Free Microbiology MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

Q1 : Sunlight acts as sterilizing agent because_________________?

A: Long wavelength B: short wave lenght C: Ozone D: Heat

Q2 : Which of the following is a RNA virus ?

A: Measles virus B: Herpes Virus C: Papavo virus D: Adeno virus

Q3 : In patients with asthma due to an allergic cause the serum levels of which immunoglobulin increase____________________?

A: IgD B: IgM C: IgA D: IgE

Q4 : Salivary protein, which prevents transmission of human immunodeficiency virus via saliva, is____________?

A: Sialoperoxidase B: Secretory IgA C: Salivary leukocyte proteinase inhibitor D: Histidine rich proteins

Q5 : Following reaction are produced by heterophil antigens except_____________?

A: Forssman antigen antibody reaction B: Weil-Felix reaction C: Paul bunnel reaction D: Widal reaction

Q6 : CD4 count in normal healthy adult is_______________?

A: 500 B: 200 C: 1000 D: 300

Q7 : One virus particle prevents multiplication of 2nd virus. This phenomena is____________?

A: Viral interference B: Mutation C: Supervision D: Permutation

Q8 : Organism most frequently associated with urinary tract infections is_________________?

A: . Neisseria gonorrhea B: Escherichia coli C: T-strain mycoplasma D: Streptococcus fecalis

Q9 : Portion of immunoglobulin molecule with molecular weight to 50000_________________?

A: Secretory piece B: H chain C: L chain D: J piece

Q10 : Spores are disinfected by_______________?

A: Glutaraldehyde B: Betapropiolactone C: Formaldehyde D: Both A & C

Q11 : Antibody to HSV will begin to appear_____________________?

A: in a week and reach a peak in 3 weeks B: only after one year C: no antibodies are present in primary HSV D: antibodies are present in recurrent and chronic apthous stomatitis

Q12 : Certain viruses have been isolated in crytalline form and have been found to be_____________?

A: Nucleotides B: Phospholipids C: Scleroproteins D: Nucleoproteins

Q13 : Babu, a 28 year old male comes with compaint of exposure 3 wks back, having cervical Lymphadenopathy, Hepatosplenomegaly. Diagnosis of HIV is done by____________?

A: ELISA B: Western blot C: P24 antigen D: Lymph node biopsy

Q14 : Loss of capsule in bacteria is generally associated with______________?

A: Decease in virulence B: Loss of infectivity C: Inability to spread through tissue D: increase in invasiveness

Q15 : Out of the following hypersensitivity reactions, in which type a single dose of the antigen can act as both the sensitizing and shocking dose_______________?

A: Anaphylaxis B: Arthus reaction C: Serum sickness D: Contact dermatitis

Q16 : Detergents used to disinfect dental instruments in the office kill bacteria by interfering with functional of the cell______________?

A: wall B: nucleus C: membrane D: Capsule

Q17 : Injection abscesses due to use of contaminated vaccines occurs in infections caused by_______________?

A: M. Kansasii B: M. ulcerans C: M. chelonae D: M. smegmatis

Q18 : Immunoglobulins ar secreted by______________?

A: Macrophages B: Plasma cells C: T-cells D: Neutrophils

Q19 : EBV is responsible for all except______________?

A: Nasopharyngeal carcinoma B: Burkitt’s lymphoma C: Hepatoma D: Infectious mononucleosis

Q20 : The immediate type of hypersensitivity in which histamine doses not play a major role is______________?

A: Urticaria B: Asthma C: Anaphylaxis D: Arthus reaction

Q21 : Dengue virus belongs to______________?

A: Flavi virus B: Togaviridae C: Reoviridae D: Rhabdoviridae

Q22 : One of the following statement about statements about sterilization is not true_______________?

A: Liquid paraffin → Dry heat B: Glass syringes → Boiling at 169°C for 60 min C: Flash pasteurization of milk → 72° C for 15 seconds, followed quickly by rapid cooling to 13°C for lower D: Vaccines → Ethylene oxide

Q23 : Transmission of all of the following intestinal parasites takes place by the feco-oral route except_______

A: Giardia lambia B: Ascaris lumbriocoides C: Strongyloides D: Entamoeba

Q24 : Cytopathic effect is shown by_____________?

A: Virus B: Bacteria C: Spirochete D: Anaerobe

Q25 : Antigen combining site of the antibody is____________________?

A: Idiotope B: Paratope C: Epitope D: Hapten

Q26 : Negative phase is seen in ________ immunity?

A: Active B: Passive C: Herd D: Local

Q27 : Which organism causes prosthetic valve endocarditis within 60 days of surgery________________?

A: Streptococcus Viridan B: Staphylococcus epidermis C: Staphylococcus aureus D: Fungus

Q28 : A 30 years old patient developed high fever of sudden onset. Peripheral blood smear showed cresent shaped gametocytes. Malaria pigment was dark brown in colour Which of the following malarial parasites is the causative agent ?

A: Plasmodium vivax B: Plasmodium malaria C: . Plasmodium falciparum D: Plasmodium ovale

Q29 : Actinomycosis is a_________________?

A: Aerobic bacterial disease B: Anaerobic bacterial disease C: Aerobic fungal disease D: Anaerobic fungal disease

Q30 : A young pregnant woman presents with fulminant hepatic failure. The most likely aetiological agent is_____________?

A: Hepatitis B virus B: Hepatitis C virus C: Hepatitis E virus D: Hepatitis A virus

Q31 : Function of T-lymphocyte is/are________________?

A: Production of interferon B: Lymphokine production C: Rosette formation D: All of the above

Q32 : Which of the following is true about tetanus acquired through traumatic wound ?

A: Clostridium tetani travels via the nerves to the anterior horn dells in spinal cord B: The tetanospasmin component of the exotoxin act on the post-synaptic neurones and prevents impulse transmission C: The patient should be given tetanus toxoid intravenously D: Causes positive Nagler reaction

Q33 : Half-life of free HIV in plasma is________________?

A: 24 hours B: 6 hours C: 12 hours D: 3 months

Q34 : All are true about legionella pneumophilia except______________?

A: Aquatic bodies are main habitat B: It can replicate in amoeba C: Urine test is a reliable method D: Person to person transmission

Q35 : Rabies virus________________?

A: Cytotropic B: Dermatotropic C: Chromophilic D: Neurotropic

Q36 : Interferon interferes with replication of virus at the time of_____________?

A: Protein synthesis B: DNA/RNA replication C: When virus enters the cell D: Uncoating of the virus proteins capsule

Q37 : Disinfection frees the surface from______________?

A: Vegetative forms B: Spore forms C: Both of the above D: None of the above

Q38 : Leishmania is cultured in ________________ media?

A: Chocolate agar B: NNN C: Tellurite D: Sabourauds

Q39 : The interaction of antigens with antibodies on the surface of a mast cel leads to degranulation and anaphylaxis. The mast cell granules produce anaphylaxis because they contain________________?

A: Lysosomes B: Proteolytic enzymes C: Lymphotoxins D: Vasoactive mediators

Q40 : The protective effects breast milk are known to be associated with______________?

A: IgM antibodies B: Lysozyme C: Mast cells D: IgA antibodies

Q41 : Hepatitis A virus is best diagnosed by______________?

A: IgM antibodies in serum B: Isolation form stool C: Culture from blood D: Isolation from bile

Q42 : Anaphylaxis refers to the________________?

A: Severe reaction following the injection of protein solution in a sensitized individual B: Severe reaction following primary injection of Protein solutions C: Severe reaction resulting from sensitivity to common allergens D: State of immunity developed by repeated injections of any foreign substance

Q43 : Most sensitive test for antigen detection is_______________?

A: Radioimmuno Assay B: ELISA C: Immunoflourescence D: Passive hemaglutination

Q44 : Investigation of choice for invasive amoebiasis is________________?

A: Indirect hemagglutination B: ELISA C: Counter immune electroporesis D: Microscopy

Q45 : Opsonisation is by_______________?

A: IgA B: IgE C: IgM D: Both C & D

Q46 : Oil and Grease are sterilized by________________?

A: Hot air oven B: Auto claving C: Irradiation D: Ethylene dioxide

Q47 : Which of the following organisms are arranged in cubical packets of eight cocci________________?

A: Staphylococcus B: Micrococcus C: Sarcina D: Aerococcus

Q48 : During the Window period of patient with AIDS_______________?

A: ELISA IS – ve B: Western Blot is – ve C: Both are – ve D: PCR is – ve

Q49 : Schuffner’s dots are seen in infection due to_______________?

A: Plasmodium falciparum B: Plasmodium vivax C: Plasmodium malariae D: Plasmodium ovale

Q50 : Bacterial spores are destroyed by_______________?

A: Boiling at 100°C B: Disinfection by hypochlorite solution C: Autoclave D: Pasteurisation

Q51 : Which of the following is NOT a live attenuated vaccine ?

A: Tuberculosis (BCG) B: Typhoid C: Varicella Zoster virus D: Cholera

Q52 : The maxillary air sinus opens into middle meatus at______________?

A: Infundibulum B: Summit of infundibulum C: Bulla ethmoidalis D: Hiatus semilunaris

Q53 : Malaria pigment is________________?

A: Bilurubin B: Haemoglobin C: Iron D: Haematin-globin pigment

Q54 : The spirochete which is associated with fusospirochetosis is______________?

A: Treponema pallidum B: Treponjema pertenue C: Borrelia burgdorferi D: Borrelia vincenti

Q55 : Hydatid cyst is__________________?

A: Parasitic in nature B: Fungal C: Congenital D: Viral

Q56 : Dry heat destroys microorganisms by_____________?

A: Lysis B: Oxidation C: Hydrolysis of DNA D: Coagulation of proteins

Q57 : A rise in the anti-HBc immunoglobulin in a patient indicates________________?

A: Acute infection B: Carrier state C: Prodromal phase D: Convalescence

Q58 : Hospital dressing is best disposed by_____________?

A: Incineration B: Dumping C: Autoclaving D: Burying

Q59 : Characters of exotoxin include all, except_______________?

A: Protein polysaccharide complex B: Heat labile C: Highly potent D: Has specific tissue affinity

Q60 : Type of receptor present on T-cells are__________________?

A: Ig A B: Ig G C: Prostaglandins D: CD4

Q61 : Most common opportunistic infection in AIDS is_____________?

A: Cryptococcosis B: Tuberculosis C: Candidiasis D: Aspergilosis

Q62 : Pathogenic treponemas can be maintained in________________?

A: Tissue culture B: Chick embryos C: Artificial media D: Rabbit testis only

Q63 : In which of the following immunization is given after infection is started________________?

A: Rabies B: Poliomyelitis C: Influenza D: Influenza

Q64 : Thread worm is______________?

A: Enterobius B: Ancylostoma C: Ascaris D: Necator

Q65 : Virus is cultured in_______________?

A: Saubourd’s agar B: Rogosa medium C: Nonembryonated egg D: Embryonated egg

Q66 : The best sterilization method for a hand-piece is________________?

A: Ethylene oxide gas B: dry heat C: chemical vapour D: All of the above

Q67 : Zero growth rate is observed during one of the phase of the bacterial growth curve______________?

A: Lag B: Exponential growth C: Stationary phase D: Decline

Q68 : Most fungi of medical importance belongs to__________________?

A: Zygomycetes B: Ascomycetes C: Basidiomycetes D: Deuteromycetes

Q69 : Stain used to make the wetted area of filter paper strip more visible is_____________?

A: Eosin stain B: Haemotoxin stain C: Ninhydrin stain D: Blue stain

Q70 : Immunity that is conferred to the foetus by transfer of IgG and IgA antibodies is called as______________?

A: Active acquired immunity B: Passive acquired immunity C: Natural active immunity D: Passive natural immunity

Q71 : The culture media for fungus is__________________?

A: Tellurite medium B: NNN medium C: Chocolate agar medium D: Sabourauds medium

Q72 : Blood agar is________________?

A: Simple media B: Transport media C: Enriched media D: Differential media

Q73 : parasitic inflammation would show predominantly____________________?

A: Lymphocytes B: Neutrophilis C: Eosinophils D: Basophils

Q74 : Cell wall deficient bacteria are_______________?

A: Escherichia Coli B: Staphylococci C: Spirochetes D: Mycoplasma

Q75 : Techoic acid is present in_____________?

A: Cell wall of Gram positive organisms B: Cell wall of Gram negative organisms C: Cytoplasm of Gram positive organisms D: Cytoplasm of Gram negative organisms

Q76 : Which of the following is not transmitted by lice ?

A: Trench fever B: Relapsing fever C: Q fever D: Epidemic typhus

Q77 : The viral action is differentiated from bacterial action by_________________?

A: Interferon production B: Toxin production C: Lymphocytes production D: Neutrophils production

Q78 : Amoebic liver abscess can be diagnosed by demonstratig________________?

A: Cysts in the sterile pus B: Trophozoites in the pus C: Cysts in the intestine D: Trophozoites in the feces

Q79 : For the treatment of case of class III dog bite, all of the following are correct except_____________?

A: Give inmunoglobulins for passive immunity B: Give ARV C: Immediately stitch wound under antibiotic coverage D: Immediately wash wound with soap and water

Q80 : Rapid diagnosis of Tuberculosis is possible with_______________?

A: Ziel Nelson B: Kin Young stain C: Auramine-Rhodamine stain D: Giemsa stain

Q81 : patients with organ transplants are most frequently infected with______________?

A: Hepatitis A B: Hepatitis B C: CMV D: CMV

Q82 : Influenza is caused by_____________?

A: Orthomyxo virus, which is a DNA virus B: Paramyxo virus, which is a RNA virus C: Paramyxo virus, which is a DNA virus D: Orthomyxo virus, which is a RNA virus

Q83 : Glasswares are sterilised by______________?

A: Autoclaving B: .Hot air oven C: Incineration D: Formaldehyde

Q84 : Bacteriophage was discovered by_________________?

A: Robert koch B: Twort and d’herelle C: Menkin D: Metchinkoff

Q85 : Which of the following is a live vaccine_____________?

A: 17 D B: Salk C: Hepatitis D: HDCV

Q86 : IL-1 is produced by_________________?

A: Helper T cells B: Helper B cells C: Monocytes D: Macrophages

Q87 : Pseudomonas aeruginosa_________________?

A: Produces heat stable enterotoxin B: Causes Shangai fever C: Cannot be destroyed at 55 degree at 1 hr. D: Cannot be destroyed at 55 degree at 1 hr.

Q88 : The inflammatory type of tinea capitis with superadded secondary bacterial infection leading to a painful, circumscribed, boggy, and indurated lesion, is called_____________?

A: Kerison B: Alopecia areata C: Pilomatrixoma D: Tenia incognito

Q89 : The Process of attenuation can be achieved by all except___________________?

A: Growing bacteria in adverse environment B: Growing bacteria in unconventional host C: Serial passage in an experimental host D: Repeated cultures in artificial media

Q90 : A cerebrospinal fluid of a 2 years old child has been sent to the laboratory to detect the presence of capsulated yeast. The staining technique most commonly employed for the purpose is______________?

A: India ink preparation B: Methanamine silver stain C: Ziehl-Neelsen stain D: Pyte-ferraco stain

Q91 : Lesions caused by Entameoba histolytica predominantly involve________________?

A: Caecum and large intestine B: Duodenum C: Stomach D: Jejunum and Ileum

Q92 : The most primitive mode of gene transfer occurs by____________?

A: Transduction B: Translation C: Cell fusion D: Conjugation

Q93 : Pigs are important source of_____________?

A: Japanese encephalitis B: Kuru C: Yellow fever D: Rabies

Q94 : Kaposi’s sarcoma (KS) usually occurs when CD4 Lymphocyte counts are_____________?

A: Above 600 B: Between 1000-2000 C: Below 200 D: Above 2000

Q95 : The maxillary air sinus opens into middle meatus at______________?

A: Infundibulum B: Summit of infundibulum C: Bulla ethmoidalis D: Hiatus semilunaris

Q96 : True about Toxaplasma gondi is, it is carried by_______________?

A: cats B: Dogs C: Rats D: Cow

Q97 : Sclerotic bodies measuring 3-5m in size, multi-septate, chestnut, brown color is characteristic of________________?

A: Histoplasmosis B: Rhinosporodiosis C: Phaeohypomycosis D: Chromoblastomycosis

Q98 : Methods for the diagnosis of superficial fungal infection________________?

A: Microscopic examination of skin scrapings B: KOH staining C: Wood light examination D: All of the above

Q99 : The chemotactic factor is______________?

A: C2a B: C3b C: C4a D: C5a

Q100 : Viron is defined as______________?

A: Extracellular infectious virus particle B: Smallest virus C: A smallest particle similar to virus D: None of the above

Free Microbiology MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

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