Free Microbiology MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

Q1 : Grave’s disease is an example of type immunologic response_________________?

A: Type I B: .Type II C: Type III D: Type IV

Q2 : Bacteriophage was discovered by_________________?

A: Robert koch B: Twort and d’herelle C: Menkin D: Metchinkoff

Q3 : The mechanism by which most fungi caused disease is ________________?

A: exotoxin production B: lecithinase production C: hypersensitivity D: Coagulase production

Q4 : Pseudomonas aeruginosa_________________?

A: Produces heat stable enterotoxin B: Causes Shangai fever C: Cannot be destroyed at 55 degree at 1 hr. D: Cannot be destroyed at 55 degree at 1 hr.

Q5 : Actinomycosis is a_________________?

A: Aerobic bacterial disease B: Anaerobic bacterial disease C: Aerobic fungal disease D: Anaerobic fungal disease

Q6 : Viron is defined as______________?

A: Extracellular infectious virus particle B: Smallest virus C: A smallest particle similar to virus D: None of the above

Q7 : Hydatid cyst is__________________?

A: Parasitic in nature B: Fungal C: Congenital D: Viral

Q8 : Rickettsiae__________________?

A: Multiply within living cell B: Transmitted by arthropod vectors C: Respond to tetracycline therapy D: All of the above

Q9 : In patients with asthma due to an allergic cause the serum levels of which immunoglobulin increase____________________?

A: IgD B: IgM C: IgA D: IgE

Q10 : Endotoxins differ from exotoxins in that endotoxins______________?

A: are proteins B: are heat labile C: are highly antigenic D: activate complement by the alternate pathway

Q11 : Which of the following would you consider to be general properties of viruses______________?

A: New virus particle arises directly (by division) from preexisting viruses B: Fall in to the general size range of 200-3000 angstrom unit C: Contain equal proportions of protein, lipo polysaccharide and nucleic acids D: Contain DNA but no RNA

Q12 : Portion of immunoglobulin molecule with molecular weight to 50000_________________?

A: Secretory piece B: H chain C: L chain D: J piece

Q13 : In transmission of malaria, mosquito bite transfers_______________?

A: Sporozoite B: Merozoite C: Hypnozoite D: Gametocyte

Q14 : Malaria pigment is________________?

A: Bilurubin B: Haemoglobin C: Iron D: Haematin-globin pigment

Q15 : Candida albicans causes all of the following except______________?

A: Endocarditis B: Meningitis C: Oral thrush D: Meningitis

Q16 : Certain viruses have been isolated in crytalline form and have been found to be_____________?

A: Nucleotides B: Phospholipids C: Scleroproteins D: Nucleoproteins

Q17 : Both intranuclear and intracytoplasmic inclusions are present in which of the following viruses_____________?

A: Pox virus B: Measles virus C: Hepatitis B virus D: HIV

Q18 : Following hepatitis B infection through blood transfusion disease manifests in_____________?

A: 1 week B: 6 week C: 3 months D: 6 months

Q19 : The culture media for fungus is__________________?

A: Tellurite medium B: NNN medium C: Chocolate agar medium D: Sabourauds medium

Q20 : True about Toxaplasma gondi is, it is carried by_______________?

A: cats B: Dogs C: Rats D: Cow

Q21 : Which of the following antibacterial substance is present in eggs and saliva ?

A: Lysozyme B: Secretozyme C: Albumin D: Isozyme

Q22 : Secondary response is mediated by_______________?

A: IgG B: IgA C: . IgM D: IgE

Q23 : Which of the following methods is adopted for screening HIV infection ?

A: Virus isolation B: Western blot followed by ELISA C: ELISA followed by western blot technique D: Polymers chain reaction

Q24 : A darkfield microscope would be useful in examining blood for_______________?

A: Treponema B: Actinomyces C: Streptococcus D: Mycobacterium

Q25 : Cold sterilization refers to the process of sterilization by use of____________________?

A: Ultra violet rays B: Ultrasonic vibrations C: Infrared rays D: Gamma rays

Q26 : Which of the following microbial cell is most resistant to antiseptics & disinfectants ?

A: Mycobacteria B: Spore C: Prions D: Coccidia

Q27 : Sterilization of liquid paraffin is done by______________?

A: Autoclaving B: Hot air oven C: Inspissation D: UV-Radiation

Q28 : Serological study for prevalence of Hepatitis B is best done by______________?

A: Surface antigen B: Surface antibody C: Core antigen D: Core antibody

Q29 : Kolmer test is a screening test done for_________________?

A: Syphilis B: Tuberculosis C: Gonorrhea D: Lymphoma

Q30 : Virus is cultured in_______________?

A: Saubourd’s agar B: Rogosa medium C: Nonembryonated egg D: Embryonated egg

Q31 : Type IV hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by which of the following________________?

A: B-cells B: Active T cells C: NK cells D: Plasma cells

Q32 : The usual concentration of agar used in agar medium is___________________?

A: 10% B: 15% C: 2% D: 5%

Q33 : Donovanosis, true is___________________?

A: Caused by Calymmatobacterium granulomatis B: Lymphadenopathy is remarkable & diagnostic C: Penicillin is drug of choice D: Characterized by painful genital ulcers

Q34 : Dengue Hemorrhagic fever is caused by_____________?

A: Virus B: Bacteria C: Parasite D: Bacteria superadded on virus

Q35 : Adjuvant given along with antigens are going to________________?

A: Increase toxigenicity B: Increase antigenicity C: Reduce the antigenicity D: reduce the toxigenicity

Q36 : Dark ground microscopy is useful to identify______________?

A: Mycoplasma B: Chlamydiae C: Rickettsiae D: Spirochaetes

Q37 : In penicillin allergy, penicillin acts as a_______________?

A: Hapten B: Carrier C: Super antigen D: Toxin

Q38 : The distinguishing characteristic of a positive delayed type hypersensitivity skin test is______________?

A: Erythema B: Necrosis C: Induration D: Vasculitis

Q39 : Glutaraldehyde is preferred more than formaldehyde because______________?

A: It has got more bactericidal activity B: It has got more bacteriostatic activity C: It has got no deleterious effect on the cement and lenses of instruments D: Its application is easier

Q40 : Delayed tuberculin test response is due to_______________?

A: B lymphocytes B: T lymphocytes C: Monocytes D: Histiocytes

Q41 : compared with autoclave, use of a dry heat over for sterilization has the following disadvantages______________?

A: Time-consuming B: Less effective C: Causes instruments to rust D: Causes sharp instruments to dull

Q42 : Moist heat kills all of the following EXCEPT_______________?

A: Brucella B: Mycobacterium C: Salmonella D: Coxiella burnetti

Q43 : Pathogenic treponemas can be maintained in________________?

A: Tissue culture B: Chick embryos C: Artificial media D: Rabbit testis only

Q44 : The minimum time required for the sterilization of surgical instruments by moist heat at 134°C is__________________?

A: 3 minutes B: 15 minutes C: 30 minutes D: 60 minutes

Q45 : Viruses can be isolated from clinical samples by cultivation in the following except_______________?

A: Tissue culture B: Embryonated eggs C: Animals D: Chemically defined media

Q46 : T cells multiplication is stimulated by_______________?

A: Macrolin B: Heat C: Bovine serum D: Phytohaemagglutinin

Q47 : A mother donated a kidney to her daughter having chronic renal failure, which kind of graft it represents________________?

A: Allo B: ISO C: Xeno D: Auto

Q48 : Hepatitis C virus belongs to which one of the following virus groups ?

A: Picorna viruses B: Herpes viruses C: Hepadana viruses D: Flavi viruses

Q49 : The binding site for complement on the IgG molecule is in the________________?

A: VL domian B: CL domian C: CH1 domian D: CH2 domian

Q50 : Type of receptor present on T-cells are__________________?

A: Ig A B: Ig G C: Prostaglandins D: CD4

Q51 : The anaphylaxis should be treated first with_____________?

A: Epinephrine B: Steroids C: Anti histamines D: Antibiotics

Q52 : Cysticercosis celluosae is caused by_____________?

A: T. Solium B: Echinococcus granulosus C: T. Saginata D: nana

Q53 : Which of the following statements regarding middle constrictor muscle is wrong__________________?

A: Lies on superior constrictor B: Lymph from it drains in the deep cervical lymph nodes C: Has sensory innervation from vagus D: Is a derivative of the second pharyngeal arch

Q54 : Baby born to mother suffering from AIDS, all are true except________________?

A: Failure to thrive B: Have infections C: 50% chances to have AIDS D: All are true

Q55 : Australia antigen is associated with________________?

A: Hepatitis B surface antigen in acute hepatitis B: AIDS C: Chronic leukemia D: Basal cell carcinoma

Q56 : All are seen in a cysts of E. histolytica except_____________?

A: Glycogen mass B: Chromatid bars C: Eccentric nucleus D: Refractile nucleus

Q57 : Pasteur developed the vaccine for_______________?

A: All of the above B: Anthrax C: Rabies D: Cholera

Q58 : The following statement is true regarding fungal infection__________________?

A: Dermatophyte infection are exclusively man to animal B: Rhinosporidium causes deep infection in man C: albicans is not pathogenic to lab animals D: Candida infection is usually endogenous

Q59 : Which of the following is not a pox virus ?

A: Cowpox B: Molluscum contagiosum C: Small pox D: chicken pox

Q60 : Which of the following is true about pasteurization ?

A: It kills all bacteria except thermoduric bacteria B: It kills 95% of microorganisms C: It kills bacteria and spores D: Tubercle bacilli are destroyed

Q61 : The Process of attenuation can be achieved by all except___________________?

A: Growing bacteria in adverse environment B: Growing bacteria in unconventional host C: Serial passage in an experimental host D: Repeated cultures in artificial media

Q62 : The maxillary air sinus opens into middle meatus at______________?

A: Infundibulum B: Summit of infundibulum C: Bulla ethmoidalis D: Hiatus semilunaris

Q63 : Which is false about Wucheraria bancrofti_________________?

A: Causes filariasis B: Body is slender and long C: Terminal nuclei absent D: Man and anapheles mosquito are hosts

Q64 : An example of naturally acquired passive immunity is__________________?

A: Hepatitis vaccination B: Gamma globulin injection C: Immune blood transfusion D: Placental transfer of antibodies

Q65 : Synthesis of antibodies in plasma cells occurs in_________________?

A: Golgi body B: Endoplasmic reticulum C: Nucleus D: Mitochondria

Q66 : Endotoxins are produced by________________?

A: Fungi B: Gram +ve bacteria C: Virus D: Gram -ve bacteria

Q67 : The reaginic antibody is________________?

A: IgE B: IgM C: IgA D: IgG

Q68 : Herpes virus_____________?

A: Acquires its envelope from nuclear membrane B: Acquires its envelope from nucleolar membrane C: Acquires its envelope from cytoplasmi membrane D: None of the above

Q69 : Operation theatres are sterilized by_____________?

A: Carbolic acid spraying B: Washing with soap and water C: Formaldehyde fumigation D: ETO gas

Q70 : The prototype of Type II hypersensitivity reaction is__________________?

A: Arthus reaction B: SLE C: Auto immune hemolytic anemia D: Contact dermatitis

Q71 : Secretory Ig is_______________?

A: IgA B: IgE C: IgM D: IgD

Q72 : Opacity around colonies of Clostridium perfringens is due to_________________?

A: Theta toxin B: Lecithinase C: Desmolase D: Cytokinin

Q73 : Which is not true about vibrio cholera_________________?

A: It is non-halophilic B: Grows on simple media C: Man is the only natural host D: Cannot survive in extracellular environment

Q74 : Nagglers reaction is used in the diagnosis of______________?

A: Malaria B: Whooping cough C: Gas gangrene D: Wool sorters disease

Q75 : The inflammatory type of tinea capitis with superadded secondary bacterial infection leading to a painful, circumscribed, boggy, and indurated lesion, is called_____________?

A: Kerison B: Alopecia areata C: Pilomatrixoma D: Tenia incognito

Q76 : Teichoic acid is present in cell walls of_________________?

A: Gram positive bacteria B: Gram negative bacteria C: Yeast D: Protozoa

Q77 : Which of the following viruses produces both intranuclear and intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies_____________?

A: Chicken pox B: Rabies C: Small pox D: Measles

Q78 : For the treatment of case of class III dog bite, all of the following are correct except_____________?

A: Give inmunoglobulins for passive immunity B: Give ARV C: Immediately stitch wound under antibiotic coverage D: Immediately wash wound with soap and water

Q79 : During the Window period of patient with AIDS_______________?

A: ELISA IS – ve B: Western Blot is – ve C: Both are – ve D: PCR is – ve

Q80 : Which of the following is not transmitted by lice ?

A: Trench fever B: Relapsing fever C: Q fever D: Epidemic typhus

Q81 : Virus infected cell is killed by________________?

A: Interferons B: Macrophages C: Neutrophils D: Autolysis

Q82 : Most antibodies are produced in the________________?

A: Heart and the liver B: Brain and the meninges C: Thymus and the appendix D: Spleen and the lymph nodes

Q83 : Zero growth rate is observed during one of the phase of the bacterial growth curve______________?

A: Lag B: Exponential growth C: Stationary phase D: Decline

Q84 : All the following amoeba live in the large intestine except_________________?

A: coli B: nana C: gingivalis D: histolytica

Q85 : The reaginic antibody is________________?

A: IgG B: IgA C: IgD D: IgE

Q86 : All of the following lab tests can be used to distinguish streptococcus mutans from other oral streptococci, except______________?

A: Gram staining B: Fermentation of mannitol and sorbital C: Production of intracellular and extracellular adherent polysacharide D: Colony morphology on saliva agar

Q87 : Common name for Trichuris trichura________________?

A: Round worm B: Whip worm C: Tape worm D: Seat woman

Q88 : The chemotactic factor is______________?

A: C2a B: C3b C: C4a D: C5a

Q89 : Chemotactic cytokine is_________________?

A: IL-1 B: IL-6 C: IL-8 D: TNF

Q90 : Opportunistic infection is caused by___________________?

A: Penicillium B: Mucor C: Aspergillus D: All of the above

Q91 : Flash pasteurization of milk is done at what temperature______________?

A: 125°C for new seconds B: 60°C for 15 minutes C: 72°C for 5 minutes D: 72° for 15 – 20 Sec

Q92 : A diabetic patient developed cellulitis due to staphylococcus aureus, which was found to be Methicillin resistant on the antibiotic sensitivity testing. All of the following antibiotics will be appropriate EXCEPT________________?

A: Vancomycin B: Imipenem C: Teichoplanin D: Linezolid

Q93 : The virus which causes Aplastic anemia in chronic hemolytic disease is_______________?

A: Adeno B: Hepatitis C: EB virus D: Parvo virus

Q94 : By using phase contrast microscope_______________?

A: Internal structures are differentiated in living cells B: Internal structures are differentiated in dead cells C: Internal metabolic activities can be observed D: External capsule formation can be observed

Q95 : Seroconversion in HIV infection takes place in______________?

A: 2 weeks B: 4 weeks C: 9 weeks D: 12 weeks

Q96 : About N. gonorrhoea, all are true except__________________?

A: Most common cause of urethritis is male B: All stains are highly susceptible to penicillin C: Wide spread axoregnic stains cause disseminated gonococcal infection D: Found exclusively in human beings.

Q97 : Type of Human papilloma virus associated with carcinoma cervix_____________?

A: Type 6,12,18 B: 16,18,31 C: 6,8,11 D: 3,10,19

Q98 : All are true about Entamoeba histolytica except________________?

A: Cysts are 8 nucleated B: Cysts are 4 nucleated C: Trophozoites colonise in the colon D: The chromatid bodies are stained by iodides

Q99 : Characters of exotoxin include all, except_______________?

A: Protein polysaccharide complex B: Heat labile C: Highly potent D: Has specific tissue affinity

Q100 : The predominant immunoglobulin in saliva is_______________?

A: IgA B: IgD C: IgE D: IgG

Free Microbiology MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

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