Free Microbiology MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

Q1 : Most fungi of medical importance belongs to__________________?

A: Zygomycetes B: Ascomycetes C: Basidiomycetes D: Deuteromycetes

Q2 : Adjuvant given along with antigens are going to________________?

A: Increase toxigenicity B: Increase antigenicity C: Reduce the antigenicity D: reduce the toxigenicity

Q3 : Herpes virus_____________?

A: Acquires its envelope from nuclear membrane B: Acquires its envelope from nucleolar membrane C: Acquires its envelope from cytoplasmi membrane D: None of the above

Q4 : Sterilization of liquid paraffin is done by______________?

A: Autoclaving B: Hot air oven C: Inspissation D: UV-Radiation

Q5 : Rickettsiae__________________?

A: Multiply within living cell B: Transmitted by arthropod vectors C: Respond to tetracycline therapy D: All of the above

Q6 : Sterilisation control for moist heat is “or” The efficacy of the moist heat sterilization technique commonly used to sterlilize laboratory ware and culture media is tested by using_______________?

A: using Bacillus stearo thermo philus B: Using non-pathogenic strain of clostridium tetani C: Using chemical indicator D: Using methylene blue

Q7 : All the following amoeba live in the large intestine except_________________?

A: coli B: nana C: gingivalis D: histolytica

Q8 : Dengue virus belongs to______________?

A: Flavi virus B: Togaviridae C: Reoviridae D: Rhabdoviridae

Q9 : Chemotactic cytokine is_________________?

A: IL-1 B: IL-6 C: IL-8 D: TNF

Q10 : Immunoglobulin crossing placenta is_________________?

A: Ig M B: Ig A C: Ig G D: Ig D

Q11 : Presence of HBe Ag in Patients with hepatitis indicates_______________?

A: Simple carriers B: Late convalescence C: High infectivity D: Carrier status

Q12 : Graft versus host reaction is caused by_________________?

A: B-Lymphocytes B: T-lymphocytes C: Monocytes D: Leukocytes

Q13 : Type of Human papilloma virus associated with carcinoma cervix_____________?

A: Type 6,12,18 B: 16,18,31 C: 6,8,11 D: 3,10,19

Q14 : All of the following infections may be transmitted be dental instruments except____________?

A: HIV B: Hepatitis C C: Hepatitis B D: Hepatitis E

Q15 : Which of the following structures, found external to the bacterial cell wall, are involved in bacterial attachment to cell surfaces?

A: Capsule B: Flagella C: Pili D: Mesosomes

Q16 : Which of the following parasite causes autoinfection_________________?

A: Giardia lambella B: Isopora belli C: Balantidium coli D: Taenia solium

Q17 : Cold sterilization refers to the process of sterilization by use of____________________?

A: Ultra violet rays B: Ultrasonic vibrations C: Infrared rays D: Gamma rays

Q18 : Following are the characteristics of Cryptococcus neoformans EXCEPT________________?

A: Noncapsulated fungus infecting man B: Causes meningitis C: Melanin production related to virulence D: Basidiomycetes yeast

Q19 : In HIV, gp 120, envelope glycoproteins bind specifically to______________?

A: CD8 T-cells B: CD4 T-cells C: B – cells D: NK – cells

Q20 : Detergents used to disinfect dental instruments in the office kill bacteria by interfering with functional of the cell______________?

A: wall B: nucleus C: membrane D: Capsule

Q21 : Antibiotic sensitivity and resistance of micro organisms is determined by________________?

A: Direct microscopy B: Culture C: ELISA D: DNA probe

Q22 : Which of the following is not a koch’s postulate ?

A: The bacteria should be able to be isolated from a diseased tissue B: When inoculated in experimental animals bacteria may or may not cause disease C: Pure cultures can be obtained D: Bacteria should be able to be isolated from the diseased tissue in the experimental animals

Q23 : ELISA test when compared to western blot technique is______________?

A: Less sensitive less specific B: More sensitive, more specific C: Less sensitive, more specific D: More sensitive, less specific

Q24 : The usual concentration of agar used in agar medium is___________________?

A: 10% B: 15% C: 2% D: 5%

Q25 : The reaginic antibody is________________?

A: IgG B: IgA C: IgD D: IgE

Q26 : Anti HBsAB indicates______________?

A: Resistance to hepatitis B B: Acute infection C: Good prognosis D: Hepatocellular carcinoma

Q27 : Influenza is caused by_____________?

A: Orthomyxo virus, which is a DNA virus B: Paramyxo virus, which is a RNA virus C: Paramyxo virus, which is a DNA virus D: Orthomyxo virus, which is a RNA virus

Q28 : All of the following lab tests can be used to distinguish streptococcus mutans from other oral streptococci, except______________?

A: Gram staining B: Fermentation of mannitol and sorbital C: Production of intracellular and extracellular adherent polysacharide D: Colony morphology on saliva agar

Q29 : The causative organism for cat-scratch disease is______________?

A: Chlamydia trachomatis B: Donovania granulomatis C: Bartonella henselae D: Hemophilia ducreya

Q30 : Which is not true about vibrio cholera_________________?

A: It is non-halophilic B: Grows on simple media C: Man is the only natural host D: Cannot survive in extracellular environment

Q31 : All are true about legionella pneumophilia except______________?

A: Aquatic bodies are main habitat B: It can replicate in amoeba C: Urine test is a reliable method D: Person to person transmission

Q32 : VDRL is a________________?

A: Slide flocculation test B: Tube flocculation test C: Tube agglutination test D: Latex agglutination test

Q33 : Donovanosis, true is___________________?

A: Caused by Calymmatobacterium granulomatis B: Lymphadenopathy is remarkable & diagnostic C: Penicillin is drug of choice D: Characterized by painful genital ulcers

Q34 : The only virus, which has double stranded RNA, is______________?

A: Bunya virus B: Reo virus C: Calci virus D: Rhabdo virus

Q35 : Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by which of the following immunoglobulins ?

A: IgG B: IgA C: IgM D: IgE

Q36 : Subacute bacterial endocarditis is caused by_____________?

A: Streptococcus viridans B: Haemolytic streptococci C: Staphylococcus aureus D: Nisseria

Q37 : Killer and Helper cells are part of_______________?

A: B cells B: T cells C: Monocytes D: Macrophage

Q38 : In falciparum malaria, causes of anemia are due to all except__________________?

A: Hemolysis B: Malabsorption C: Spleen sequestration D: Bone marrow depression

Q39 : Pseudomonas aeruginosa_________________?

A: Produces heat stable enterotoxin B: Causes Shangai fever C: Cannot be destroyed at 55 degree at 1 hr. D: Cannot be destroyed at 55 degree at 1 hr.

Q40 : Flash pasteurization of milk is done at what temperature______________?

A: 125°C for new seconds B: 60°C for 15 minutes C: 72°C for 5 minutes D: 72° for 15 – 20 Sec

Q41 : Which of the following is true about pasteurization ?

A: It kills all bacteria except thermoduric bacteria B: It kills 95% of microorganisms C: It kills bacteria and spores D: Tubercle bacilli are destroyed

Q42 : Germ tubes are formed mainly by_______________?

A: Candida albicans B: Candida stellatoidea C: Candida tropicalis D: Candida pseudotropicalls

Q43 : Operation theatres are sterilized by_____________?

A: Carbolic acid spraying B: Washing with soap and water C: Formaldehyde fumigation D: ETO gas

Q44 : Black water fever is caused by______________?

A: Plasmodium vivax B: Plasmodium falciparum C: Leishmania donovani D: Microfilaria

Q45 : Most antibodies are produced in the________________?

A: Heart and the liver B: Brain and the meninges C: Thymus and the appendix D: Spleen and the lymph nodes

Q46 : CD4 cells recognize the antigens in association with_____________?

A: MHC I B: MHC II C: MHC III D: B-cell receptor

Q47 : Kolmer test is a screening test done for_________________?

A: Syphilis B: Tuberculosis C: Gonorrhea D: Lymphoma

Q48 : All are true about Entamoeba histolytica except________________?

A: Cysts are 8 nucleated B: Cysts are 4 nucleated C: Trophozoites colonise in the colon D: The chromatid bodies are stained by iodides

Q49 : True about prions________________?

A: Composed largely proteins without any nucleic acid B: Phase in which virus cannot be demonstrated in host cell C: Viruses which are genetically deficient D: Viral components may be synthesized but maturation & assembling is defective

Q50 : Which of the following is not transmitted by lice ?

A: Trench fever B: Relapsing fever C: Q fever D: Epidemic typhus

Q51 : Pathogenic treponemas can be maintained in________________?

A: Tissue culture B: Chick embryos C: Artificial media D: Rabbit testis only

Q52 : Which of the following is a RNA virus ?

A: Measles virus B: Herpes Virus C: Papavo virus D: Adeno virus

Q53 : The following statement is true regarding fungal infection__________________?

A: Dermatophyte infection are exclusively man to animal B: Rhinosporidium causes deep infection in man C: albicans is not pathogenic to lab animals D: Candida infection is usually endogenous

Q54 : Organism most frequently associated with urinary tract infections is_________________?

A: . Neisseria gonorrhea B: Escherichia coli C: T-strain mycoplasma D: Streptococcus fecalis

Q55 : IL-1 and TNF a during inflammation are secreted by______________?

A: Plasma cells B: Activated macrophages C: Lymphocytes D: Platelet

Q56 : Serological study for prevalence of Hepatitis B is best done by______________?

A: Surface antigen B: Surface antibody C: Core antigen D: Core antibody

Q57 : A rise in the anti-HBc immunoglobulin in a patient indicates________________?

A: Acute infection B: Carrier state C: Prodromal phase D: Convalescence

Q58 : Hepatitis C virus belongs to which one of the following virus groups ?

A: Picorna viruses B: Herpes viruses C: Hepadana viruses D: Flavi viruses

Q59 : Certain viruses have been isolated in crytalline form and have been found to be_____________?

A: Nucleotides B: Phospholipids C: Scleroproteins D: Nucleoproteins

Q60 : The component that sensitizes bacteria and virus to UV irradiation_______________?

A: Lipids B: Carbohydrates C: Inorganic salts D: Nucleic acids

Q61 : Stain used to make the wetted area of filter paper strip more visible is_____________?

A: Eosin stain B: Haemotoxin stain C: Ninhydrin stain D: Blue stain

Q62 : Which of the following is not a feature of anaphylaxis ?

A: Delayed reaction B: Immediate reaction C: passive transfer by serum D: None of the above

Q63 : Nagglers reaction is used in the diagnosis of______________?

A: Malaria B: Whooping cough C: Gas gangrene D: Wool sorters disease

Q64 : Rapid evaluation of fungal hyphae/spores can be achieved with_______________?

A: Grocott Gomori Methenamine silver B: Hematoxylin and Eosin C: KOH wet mount D: Peri-iodic Acid Schiff

Q65 : The cell wall deficient bacteria_______________?

A: Rickettsiae B: Mycoplasma C: Chlamydiae D: Ehrlichiae

Q66 : Most common opportunistic infection in AIDS is_____________?

A: Cryptococcosis B: Tuberculosis C: Candidiasis D: Aspergilosis

Q67 : Hydatid cyst is__________________?

A: Parasitic in nature B: Fungal C: Congenital D: Viral

Q68 : Investigation of choice for invasive amoebiasis is________________?

A: Indirect hemagglutination B: ELISA C: Counter immune electroporesis D: Microscopy

Q69 : Sleeping sickness is caused by_______________?

A: House fly B: Sand fly C: Tick D: Reduvid bug

Q70 : Most common tumor associated with AIDS is______________?

A: Carcinoma B: Kaposi’s sarcoma C: Melanoma D: Ewing’s sarcoma

Q71 : Fungal infection of human beings is called as_____________?

A: Mucorsis B: Mycosis C: Fungosis D: Micromia

Q72 : What is the transport medium for cholera___________________?

A: Tellurite Medium B: Cary Blair Medium C: Venkatraman – Ramakrishnan Medium D: B & C

Q73 : The following immunoglobulin is not known to fix complement_________________?

A: IgE B: IgE C: IgM D: IgG

Q74 : Highest incidence of anemia in the tropics is due to______________?

A: Hook worm B: Thread worm C: Ascaris D: Guinea worm

Q75 : Antibody to HSV will begin to appear_____________________?

A: in a week and reach a peak in 3 weeks B: only after one year C: no antibodies are present in primary HSV D: antibodies are present in recurrent and chronic apthous stomatitis

Q76 : Which of the following belongs to cell fraction derived vaccine______________?

A: Measles B: Mumps C: Rubella D: Hepatitis B

Q77 : Causative organism of Kalahazar is_______________?

A: Plasmodium ovaie B: Leishman donovani C: Entamoeba histolytica D: Toxoplasma

Q78 : Haptane is_______________?

A: Same as epitope B: Carrier required for specific antibody production C: High molecular protein D: None of the above

Q79 : Confirmatory test for HIV infection is a_______________?

A: ELISA B: Immunodot C: RIPA D: Western Blot

Q80 : Hepatitis A virus is best diagnosed by______________?

A: IgM antibodies in serum B: Isolation form stool C: Culture from blood D: Isolation from bile

Q81 : Opacity around colonies of Clostridium perfringens is due to_________________?

A: Theta toxin B: Lecithinase C: Desmolase D: Cytokinin

Q82 : An example of naturally acquired passive immunity is__________________?

A: Hepatitis vaccination B: Gamma globulin injection C: Immune blood transfusion D: Placental transfer of antibodies

Q83 : The protective effects breast milk are known to be associated with______________?

A: IgM antibodies B: Lysozyme C: Mast cells D: IgA antibodies

Q84 : Which of the following is not a pox virus ?

A: Cowpox B: Molluscum contagiosum C: Small pox D: chicken pox

Q85 : The maxillary air sinus opens into middle meatus at______________?

A: Infundibulum B: Summit of infundibulum C: Bulla ethmoidalis D: Hiatus semilunaris

Q86 : All are seen in a cysts of E. histolytica except_____________?

A: Glycogen mass B: Chromatid bars C: Eccentric nucleus D: Refractile nucleus

Q87 : The Ig found in exocrine secretions is_____________?

A: IgG B: IgD C: IgM D: IgA

Q88 : Phase contrast microscopy is based on principle of__________________?

A: Different refractive indices of object B: Different reflective indices of object C: Light scattering D: Light attenuation

Q89 : A mother donated a kidney to her daughter having chronic renal failure, which kind of graft it represents________________?

A: Allo B: ISO C: Xeno D: Auto

Q90 : The killer cells are associated with immunologic response___________________?

A: Type I B: Type II C: Type III D: Type IV

Q91 : Australian antigen is_______________?

A: HB Ag B: HBs AG C: HBV D: None of the above

Q92 : Hospital dressing is best disposed by_____________?

A: Incineration B: Dumping C: Autoclaving D: Burying

Q93 : Anaphylaxis refers to the________________?

A: Severe reaction following the injection of protein solution in a sensitized individual B: Severe reaction following primary injection of Protein solutions C: Severe reaction resulting from sensitivity to common allergens D: State of immunity developed by repeated injections of any foreign substance

Q94 : Dry heat destroys microorganisms by_____________?

A: Lysis B: Oxidation C: Hydrolysis of DNA D: Coagulation of proteins

Q95 : Selective media for MYCOBACTERIUM _____________?

A: Sabourauds medium B: Agar – agar C: Lowenstein Jensen medium D: Loefflers serum slope

Q96 : The distinguishing characteristic of a positive delayed type hypersensitivity skin test is______________?

A: Erythema B: Necrosis C: Induration D: Vasculitis

Q97 : Thread worm is______________?

A: Enterobius B: Ancylostoma C: Ascaris D: Necator

Q98 : Endoscopes are sterilized by using_______________?

A: Autoclaving B: Boiling C: Cidex D: Gamma radiation

Q99 : The type of immunoglobulin most commonly increased in multiple myeloma is_______________?

A: IgG B: IgA C: IgM D: IgD

Q100 : Phagocytosis enhanced by coating the surface of antigen is called______________?

A: Opsonisation B: Chemotaxis C: De coding D: CFT

Free Microbiology MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

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