Free Microbiology MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

Q1 : Following are the characteristics of Cryptococcus neoformans EXCEPT________________?

A: Noncapsulated fungus infecting man B: Causes meningitis C: Melanin production related to virulence D: Basidiomycetes yeast

Q2 : Dental Plaque adheres to tooth surface by________________?

A: Dextran B: Epithelial cells C: Bacteria D: Sucrose

Q3 : Which worm is longest________________?

A: T. Solium B: T. Saginata C: Hook worm D: A. Lumbricoides

Q4 : Antigen used in Weil-Felix reaction______________?

A: E.coli B: Haemophilus C: Proteus D: Staphylococcus

Q5 : Nagglers reaction is used in the diagnosis of______________?

A: Malaria B: Whooping cough C: Gas gangrene D: Wool sorters disease

Q6 : Human immune deficiency virus is ________________ virus?

A: Rheo B: Retro C: Rhabdo D: Flavi

Q7 : compared with autoclave, use of a dry heat over for sterilization has the following disadvantages______________?

A: Time-consuming B: Less effective C: Causes instruments to rust D: Causes sharp instruments to dull

Q8 : Cell wall deficient bacteria are_______________?

A: Escherichia Coli B: Staphylococci C: Spirochetes D: Mycoplasma

Q9 : Louis Pasteur is not associated with_______________?

A: Introduction of complex media B: Discovery of Rabies Vaccine C: Discovery of M. Tuberculosis D: Disproved spontaneous regression theory

Q10 : The best method of sterilization of dressing powder is_____________?

A: Autoclaving B: Hot air oven C: Inspissation D: Tyndallization

Q11 : Which of the following is most potent antigen for stimulating both humoral and cell mediated immunity ?

A: Adjuvant B: Proteins C: Polysaccharides D: Lipids

Q12 : Characters of exotoxin include all, except_______________?

A: Protein polysaccharide complex B: Heat labile C: Highly potent D: Has specific tissue affinity

Q13 : In which of the following immunization is given after infection is started________________?

A: Rabies B: Poliomyelitis C: Influenza D: Influenza

Q14 : Virus infected cell is killed by________________?

A: Interferons B: Macrophages C: Neutrophils D: Autolysis

Q15 : Confirmatory test for HIV infection is a_______________?

A: ELISA B: Immunodot C: RIPA D: Western Blot

Q16 : Following hepatitis B infection through blood transfusion disease manifests in_____________?

A: 1 week B: 6 week C: 3 months D: 6 months

Q17 : A child presents with infective skin lesions of the leg. Culture was done which showed gram positive cocci in chains and haemolytic colonies. Which of the following tests will best identify the organism ?

A: Bile solubility B: Optochin sensitivity C: Bacitracin sensitivity D: Cataslase positive

Q18 : Sterilization is a process in which_________________?

A: Kill all pathogenic micro-organisms B: Kill all non-pathogenic micro-organisms in the environment C: Deactivate all pathogens not spores D: Deactivate all spores and dill pathogenic organism

Q19 : Which of the following is not transmitted by lice ?

A: Trench fever B: Relapsing fever C: Q fever D: Epidemic typhus

Q20 : Glasswares are sterilised by______________?

A: Autoclaving B: .Hot air oven C: Incineration D: Formaldehyde

Q21 : Hospital dressing is best disposed by_____________?

A: Incineration B: Dumping C: Autoclaving D: Burying

Q22 : Dematophytes are fungi infecting________________?

A: Subcutaneous tissue B: Systemic organs C: Nails, hair and skin D: Superficial skin and deep tissue

Q23 : A dentist suffred from Hepatitis B infection 3 months back. His laboratory tests are normal but he is not allowed by the medical board to do surgical practice. He is_____________?

A: Inactive carrier B: Healthy carrier C: Convalscent carrier D: Paradoxical carrier

Q24 : Which stage of plasmodium vivax is infective to mosquito______________?

A: Sporozoite B: Gametocyte C: Merozoite D: Zygote

Q25 : The culture media used for cultivation of HSV is_____________?

A: Chocolate agar B: Robertoson’s cooked-meat broth C: Chorio allantoic membrane D: Sabourad’s agar

Q26 : The major antiseptic value of soap lies in its ability to_____________?

A: Kill mircobes B: Remove microbes C: Inhibit microbial growth D: Dehydrate microbial cells

Q27 : In penicillin allergy, penicillin acts as a_______________?

A: Hapten B: Carrier C: Super antigen D: Toxin

Q28 : Disinfection frees the surface from______________?

A: Vegetative forms B: Spore forms C: Both of the above D: None of the above

Q29 : IL-1 and TNF a during inflammation are secreted by______________?

A: Plasma cells B: Activated macrophages C: Lymphocytes D: Platelet

Q30 : Which component of the cell wall is responsible________________?

A: Region I B: Region II C: Region III D: Boivin antigen

Q31 : The reaginic antibody is________________?

A: IgE B: IgM C: IgA D: IgG

Q32 : L.D bodies are seen in_______________?

A: Kalahazar B: Toxoplasmosis C: Malaria D: Sleeping sickness

Q33 : The usual concentration of agar used in agar medium is___________________?

A: 10% B: 15% C: 2% D: 5%

Q34 : Tyndallisation is carried out for________________?

A: One day B: Two successive days C: 60 minutes D: Three successive days

Q35 : Babu, a 28 year old male comes with compaint of exposure 3 wks back, having cervical Lymphadenopathy, Hepatosplenomegaly. Diagnosis of HIV is done by____________?

A: ELISA B: Western blot C: P24 antigen D: Lymph node biopsy

Q36 : Which of the following provides best gurantee for sterlization in the heat sterilizer ?

A: Using chemical indicator strip or pouch B: Recording a temperature/ pressure readings from sterilizer guage C: Using a bacterial spore test D: Determining the ability of a sterilizer to kill the hepatitis B virus

Q37 : Serological study for prevalence of Hepatitis B is best done by______________?

A: Surface antigen B: Surface antibody C: Core antigen D: Core antibody

Q38 : Phagocytosis enhanced by coating the surface of antigen is called______________?

A: Opsonisation B: Chemotaxis C: De coding D: CFT

Q39 : Immunoglobulin implicated in atopy and anaphylaxis is_______________?

A: IgE B: IgM C: IgG D: IgA

Q40 : Mesophilic organisms are those that grow best at temperature of______________?

A: -20°C to -7°C B: -7°C to + 20°C C: 25°C to 40°C D: 55°C to 80°C

Q41 : Immunity that is conferred to the foetus by transfer of IgG and IgA antibodies is called as______________?

A: Active acquired immunity B: Passive acquired immunity C: Natural active immunity D: Passive natural immunity

Q42 : Secretory Ig is_______________?

A: IgA B: IgE C: IgM D: IgD

Q43 : Delhi boil refer to_______________?

A: Solar Keratosis B: Malignant pustule C: L. Tropica sore D: Venereal ulcer

Q44 : Physical sterilization was discovered by__________________?

A: Alexander flemings B: Robert Koch C: Joeph Lister D: John Hunter

Q45 : Which of the following is a live vaccine_____________?

A: 17 D B: Salk C: Hepatitis D: HDCV

Q46 : A 30 years old patient developed high fever of sudden onset. Peripheral blood smear showed cresent shaped gametocytes. Malaria pigment was dark brown in colour Which of the following malarial parasites is the causative agent ?

A: Plasmodium vivax B: Plasmodium malaria C: . Plasmodium falciparum D: Plasmodium ovale

Q47 : All are seen in a cysts of E. histolytica except_____________?

A: Glycogen mass B: Chromatid bars C: Eccentric nucleus D: Refractile nucleus

Q48 : Pathogenic treponemas can be maintained in________________?

A: Tissue culture B: Chick embryos C: Artificial media D: Rabbit testis only

Q49 : An example of naturally acquired passive immunity is__________________?

A: Hepatitis vaccination B: Gamma globulin injection C: Immune blood transfusion D: Placental transfer of antibodies

Q50 : By using phase contrast microscope_______________?

A: Internal structures are differentiated in living cells B: Internal structures are differentiated in dead cells C: Internal metabolic activities can be observed D: External capsule formation can be observed

Q51 : Most common opportunistic infection in AIDS is_____________?

A: Cryptococcosis B: Tuberculosis C: Candidiasis D: Aspergilosis

Q52 : Negative phase is seen in ________ immunity?

A: Active B: Passive C: Herd D: Local

Q53 : Black water fever is caused by______________?

A: Plasmodium vivax B: Plasmodium falciparum C: Leishmania donovani D: Microfilaria

Q54 : The viral action is differentiated from bacterial action by_________________? 0

A: Interferon production B: Toxin production C: Lymphocytes production D: Neutrophils production

Q55 : Pasteur developed the vaccine for_______________?

A: All of the above B: Anthrax C: Rabies D: Cholera

Q56 : Sporulation occurs in__________________?

A: Lag phase B: Log phase C: Stationary phase D: Decline phase

Q57 : Dark ground microscopy is useful to identify______________?

A: Mycoplasma B: Chlamydiae C: Rickettsiae D: Spirochaetes

Q58 : In transmission of malaria, mosquito bite transfers_______________?

A: Sporozoite B: Merozoite C: Hypnozoite D: Gametocyte

Q59 : The Window period in HIV infection means______________?

A: The time lapse between the infection and detection of viral antibodies B: The time lapse between the infection and development of AIDS C: The time lapse between obtaining the sample and detection of virus in the lab D: None of the above

Q60 : About N. gonorrhoea, all are true except__________________?

A: Most common cause of urethritis is male B: All stains are highly susceptible to penicillin C: Wide spread axoregnic stains cause disseminated gonococcal infection D: Found exclusively in human beings.

Q61 : Most sensitive test for antigen detection is_______________?

A: Radioimmuno Assay B: ELISA C: Immunoflourescence D: Passive hemaglutination

Q62 : Bacteriophage was discovered by_________________?

A: Robert koch B: Twort and d’herelle C: Menkin D: Metchinkoff

Q63 : Exaltation is________________?

A: Decreased virulence B: Increased Virulence C: No change D: None

Q64 : In HIV, gp 120, envelope glycoproteins bind specifically to______________?

A: CD8 T-cells B: CD4 T-cells C: B – cells D: NK – cells

Q65 : A person working in an abattoir presented with a papule on hand, which turned in to an ulcer. Which will best help in diagnosis______________?

A: Trichrome Methylene blue B: Carbol Fuschin C: Acid Fast Stain D: Calcoflour White

Q66 : A veterinary doctor had pyrexia of unknown origin His blood culture in special laboratory media was positive for gram negative short bacilli which was oxidase positive. Which one of the following is the likely organism grown in culture ?

A: Pasturella spp B: Francisella spp C: Bartonella spp D: Brucella spp

Q67 : Components of innate immunity that are active against viral cells includes______________?

A: NK Cells B: Cytotoxic T cells C: B cells D: Memory B cells

Q68 : The classic opportunistic infection in acquired immune deficiency syndrome is_____________?

A: Apthous stomatitis B: Tuberculosis C: Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia D: Herpetic gingivostomatitis

Q69 : Which of the following viruses produces both intranuclear and intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies_____________?

A: Chicken pox B: Rabies C: Small pox D: Measles

Q70 : Which of the following is NOT a live attenuated vaccine ?

A: Tuberculosis (BCG) B: Typhoid C: Varicella Zoster virus D: Cholera

Q71 : A woman with infertility receives an ovary transplant from her sister who is an identical Twin. What type of graft it is ?

A: Xenograft B: Allograft C: Isograft D: Isograft

Q72 : The commonly used fluorescent dye in the detection of tubercie bacilli________________?

A: Acridine orange B: Thioglavin C: Congo red D: Auramine and Rhodamine

Q73 : Out of the following hypersensitivity reactions, in which type a single dose of the antigen can act as both the sensitizing and shocking dose_______________?

A: Anaphylaxis B: Arthus reaction C: Serum sickness D: Contact dermatitis

Q74 : Which of the following is a RNA virus ?

A: Measles virus B: Herpes Virus C: Papavo virus D: Adeno virus

Q75 : Rapid diagnosis of Tuberculosis is possible with_______________?

A: Ziel Nelson B: Kin Young stain C: Auramine-Rhodamine stain D: Giemsa stain

Q76 : Opportunistic infection is caused by___________________?

A: Penicillium B: Mucor C: Aspergillus D: All of the above

Q77 : Each of the following viruses possesses an outer lipoprotein envelope except_____________?

A: Varicella Zoster Virus B: Papilloma Virus C: Influenza Virus D: Human immunodeficiency virus

Q78 : Which of the following are correctly matched ?

A: Transfer of antibody from mother to child is through colostrum and acquired passive immunity naturally B: Injection of antibodies (Hepatitis) is artificially acquired passive immunity C: Antigenic stimulus given by vaccine (polio) is artificial active immunity D: All of the above

Q79 : Function of Ig A is________________?

A: Acts as a mucosal barrier for infection B: Circulating antibody C: Kills virus infected cells D: Activates macrophages

Q80 : Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) affets_______________?

A: Red blood cells B: Fibroblasts C: Helper T lymphocytes (CD4) D: Mast cells

Q81 : Leprosy bacilli can be grown in_________________?

A: Foot paid on nine branded armadilo B: Tail of guinea pig C: Testes of albino rats D: Testes of guinea pig

Q82 : DNA covering material in a virus is called as________________?

A: Capsomere B: Capsid C: Nucleocapsid D: Envelope

Q83 : Antibiotic sensitivity and resistance of micro organisms is determined by________________?

A: Direct microscopy B: Culture C: ELISA D: DNA probe

Q84 : Pneumococus can be differentiated from streptococcus by________________?

A: Type of hemolysis B: Gram staining C: Growth characteristics D: Bile solubility

Q85 : The chemotactic factor is______________?

A: C2a B: C3b C: C4a D: C5a

Q86 : Phase contrast microscopy is based on principle of__________________?

A: Different refractive indices of object B: Different reflective indices of object C: Light scattering D: Light attenuation

Q87 : Dorset’s egg medium is used for cultivation of______________?

A: Staphylococcus B: Streptococcus C: Gonococcus D: Mycobacterium

Q88 : Cytopathic effect is shown by_____________?

A: Virus B: Bacteria C: Spirochete D: Anaerobe

Q89 : Immunoglobulins ar secreted by______________?

A: Macrophages B: Plasma cells C: T-cells D: Neutrophils

Q90 : A type of immediately occuring reaction in which antigens combine with antibodies already attached to the surface of mast cells and basophils is called_____________?

A: Type I hypersensitivity B: Type II hypersensitivity C: Type III hypersensitivity D: Type IV hypersensitivity

Q91 : Which of the following correctly indicates the infectivity of hepatitis virus in human ?

A: HBCAg B: HBeAg C: Anti-HBC D: Anti-HBS

Q92 : Blood agar is________________?

A: Simple media B: Transport media C: Enriched media D: Differential media

Q93 : Virus is cultured in_______________?

A: Saubourd’s agar B: Rogosa medium C: Nonembryonated egg D: Embryonated egg

Q94 : Glutaraldehyde is preferred more than formaldehyde because______________?

A: It has got more bactericidal activity B: It has got more bacteriostatic activity C: It has got no deleterious effect on the cement and lenses of instruments D: Its application is easier

Q95 : Neurotoxin of tetanus acts on______________?

A: Synapse B: Muscle C: Brain D: Spinal card

Q96 : The diagnostic investigation for syphilis is__________________?

A: TPI test B: TPHA test C: FTAB test D: Both C & D

Q97 : ELISA test when compared to western blot technique is______________?

A: Less sensitive less specific B: More sensitive, more specific C: Less sensitive, more specific D: More sensitive, less specific

Q98 : Aflatoxins are produced by________________?

A: Aspergillus niger B: Aspergillus fumigatus C: Aspergillus flavus D: All of the above

Q99 : Example of immune complex hyper-sensitivity reaction is______________?

A: Atopic allergy B: Serum sickness C: Transfusion reaction D: Contact dermatitis

Q100 : All are true about legionella pneumophilia except______________?

A: Aquatic bodies are main habitat B: It can replicate in amoeba C: Urine test is a reliable method D: Person to person transmission

Free Microbiology MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

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