Free Microbiology MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

Q1 : Immunoglobulin consists of________________?

A: 2 light, 2 heavy chains B: 1 heavy, 2 light chains C: 1 light, 1 heavy chain D: 3 light, 1 heavy chain

Q2 : The best way of detecting the presence of viruses in the infected cell – culture is____________?

A: Cytopathic changes in culture cells B: Presence of viral protein in the infected monolayer C: Haemagglutination test D: Haemagglutination inhibition test

Q3 : True about Toxaplasma gondi is, it is carried by_______________?

A: cats B: Dogs C: Rats D: Cow

Q4 : Noguchi’s medium is used for________________?

A: . Bordetella B: Brucella C: Borrelia D: None of the above

Q5 : Opportunistic infection is caused by___________________?

A: Penicillium B: Mucor C: Aspergillus D: All of the above

Q6 : Sterilization is a process in which_________________?

A: Kill all pathogenic micro-organisms B: Kill all non-pathogenic micro-organisms in the environment C: Deactivate all pathogens not spores D: Deactivate all spores and dill pathogenic organism

Q7 : The maxillary air sinus opens into middle meatus at______________?

A: Infundibulum B: Summit of infundibulum C: Bulla ethmoidalis D: Hiatus semilunaris

Q8 : Zero growth rate is observed during one of the phase of the bacterial growth curve______________?

A: Lag B: Exponential growth C: Stationary phase D: Decline

Q9 : Exaltation is________________?

A: Decreased virulence B: Increased Virulence C: No change D: None

Q10 : Which of the following immunoglobulins has the highest mean serum concentration in humans_________________?

A: IgA B: IgD C: IgG D: IgM

Q11 : Lesions caused by Entameoba histolytica predominantly involve________________?

A: Caecum and large intestine B: Duodenum C: Stomach D: Jejunum and Ileum

Q12 : Mark true in following ?

A: Hanta virus pulmonary syndrome is caused by inhalation of rodent urine and faces B: Kyanasur forest disease is caused by bite of wild animal C: Lyssa virus is transmitted by ticks D: None of the above

Q13 : The difference between sterilization and disinfection is that_______________?

A: Disinfection kills all spores but sterilization does not B: Sterilization kills all spores but disinfection does not C: Sterilization involves chemicals and disinfection involves physical methods D: Sterilization is easier to achieve

Q14 : The chemotactic factor is______________?

A: C2a B: C3b C: C4a D: C5a

Q15 : The reaginic antibody is________________?

A: IgG B: IgA C: IgD D: IgE

Q16 : CD4 count in normal healthy adult is_______________?

A: 500 B: 200 C: 1000 D: 300

Q17 : True about HIV are all except______________?

A: DNA virus B: Attacks CD4 cells C: Macrophages are the reservoir D: Decrease CD4 count in late stages

Q18 : Which of the following microbial cell is most resistant to antiseptics & disinfectants ?

A: Mycobacteria B: Spore C: Prions D: Coccidia

Q19 : Dark ground microscopy is useful to identify______________?

A: Mycoplasma B: Chlamydiae C: Rickettsiae D: Spirochaetes

Q20 : compared with autoclave, use of a dry heat over for sterilization has the following disadvantages______________?

A: Time-consuming B: Less effective C: Causes instruments to rust D: Causes sharp instruments to dull

Q21 : Negative phase is seen in ________ immunity?

A: Active B: Passive C: Herd D: Local

Q22 : Which of the following lesions is NOT an infection from human papilloma virus ?

A: Verruca vulgaris B: Focal epithelial hyperplasia C: Condyloma acuminatum D: Keratoacanthoma

Q23 : Portion of immunoglobulin molecule with molecular weight to 50000_________________?

A: Secretory piece B: H chain C: L chain D: J piece

Q24 : The medium of choice for growing most fungi is_______________?

A: Blood agar B: Tissue culture C: Sabouraud’s agar D: Thioglycollate medium

Q25 : The following is not true of Candida albicans______________?

A: Yeast like fungu B: Forms Chlamydospores C: Blastomeres seen in isolates D: Seen in immunocompromised and causes meningitis in them

Q26 : Enterically transmitted NANB hepatitis B_____________?

A: Hepatitis C B: Hepatitis D C: Hepatitis E D: Hepatitis F

Q27 : In transmission of malaria, mosquito bite transfers_______________?

A: Sporozoite B: Merozoite C: Hypnozoite D: Gametocyte

Q28 : Kolmer test is a screening test done for_________________?

A: Syphilis B: Tuberculosis C: Gonorrhea D: Lymphoma

Q29 : Operation theatres are sterilized by_____________?

A: Carbolic acid spraying B: Washing with soap and water C: Formaldehyde fumigation D: ETO gas

Q30 : The viral action is differentiated from bacterial action by_________________? 0

A: Interferon production B: Toxin production C: Lymphocytes production D: Neutrophils production

Q31 : The culture media for fungus is__________________?

A: Tellurite medium B: NNN medium C: Chocolate agar medium D: Sabourauds medium

Q32 : Erysipelas is caused by________________?

A: Group B staphylococci B: Group A steptococci C: Gonococci D: Pneumococci

Q33 : Most antibodies are produced in the________________?

A: Heart and the liver B: Brain and the meninges C: Thymus and the appendix D: Spleen and the lymph nodes

Q34 : Subacute bacterial endocarditis is caused by_____________?

A: Streptococcus viridans B: Haemolytic streptococci C: Staphylococcus aureus D: Nisseria

Q35 : Haptane is_______________?

A: Same as epitope B: Carrier required for specific antibody production C: High molecular protein D: None of the above

Q36 : Pneumococus can be differentiated from streptococcus by________________?

A: Type of hemolysis B: Gram staining C: Growth characteristics D: Bile solubility

Q37 : Neurotoxin of tetanus acts on______________?

A: Synapse B: Muscle C: Brain D: Spinal card

Q38 : The binding site for complement on the IgG molecule is in the________________?

A: VL domian B: CL domian C: CH1 domian D: CH2 domian

Q39 : Secondary response is mediated by_______________?

A: IgG B: IgA C: . IgM D: IgE

Q40 : Cleavage of IgG molecule by Papin gives rise to:One Fc fragment and two Fab fragments_______________?

A: One Fc fragment and two Fab fragments B: One Fc fragment and four Fab fragments C: Two Fc fragments and two Fab fragments D: Two Fc fragment and one Fab fragment

Q41 : Plasmid__________________?

A: Involved in multidrug resistance transfer B: Involved in conjugation C: Imparts capsule formation D: Both A & B

Q42 : Stain used to make the wetted area of filter paper strip more visible is_____________?

A: Eosin stain B: Haemotoxin stain C: Ninhydrin stain D: Blue stain

Q43 : All of the following lab tests can be used to distinguish streptococcus mutans from other oral streptococci, except______________?

A: Gram staining B: Fermentation of mannitol and sorbital C: Production of intracellular and extracellular adherent polysacharide D: Colony morphology on saliva agar

Q44 : Medusa lock appearance in X ray is seen in______________?

A: Ascariasis B: Tapeworm C: Hood worm D: Ascariasis and tapeworm

Q45 : Which of the following organisms are arranged in cubical packets of eight cocci________________?

A: Staphylococcus B: Micrococcus C: Sarcina D: Aerococcus

Q46 : Which of the following does not go into chronic hepatitis stage ?

A: HBV B: HCV C: HDV D: HEV

Q47 : Which of the following is not true of boiling water_____________?

A: It can kill hepatitis B virus B: Used for sterilizing surgical instruments C: Can kill mycobacterium tuberculosis D: Can kill vegetative bacterial cells

Q48 : The diagnosis of gonorrhea is established by_____________?

A: Compliment fixation tests B: Pili agglutination tests C: Haemagglutination tests D: All of the above tests

Q49 : Glasswares are sterilised by______________?

A: Autoclaving B: .Hot air oven C: Incineration D: Formaldehyde

Q50 : Common name for Trichuris trichura________________?

A: Round worm B: Whip worm C: Tape worm D: Seat woman

Q51 : Rh incompatibility is which type of hyper sensitivity reaction ?

A: Type I B: Type II C: Type III D: Type IV

Q52 : Killer and Helper cells are part of_______________?

A: B cells B: T cells C: Monocytes D: Macrophage

Q53 : All are oncogenic except________________?

A: EB virus B: Papilloma virus C: Herpes simplex virus D: Varicella zoster virus

Q54 : Reynolds Braude phenomenon is shown by ___________________?

A: Candida albicans B: Mucor C: Cryptococcus D: Aspergillus

Q55 : The immediate type of hypersensitivity in which histamine doses not play a major role is______________?

A: Urticaria B: Asthma C: Anaphylaxis D: Arthus reaction

Q56 : IgG antibodies have a half-life of approximately_______________?

A: . 1 hour B: 1 day C: 1 week D: 1 Month

Q57 : The function of IgD is______________?

A: Antigen recognition by B cells B: Localization protection in external secretion C: Compliment activation D: Reagin activity

Q58 : Bacterial cell does not possess___________________?

A: dna B: Ribosome C: Mitochondria D: Cell wall

Q59 : In falciparum malaria, causes of anemia are due to all except__________________?

A: Hemolysis B: Malabsorption C: Spleen sequestration D: Bone marrow depression

Q60 : Which of the following is not used as disinfectant________________?

A: 1-2% cetrimide B: 100% alcohol C: 2% Lysol D: 5% chloroxylene

Q61 : Type of receptor present on T-cells are__________________?

A: Ig A B: Ig G C: Prostaglandins D: CD4

Q62 : Oil and Grease are sterilized by________________?

A: Hot air oven B: Auto claving C: Irradiation D: Ethylene dioxide

Q63 : Flash pasteurization of milk is done at what temperature______________?

A: 125°C for new seconds B: 60°C for 15 minutes C: 72°C for 5 minutes D: 72° for 15 – 20 Sec

Q64 : Purpose of Sterilization is to eliminate________________?

A: Bacteria B: Viruses C: Spore formers D: Fungus

Q65 : Antibiotic sensitivity and resistance of micro organisms is determined by________________?

A: Direct microscopy B: Culture C: ELISA D: DNA probe

Q66 : Presence of HBe Ag in Patients with hepatitis indicates_______________?

A: Simple carriers B: Late convalescence C: High infectivity D: Carrier status

Q67 : All are true about Entamoeba histolytica except________________?

A: Cysts are 8 nucleated B: Cysts are 4 nucleated C: Trophozoites colonise in the colon D: The chromatid bodies are stained by iodides

Q68 : Incubation pariod of herpes zoster is________________?

A: 7-14 days B: 1 months C: 1-2 years D: 3-6 months

Q69 : Which worm is longest________________?

A: T. Solium B: T. Saginata C: Hook worm D: A. Lumbricoides

Q70 : The Dane particle is the______________?

A: HBV B: IgG anti HAV C: Delta Virus D: HBC Ag

Q71 : A 30 years old patient developed high fever of sudden onset. Peripheral blood smear showed cresent shaped gametocytes. Malaria pigment was dark brown in colour Which of the following malarial parasites is the causative agent ?

A: Plasmodium vivax B: Plasmodium malaria C: . Plasmodium falciparum D: Plasmodium ovale

Q72 : Man is the only reservoir for_______________?

A: Salmonella B: Camphylobacter jejuni C: histolytica D: Y. enterocolitica

Q73 : The exact part of the antigen that reacts with the immune system is called as_____________?

A: Clone B: Epitope C: Idiotope D: Paratope

Q74 : Certain viruses have been isolated in crytalline form and have been found to be_____________?

A: Nucleotides B: Phospholipids C: Scleroproteins D: Nucleoproteins

Q75 : Adjuvant given along with antigens are going to________________?

A: Increase toxigenicity B: Increase antigenicity C: Reduce the antigenicity D: reduce the toxigenicity

Q76 : DNA covering material in a virus is called as________________?

A: Capsomere B: Capsid C: Nucleocapsid D: Envelope

Q77 : When horse serum is injected intravenoulsy in to a rabbit and again in to the skin two or three weeks later, what is the necrotizing reaction that occurs as the site of the second injection________________?

A: Atopy B: Anaphylaxis C: Arthus phenomeno D: Serum sickness

Q78 : Pseudomonas aeruginosa_________________?

A: Produces heat stable enterotoxin B: Causes Shangai fever C: Cannot be destroyed at 55 degree at 1 hr. D: Cannot be destroyed at 55 degree at 1 hr.

Q79 : The following immunoglobulin is not known to fix complement_________________?

A: IgE B: IgE C: IgM D: IgG

Q80 : Graft versus host reaction is caused by_________________?

A: B-Lymphocytes B: T-lymphocytes C: Monocytes D: Leukocytes

Q81 : Influenza is caused by_____________?

A: Orthomyxo virus, which is a DNA virus B: Paramyxo virus, which is a RNA virus C: Paramyxo virus, which is a DNA virus D: Orthomyxo virus, which is a RNA virus

Q82 : Spores are disinfected by_______________?

A: Glutaraldehyde B: Betapropiolactone C: Formaldehyde D: Both A & C

Q83 : One virus particle prevents multiplication of 2nd virus. This phenomena is____________?

A: Viral interference B: Mutation C: Supervision D: Permutation

Q84 : The killer cells are associated with immunologic response___________________?

A: Type I B: Type II C: Type III D: Type IV

Q85 : Active artificial immunization is induced by the administration of all of the following EXCEPT______________?

A: Bacterial products B: Toxoids C: Vaccines D: Antitoxins

Q86 : Which of the following is true about tetanus acquired through traumatic wound ?

A: Clostridium tetani travels via the nerves to the anterior horn dells in spinal cord B: The tetanospasmin component of the exotoxin act on the post-synaptic neurones and prevents impulse transmission C: The patient should be given tetanus toxoid intravenously D: Causes positive Nagler reaction

Q87 : An elderly male patient presented with fever, chest pain, and dry cough, sputum culture showed growth on charcoal yeast Extract Medium, theorganism is______________?

A: H. influenza B: Moraxella catarrhalis C: Legionella D: Burkholderia cepacia

Q88 : Which does not have a viral etiology______________?

A: Carcinoma Cervix B: Hepatoma C: Nasopharyngeal carcinoma D: Lymphoma

Q89 : Most fungi of medical importance belongs to__________________?

A: Zygomycetes B: Ascomycetes C: Basidiomycetes D: Deuteromycetes

Q90 : Culture media of candida is_________________?

A: Methylene blue dextrose agar B: Saboraud’s medium C: Pingolevin D: All of the above

Q91 : During the Window period of patient with AIDS_______________?

A: ELISA IS – ve B: Western Blot is – ve C: Both are – ve D: PCR is – ve

Q92 : Candida albicans causes all of the following except______________?

A: Endocarditis B: Meningitis C: Oral thrush D: Meningitis

Q93 : Example of immune complex hyper-sensitivity reaction is______________?

A: Atopic allergy B: Serum sickness C: Transfusion reaction D: Contact dermatitis

Q94 : Black water fever is caused by______________?

A: Plasmodium vivax B: Plasmodium falciparum C: Leishmania donovani D: Microfilaria

Q95 : Serological study for prevalence of Hepatitis B is best done by______________?

A: Surface antigen B: Surface antibody C: Core antigen D: Core antibody

Q96 : Which of the following organisms does NOT react with gram’s stain ?

A: Actinomyces israelii B: Candida albicans C: Mycobacterium tuberculosis D: Streptococcus mutan

Q97 : The major antiseptic value of soap lies in its ability to_____________?

A: Kill mircobes B: Remove microbes C: Inhibit microbial growth D: Dehydrate microbial cells

Q98 : Rickettsiae__________________?

A: Multiply within living cell B: Transmitted by arthropod vectors C: Respond to tetracycline therapy D: All of the above

Q99 : Actinomycosis is a_________________?

A: Aerobic bacterial disease B: Anaerobic bacterial disease C: Aerobic fungal disease D: Anaerobic fungal disease

Q100 : The classic opportunistic infection in acquired immune deficiency syndrome is_____________?

A: Apthous stomatitis B: Tuberculosis C: Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia D: Herpetic gingivostomatitis

Free Microbiology MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

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