Free Microbiology MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

Q1 : When horse serum is injected intravenoulsy in to a rabbit and again in to the skin two or three weeks later, what is the necrotizing reaction that occurs as the site of the second injection________________?

A: Atopy B: Anaphylaxis C: Arthus phenomeno D: Serum sickness

Q2 : Immunoglobulin consists of________________?

A: 2 light, 2 heavy chains B: 1 heavy, 2 light chains C: 1 light, 1 heavy chain D: 3 light, 1 heavy chain

Q3 : Stain used to make the wetted area of filter paper strip more visible is_____________?

A: Eosin stain B: Haemotoxin stain C: Ninhydrin stain D: Blue stain

Q4 : B.C.G untrue is_____________?

A: live vaccine B: T.B vaccine C: Orally administered D: All of the above

Q5 : Hydatid cyst is__________________?

A: Parasitic in nature B: Fungal C: Congenital D: Viral

Q6 : The diagnosis of gonorrhea is established by_____________?

A: Compliment fixation tests B: Pili agglutination tests C: Haemagglutination tests D: All of the above tests

Q7 : The optimal time and temperature required for sterilization in an autoclave is___________________?

A: 140°C x 2 hrs. x 10 lbs pr. B: 121°F x 15 mts. x 15 lbs pr C: 121°F x 15 sec. x 15 lbs pr. D: 121°C 15 mts. x 15 lbs pr.

Q8 : Amoebic liver abscess can be diagnosed by demonstratig________________?

A: Cysts in the sterile pus B: Trophozoites in the pus C: Cysts in the intestine D: Trophozoites in the feces

Q9 : All are oncogenic except________________?

A: EB virus B: Papilloma virus C: Herpes simplex virus D: Varicella zoster virus

Q10 : The viral action is differentiated from bacterial action by_________________? 0

A: Interferon production B: Toxin production C: Lymphocytes production D: Neutrophils production

Q11 : Which of the following organisms are arranged in cubical packets of eight cocci________________?

A: Staphylococcus B: Micrococcus C: Sarcina D: Aerococcus

Q12 : Australia antigen is associated with________________?

A: Hepatitis B surface antigen in acute hepatitis B: AIDS C: Chronic leukemia D: Basal cell carcinoma

Q13 : Out of the following hypersensitivity reactions, in which type a single dose of the antigen can act as both the sensitizing and shocking dose_______________?

A: Anaphylaxis B: Arthus reaction C: Serum sickness D: Contact dermatitis

Q14 : T cell matures in______________?

A: Payers patch B: Lymph node C: Thymus D: Busra of Fabricius

Q15 : CD4 cells recognize the antigens in association with_____________?

A: MHC I B: MHC II C: MHC III D: B-cell receptor

Q16 : The small nonparticulate protein leading to enhanced replication of HBV as well as HIV is______________?

A: HBc Ag B: HBs Ag C: Hbe Ag D: HBx Ag

Q17 : IgG has subclasses_______________?

A: 1 B: 2 C: 3 D: 4

Q18 : Example of immune complex hyper-sensitivity reaction is______________?

A: Atopic allergy B: Serum sickness C: Transfusion reaction D: Contact dermatitis

Q19 : The type of immunoglobulin most commonly increased in multiple myeloma is_______________?

A: IgG B: IgA C: IgM D: IgD

Q20 : The mechanism by which most fungi caused disease is ________________?

A: exotoxin production B: lecithinase production C: hypersensitivity D: Coagulase production

Q21 : Phase contrast microscopy is based on principle of__________________?

A: Different refractive indices of object B: Different reflective indices of object C: Light scattering D: Light attenuation

Q22 : Sporulation occurs in__________________?

A: Lag phase B: Log phase C: Stationary phase D: Decline phase

Q23 : Thread worm is______________?

A: Enterobius B: Ancylostoma C: Ascaris D: Necator

Q24 : Man is the only reservoir for_______________?

A: Salmonella B: Camphylobacter jejuni C: histolytica D: Y. enterocolitica

Q25 : Rickettsiae__________________?

A: Multiply within living cell B: Transmitted by arthropod vectors C: Respond to tetracycline therapy D: All of the above

Q26 : Noguchi’s medium is used for________________?

A: . Bordetella B: Brucella C: Borrelia D: None of the above

Q27 : Viruses can be cultured in all except_______________?

A: Chick embryo B: Blood agar C: Guinea pigs D: Cell culture

Q28 : Which of the following is not a pox virus ?

A: Cowpox B: Molluscum contagiosum C: Small pox D: chicken pox

Q29 : Phagocytosis enhanced by coating the surface of antigen is called______________?

A: Opsonisation B: Chemotaxis C: De coding D: CFT

Q30 : One of the following staining methods is an example of negative staining_______________?

A: Gram’s staining B: Fontana’s staining C: India ink preparation D: Zheil-Neilson’s staining

Q31 : Portion of immunoglobulin molecule with molecular weight to 50000_________________?

A: Secretory piece B: H chain C: L chain D: J piece

Q32 : Pasteur developed the vaccine for_______________?

A: All of the above B: Anthrax C: Rabies D: Cholera

Q33 : Dental Plaque adheres to tooth surface by________________?

A: Dextran B: Epithelial cells C: Bacteria D: Sucrose

Q34 : All are seen in a cysts of E. histolytica except_____________?

A: Glycogen mass B: Chromatid bars C: Eccentric nucleus D: Refractile nucleus

Q35 : All are true about legionella pneumophilia except______________?

A: Aquatic bodies are main habitat B: It can replicate in amoeba C: Urine test is a reliable method D: Person to person transmission

Q36 : Which of the following is not transmitted by lice ?

A: Trench fever B: Relapsing fever C: Q fever D: Epidemic typhus

Q37 : In which of the following immunization is given after infection is started________________?

A: Rabies B: Poliomyelitis C: Influenza D: Influenza

Q38 : Opacity around colonies of Clostridium perfringens is due to_________________?

A: Theta toxin B: Lecithinase C: Desmolase D: Cytokinin

Q39 : Rabies virus________________?

A: Cytotropic B: Dermatotropic C: Chromophilic D: Neurotropic

Q40 : Dorset’s egg medium is used for cultivation of______________?

A: Staphylococcus B: Streptococcus C: Gonococcus D: Mycobacterium

Q41 : Glasswares are sterilised by______________?

A: Autoclaving B: .Hot air oven C: Incineration D: Formaldehyde

Q42 : Culture medium for corynebacterium diphtheria_______________?

A: Loefflers serum slope B: Mc Conkey C: Saboraud agar D: Lowenstein Jensen medium

Q43 : IL-1 is produced by_________________?

A: Helper T cells B: Helper B cells C: Monocytes D: Macrophages

Q44 : About Bacteroids True are all Except_______________?

A: Susceptible to many antibiotics B: Present mainly in mixed infections C: Most common species is B fragilis D: Bile resistant anerobes

Q45 : Presence of HBe Ag in Patients with hepatitis indicates_______________?

A: Simple carriers B: Late convalescence C: High infectivity D: Carrier status

Q46 : Pseudomonas aeruginosa_________________?

A: Produces heat stable enterotoxin B: Causes Shangai fever C: Cannot be destroyed at 55 degree at 1 hr. D: Cannot be destroyed at 55 degree at 1 hr.

Q47 : The spirochete which is associated with fusospirochetosis is______________?

A: Treponema pallidum B: Treponjema pertenue C: Borrelia burgdorferi D: Borrelia vincenti

Q48 : ELISA test when compared to western blot technique is______________?

A: Less sensitive less specific B: More sensitive, more specific C: Less sensitive, more specific D: More sensitive, less specific

Q49 : Human immunoglobulins are divided based on_____________?

A: Functional differences B: Structural differences C: Complemented fixation D: None of the above

Q50 : Which of the following is true about tetanus acquired through traumatic wound ?

A: Clostridium tetani travels via the nerves to the anterior horn dells in spinal cord B: The tetanospasmin component of the exotoxin act on the post-synaptic neurones and prevents impulse transmission C: The patient should be given tetanus toxoid intravenously D: Causes positive Nagler reaction

Q51 : VDRL is a________________?

A: Slide flocculation test B: Tube flocculation test C: Tube agglutination test D: Latex agglutination test

Q52 : patients with organ transplants are most frequently infected with______________?

A: Hepatitis A B: Hepatitis B C: CMV D: CMV

Q53 : The overall effect of HIV is to gradually impair the immune system by interference with______________?

A: Helper T lymphocytes B: Natural killer cells C: Plasma cells D: Macrophages

Q54 : The classic opportunistic infection in acquired immune deficiency syndrome is_____________?

A: Apthous stomatitis B: Tuberculosis C: Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia D: Herpetic gingivostomatitis

Q55 : Bacterial cell does not possess___________________?

A: dna B: Ribosome C: Mitochondria D: Cell wall

Q56 : Normal ratio of CD4 (T4) : CD8 (T8) is_________________?

A: 2:1 B: 1:2 C: 3:1 D: 1:3

Q57 : For the treatment of case of class III dog bite, all of the following are correct except_____________?

A: Give inmunoglobulins for passive immunity B: Give ARV C: Immediately stitch wound under antibiotic coverage D: Immediately wash wound with soap and water

Q58 : The distinguishing characteristic of a positive delayed type hypersensitivity skin test is______________?

A: Erythema B: Necrosis C: Induration D: Vasculitis

Q59 : The predominant immunoglobulin in saliva is_______________?

A: IgA B: IgD C: IgE D: IgG

Q60 : Confirmatory test for HIV infection is a_______________?

A: ELISA B: Immunodot C: RIPA D: Western Blot

Q61 : Spores are disinfected by_______________?

A: Glutaraldehyde B: Betapropiolactone C: Formaldehyde D: Both A & C

Q62 : Which of the following viruses produces both intranuclear and intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies_____________?

A: Chicken pox B: Rabies C: Small pox D: Measles

Q63 : The virus which causes Aplastic anemia in chronic hemolytic disease is_______________?

A: Adeno B: Hepatitis C: EB virus D: Parvo virus

Q64 : The usual concentration of agar used in agar medium is___________________?

A: 10% B: 15% C: 2% D: 5%

Q65 : The Dane particle is the______________?

A: HBV B: IgG anti HAV C: Delta Virus D: HBC Ag

Q66 : Haptane is_______________?

A: Same as epitope B: Carrier required for specific antibody production C: High molecular protein D: None of the above

Q67 : Antibody to HSV will begin to appear_____________________?

A: in a week and reach a peak in 3 weeks B: only after one year C: no antibodies are present in primary HSV D: antibodies are present in recurrent and chronic apthous stomatitis

Q68 : Leprosy bacilli can be grown in_________________?

A: Foot paid on nine branded armadilo B: Tail of guinea pig C: Testes of albino rats D: Testes of guinea pig

Q69 : Black water fever is caused by______________?

A: Plasmodium vivax B: Plasmodium falciparum C: Leishmania donovani D: Microfilaria

Q70 : The maxillary air sinus opens into middle meatus at______________?

A: Infundibulum B: Summit of infundibulum C: Bulla ethmoidalis D: Hiatus semilunaris

Q71 : Immunoglobulin implicated in atopy and anaphylaxis is_______________?

A: IgE B: IgM C: IgG D: IgA

Q72 : Candida albicans causes all of the following except______________?

A: Endocarditis B: Meningitis C: Oral thrush D: Meningitis

Q73 : The key cell types involved in the acquired immunity include all EXCEPT________________?

A: B lymphocytes B: Erythrocytes C: T lymphocytes D: Antigen presenting cells (APC

Q74 : In HIV, gp 120, envelope glycoproteins bind specifically to______________?

A: CD8 T-cells B: CD4 T-cells C: B – cells D: NK – cells

Q75 : In penicillin allergy, penicillin acts as a_______________?

A: Hapten B: Carrier C: Super antigen D: Toxin

Q76 : Exaltation is________________?

A: Decreased virulence B: Increased Virulence C: No change D: None

Q77 : Nagglers reaction is used in the diagnosis of______________?

A: Malaria B: Whooping cough C: Gas gangrene D: Wool sorters disease

Q78 : Antigen combining site of the antibody is____________________?

A: Idiotope B: Paratope C: Epitope D: Hapten

Q79 : Following reaction are produced by heterophil antigens except_____________?

A: Forssman antigen antibody reaction B: Weil-Felix reaction C: Paul bunnel reaction D: Widal reaction

Q80 : Which of the following is most potent antigen for stimulating both humoral and cell mediated immunity ?

A: Adjuvant B: Proteins C: Polysaccharides D: Lipids

Q81 : Serological study for prevalence of Hepatitis B is best done by______________?

A: Surface antigen B: Surface antibody C: Core antigen D: Core antibody

Q82 : The cell wall deficient bacteria_______________?

A: Rickettsiae B: Mycoplasma C: Chlamydiae D: Ehrlichiae

Q83 : Virus is cultured in_______________?

A: Saubourd’s agar B: Rogosa medium C: Nonembryonated egg D: Embryonated egg

Q84 : The reaginic antibody is________________?

A: IgG B: IgA C: IgD D: IgE

Q85 : Bacterial species which is protective or beneficial to the host is_______________?

A: Streptococcus sanguis B: Porphyromonas gingivalis C: Treponema denticola D: Spirochetes

Q86 : Mycobacterium tuberculosis is best demonstrated by_________________?

A: Gram’s stain B: H & E stain C: Ziehl-Neelsen stain D: PAS stain

Q87 : Following are the characteristics of Cryptococcus neoformans EXCEPT________________?

A: Noncapsulated fungus infecting man B: Causes meningitis C: Melanin production related to virulence D: Basidiomycetes yeast

Q88 : All are not true for cultivation of anaerobic organisms except_______________?

A: Incubator B: anaerobic jar C: Refrigerator D: Centrifuge

Q89 : Following is a retrovirus_____________?

A: Immunodeficiency virus B: Influenza C: Polio virus D: Hepatitis virus

Q90 : Highest incidence of anemia in the tropics is due to______________?

A: Hook worm B: Thread worm C: Ascaris D: Guinea worm

Q91 : True about Toxaplasma gondi is, it is carried by_______________?

A: cats B: Dogs C: Rats D: Cow

Q92 : Delayed tuberculin test response is due to_______________?

A: B lymphocytes B: T lymphocytes C: Monocytes D: Histiocytes

Q93 : Anaphylaxis refers to the________________?

A: Severe reaction following the injection of protein solution in a sensitized individual B: Severe reaction following primary injection of Protein solutions C: Severe reaction resulting from sensitivity to common allergens D: State of immunity developed by repeated injections of any foreign substance

Q94 : Which is false about Wucheraria bancrofti_________________?

A: Causes filariasis B: Body is slender and long C: Terminal nuclei absent D: Man and anapheles mosquito are hosts

Q95 : Prions true is____________?

A: Readily inactivated by autoclave at 121 C B: Evokes strong immunogenic reaction C: Sensitive to most chemical sterilization D: Contains DNA/ RNA

Q96 : False +ve for VDRL is seen in______________?

A: Yaws B: Lepromatous Leprosy C: Malaria D: All of the above

Q97 : The best way of detecting the presence of viruses in the infected cell – culture is____________?

A: Cytopathic changes in culture cells B: Presence of viral protein in the infected monolayer C: Haemagglutination test D: Haemagglutination inhibition test

Q98 : Which does not have a viral etiology______________?

A: Carcinoma Cervix B: Hepatoma C: Nasopharyngeal carcinoma D: Lymphoma

Q99 : Which of the following viruses does not infect salivary glands ?

A: Hepatitis C B: HIV C: D: Orthomyxovirus

Q100 : Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by which of the following immunoglobulins ?

A: IgG B: IgA C: IgM D: IgE

Free Microbiology MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

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