular canine

Q75 : Fourth canal is present in_____________?

A: Mesiobuccal roots of maxillary first molar B: Distal root of mandibular first molar C: Both of the above D: None of the above

Q76 : The hormone dependent shedding of endometrium is an example of_______________?

A: Necrosis B: Autolysis C: Apoptosis D: None of the above

Q77 : An imaginary occlusal curve that contacts the buccal and lingual cusp tips of mandibular buccal teeth is called the _____________?

A: Catenary curve B: Curve of spee C: Monson curve D: Wilson curve

Q78 : The correct dentition in a 9- years old child is_____________?

A: 12 CDE6 B: 12C456 C: 123DE6 D: 123456

Q79 : What is the number of biosphere reserves present throughout the world?

A: 24 B: 44 C: 14 D: 04

Q80 : Aplastic anemia results from______________?

A: Cytotoxic drugs B: Whole body irradiation C: HIV infection D: All of the above

Q81 : Which of the following is commonly involved in multiple myeloma_______________?

A: Clavicle B: Vertebrae C: Pelvis D: Lungs

Q82 : A 20 year male complains of recurrent attacks of sore tthroat since 2 years. The total leukocyte count was 1000/ul. A differential count revealed severe neutropenia. The diagnosis is________________?

A: Subleukemic leukemia B: Infectious mononucleosis C: Agraulocytosis D: Leukoerythroblastic anemia

Q83 : Major and frequent influence for thrombus formation is________________?

A: Alteration in blood flow B: Alteration in blood flow C: Endothelial damage D: Fatty streak

Q84 : Auto immune hymolytic anemia is seen in_______________?

A: AML B: CML C: CLL D: ALL

Q85 : Transverse ridge is prominent on occlusal surface of which of the following decidous teeth ?

A: Mandibular first molar B: Maxillary first molar C: Mandibular second molar D: Maxillary second molar

Q86 : Gingiva are enlarged in leukemia because of__________________?

A: Capillary dilation B: Erythrocyte engorgement C: Edema D: WBC infiltration

Q87 : In which one of the following organs the venous emboli are most often iodged ?

A: Lungs B: Kidneys C: Intestines D: Heart

Q88 : Liquefation necrosis is commonly seen in________________?

A: Brain B: Lung C: Liver D: Spleen

Q89 : Maximum contact between occlusal surfaces, of maxillary and mandibular teeth occur during________________?

A: Centric occlusion B: Rest position C: Protrusive contacts D: Laterotrusive contacts

Q90 : Dentin islands are frequently found in the root canals of which of the following permanent teeth ?

A: Maxillary lateral incisor & mandibular canine B: Maxillary 2nd premolar & maxillary 1st molar C: Maxillary 2nd premolar & mandibular canine D: Maxillary 1st molar & mandibular 2nd premolar

Q91 : Facial occlusal line in the maxillary arch is formed by_______________?

A: Stamp cusps B: Centric holding cusps C: Supporting cusps D: Non- supporting cusps

Q92 : Genome of viruses is composed of: ____________?

A: DNA B: RNA C: Protein D: Both A & B

Q93 : Hodgkin’s lymphoma can be distinguished from non – Hodgkin’s lymphomas by_________________?

A: Reed – Sternberg cells B: Systemic manifestations C: Occurence in young adults D: All of the above

Q94 : Which of the following is a smallest posterior tooth______________?

A: Maxillary first premolar B: Mandibular first premolar C: Maxillary second premolar D: Mandibular second premolar

Q95 : The major factors predisposing to thrombogenesis include all of the following except_____________?

A: Endothelial injury B: Hyper coagulability of blood C: Altered blood flow D: Pattern of blood flow

Q96 : How many species of plants contribute to the traditional medicines used by native peoples around the world?

A: 2,500 B: 2,000 C: 5,000 D: 25,000

Q97 : The mesial contact are of the permanent canine is at the_______________?

A: Middle third B: Junction of incisal and medial thirds C: Junction of the middle & cervical thirds D: None of the above

Q98 : In primates; a tooth with single conical cusp and single root is seen in________________?

A: Haplodont B: Heterodont C: Acrodont D: Thecodont

Q99 : Sickle cell anemia precipitates when______________?

A: Oxygen tension goes down B: Increased viscosity of blood C: There is dehydration D: All of the above

Q100 : Which of the following is not an example of massive splenomegaly ________________?

A: Chronic myeloid leukemia B: Chronic malaria C: Tropical splenomegaly D: Acute lymphoblastic leukemia

Free Medical Engineering MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

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