Free Microbiology MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

Q1 : Which component of the cell wall is responsible________________?

A: Region I B: Region II C: Region III D: Boivin antigen

Q2 : For the treatment of case of class III dog bite, all of the following are correct except_____________?

A: Give inmunoglobulins for passive immunity B: Give ARV C: Immediately stitch wound under antibiotic coverage D: Immediately wash wound with soap and water

Q3 : A 6 year old boy comes with abdominal pain, vomiting after consuming mild products within 6 hours. The most likely organism responsible is______________?

A: Staph. aureus B: Salmonella C: B.Cereus D: Clostridium botulinum

Q4 : Phase contrast microscopy is based on principle of__________________?

A: Different refractive indices of object B: Different reflective indices of object C: Light scattering D: Light attenuation

Q5 : Which of the following viruses produces both intranuclear and intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies_____________?

A: Chicken pox B: Rabies C: Small pox D: Measles

Q6 : A mother donated a kidney to her daughter having chronic renal failure, which kind of graft it represents________________?

A: Allo B: ISO C: Xeno D: Auto

Q7 : Which of the following lesions is NOT an infection from human papilloma virus ?

A: Verruca vulgaris B: Focal epithelial hyperplasia C: Condyloma acuminatum D: Keratoacanthoma

Q8 : Synthesis of antibodies in plasma cells occurs in_________________?

A: Golgi body B: Endoplasmic reticulum C: Nucleus D: Mitochondria

Q9 : The killer cells are associated with immunologic response___________________?

A: Type I B: Type II C: Type III D: Type IV

Q10 : Cysticercosis celluosae is caused by_____________?

A: T. Solium B: Echinococcus granulosus C: T. Saginata D: nana

Q11 : True about Toxaplasma gondi is, it is carried by_______________?

A: cats B: Dogs C: Rats D: Cow

Q12 : Antigen used in Weil-Felix reaction______________?

A: E.coli B: Haemophilus C: Proteus D: Staphylococcus

Q13 : Louis Pasteur is not associated with_______________?

A: Introduction of complex media B: Discovery of Rabies Vaccine C: Discovery of M. Tuberculosis D: Disproved spontaneous regression theory

Q14 : Detergents used to disinfect dental instruments in the office kill bacteria by interfering with functional of the cell______________?

A: wall B: nucleus C: membrane D: Capsule

Q15 : Candida albicans causes all of the following except______________?

A: Endocarditis B: Meningitis C: Oral thrush D: Meningitis

Q16 : Nagglers reaction is used in the diagnosis of______________?

A: Malaria B: Whooping cough C: Gas gangrene D: Wool sorters disease

Q17 : In which of the following immunization is given after infection is started________________?

A: Rabies B: Poliomyelitis C: Influenza D: Influenza

Q18 : All are seen in a cysts of E. histolytica except_____________?

A: Glycogen mass B: Chromatid bars C: Eccentric nucleus D: Refractile nucleus

Q19 : All are true about Entamoeba histolytica except________________?

A: Cysts are 8 nucleated B: Cysts are 4 nucleated C: Trophozoites colonise in the colon D: The chromatid bodies are stained by iodides

Q20 : A young pregnant woman presents with fulminant hepatic failure. The most likely aetiological agent is_____________?

A: Hepatitis B virus B: Hepatitis C virus C: Hepatitis E virus D: Hepatitis A virus

Q21 : Salivary protein, which prevents transmission of human immunodeficiency virus via saliva, is____________?

A: Sialoperoxidase B: Secretory IgA C: Salivary leukocyte proteinase inhibitor D: Histidine rich proteins

Q22 : Adjuvant given along with antigens are going to________________?

A: Increase toxigenicity B: Increase antigenicity C: Reduce the antigenicity D: reduce the toxigenicity

Q23 : Commonest site of extra intestinal amoebiasis is___________________?

A: Brain B: Liver C: Spleen D: Lungs

Q24 : The HIV virus can be destroyed invitro by which of the following_____________?

A: Boiling B: Ethanol C: Cidex D: All of the above

Q25 : All of the following lab tests can be used to distinguish streptococcus mutans from other oral streptococci, except______________?

A: Gram staining B: Fermentation of mannitol and sorbital C: Production of intracellular and extracellular adherent polysacharide D: Colony morphology on saliva agar

Q26 : The predominant immunoglobulin in saliva is_______________?

A: IgA B: IgD C: IgE D: IgG

Q27 : Post streptococcal acute glomerulo nephritis is an example of________________?

A: Type I hypersensitivity B: Type II hypersensitivity C: Type III hypersensitivity D: Type IV hypersensitivity

Q28 : The classic opportunistic infection in acquired immune deficiency syndrome is_____________?

A: Apthous stomatitis B: Tuberculosis C: Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia D: Herpetic gingivostomatitis

Q29 : Most fungi of medical importance belongs to__________________?

A: Zygomycetes B: Ascomycetes C: Basidiomycetes D: Deuteromycetes

Q30 : Candida is most often implicated in causation___________________?

A: Conjunctivitis B: Tenea capitis C: Desert rheumatism D: Thrush

Q31 : EBV causes all except_________________?

A: Carcinoma of nasopharynx B: Papilloma C: Infectious mononucleosis D: Burkitt’s lymphoma

Q32 : The Window period in HIV infection means______________?

A: The time lapse between the infection and detection of viral antibodies B: The time lapse between the infection and development of AIDS C: The time lapse between obtaining the sample and detection of virus in the lab D: None of the above

Q33 : Highest incidence of anemia in the tropics is due to______________?

A: Hook worm B: Thread worm C: Ascaris D: Guinea worm

Q34 : Encapsulation in bacteria helps in__________________?

A: Spore formation B: Decreased virulence C: Prevent their phagocytosis D: Oxygen effect

Q35 : In transmission of malaria, mosquito bite transfers_______________?

A: Sporozoite B: Merozoite C: Hypnozoite D: Gametocyte

Q36 : One of the following statement about statements about sterilization is not true_______________?

A: Liquid paraffin → Dry heat B: Glass syringes → Boiling at 169°C for 60 min C: Flash pasteurization of milk → 72° C for 15 seconds, followed quickly by rapid cooling to 13°C for lower D: Vaccines → Ethylene oxide

Q37 : Glutaraldehyde is preferred more than formaldehyde because______________?

A: It has got more bactericidal activity B: It has got more bacteriostatic activity C: It has got no deleterious effect on the cement and lenses of instruments D: Its application is easier

Q38 : Which stage of plasmodium vivax is infective to mosquito______________?

A: Sporozoite B: Gametocyte C: Merozoite D: Zygote

Q39 : Flash pasteurization of milk is done at what temperature______________?

A: 125°C for new seconds B: 60°C for 15 minutes C: 72°C for 5 minutes D: 72° for 15 – 20 Sec

Q40 : The term animalcules to oral microorganisms is given by__________________?

A: Wd miller B: Leumenhoek C: Robertson D: Socranci

Q41 : Antibody to HSV will begin to appear_____________________?

A: in a week and reach a peak in 3 weeks B: only after one year C: no antibodies are present in primary HSV D: antibodies are present in recurrent and chronic apthous stomatitis

Q42 : Which of the following organisms does NOT react with gram’s stain ?

A: Actinomyces israelii B: Candida albicans C: Mycobacterium tuberculosis D: Streptococcus mutan

Q43 : Prions true is____________?

A: Readily inactivated by autoclave at 121 C B: Evokes strong immunogenic reaction C: Sensitive to most chemical sterilization D: Contains DNA/ RNA

Q44 : Complement factor through which common pathway begins___________________?

A: C3 B: C5 C: C2 D: Protein B

Q45 : False +ve for VDRL is seen in______________?

A: Yaws B: Lepromatous Leprosy C: Malaria D: All of the above

Q46 : Sporozoites of plasmodium falciparum are shaped_______________?

A: Dot B: Comma C: Banana D: Sickle

Q47 : Dengue virus belongs to______________?

A: Flavi virus B: Togaviridae C: Reoviridae D: Rhabdoviridae

Q48 : The minimum time required for the sterilization of surgical instruments by moist heat at 134°C is__________________?

A: 3 minutes B: 15 minutes C: 30 minutes D: 60 minutes

Q49 : Immunoglobulin consists of________________?

A: 2 light, 2 heavy chains B: 1 heavy, 2 light chains C: 1 light, 1 heavy chain D: 3 light, 1 heavy chain

Q50 : Which of the following immunoglobulins has the highest mean serum concentration in humans_________________?

A: IgA B: IgD C: IgG D: IgM

Q51 : Cold sterilization refers to the process of sterilization by use of______________?

A: Ultra violet rays B: Ultrasonic vibrations C: Infrared rays D: Gamma rays

Q52 : Antibiotic sensitivity and resistance of micro organisms is determined by________________?

A: Direct microscopy B: Culture C: ELISA D: DNA probe

Q53 : Hospital dressing is best disposed by_____________?

A: Incineration B: Dumping C: Autoclaving D: Burying

Q54 : Cell wall deficient bacteria are_______________?

A: Escherichia Coli B: Staphylococci C: Spirochetes D: Mycoplasma

Q55 : Type of receptor present on T-cells are__________________?

A: Ig A B: Ig G C: Prostaglandins D: CD4

Q56 : Which of the following viruses are most likely to cross placenta and cause foetal defect ?

A: Herpes Simplex B: Mumps C: Rubella D: Papilloma

Q57 : The causative organism for cat-scratch disease is______________?

A: Chlamydia trachomatis B: Donovania granulomatis C: Bartonella henselae D: Hemophilia ducreya

Q58 : Function of T-lymphocyte is/are________________?

A: Production of interferon B: Lymphokine production C: Rosette formation D: All of the above

Q59 : The serum concentration of which of the following human IgG subclass is maximum ?

A: IgG1 B: IgG2 C: IgG3 D: IgG4

Q60 : Phagocytosis enhanced by coating the surface of antigen is called______________?

A: Opsonisation B: Chemotaxis C: De coding D: CFT

Q61 : Stain used to make the wetted area of filter paper strip more visible is_____________?

A: Eosin stain B: Haemotoxin stain C: Ninhydrin stain D: Blue stain

Q62 : Which of the following is true about pasteurization ?

A: It kills all bacteria except thermoduric bacteria B: It kills 95% of microorganisms C: It kills bacteria and spores D: Tubercle bacilli are destroyed

Q63 : Dematophytes are fungi infecting________________?

A: Subcutaneous tissue B: Systemic organs C: Nails, hair and skin D: Superficial skin and deep tissue

Q64 : Virus are sharply differentiated from bacteria by_______________?

A: Presence of either DNA or RNA B: Simple structure C: Complex multiplication D: All of the above

Q65 : A veterinary doctor had pyrexia of unknown origin His blood culture in special laboratory media was positive for gram negative short bacilli which was oxidase positive. Which one of the following is the likely organism grown in culture ?

A: Pasturella spp B: Francisella spp C: Bartonella spp D: Brucella spp

Q66 : Australia antigen is associated with________________?

A: Hepatitis B surface antigen in acute hepatitis B: AIDS C: Chronic leukemia D: Basal cell carcinoma

Q67 : About Bacteroids True are all Except_______________?

A: Susceptible to many antibiotics B: Present mainly in mixed infections C: Most common species is B fragilis D: Bile resistant anerobes

Q68 : Type of Human papilloma virus associated with carcinoma cervix_____________?

A: Type 6,12,18 B: 16,18,31 C: 6,8,11 D: 3,10,19

Q69 : True about prions________________?

A: Composed largely proteins without any nucleic acid B: Phase in which virus cannot be demonstrated in host cell C: Viruses which are genetically deficient D: Viral components may be synthesized but maturation & assembling is defective

Q70 : True about immune response of hepatitis B is__________________?

A: Antibody of HBs Ag is associated with resistance to infection B: Antibody to HBC is not protective C: Highest titres of anti HBC are found in persistent carriers of HBs Ag D: CMI disappears soon after recover

Q71 : T cells multiplication is stimulated by_______________?

A: Macrolin B: Heat C: Bovine serum D: Phytohaemagglutinin

Q72 : Investigation of choice for invasive amoebiasis is________________?

A: Indirect hemagglutination B: ELISA C: Counter immune electroporesis D: Microscopy

Q73 : The culture media for fungus is__________________?

A: Tellurite medium B: NNN medium C: Chocolate agar medium D: Sabourauds medium

Q74 : DNA covering material in a virus is called as________________?

A: Capsomere B: Capsid C: Nucleocapsid D: Envelope

Q75 : About N. gonorrhoea, all are true except__________________?

A: Most common cause of urethritis is male B: All stains are highly susceptible to penicillin C: Wide spread axoregnic stains cause disseminated gonococcal infection D: Found exclusively in human beings.

Q76 : The difference between sterilization and disinfection is that_______________?

A: Disinfection kills all spores but sterilization does not B: Sterilization kills all spores but disinfection does not C: Sterilization involves chemicals and disinfection involves physical methods D: Sterilization is easier to achieve

Q77 : A type of immediately occuring reaction in which antigens combine with antibodies already attached to the surface of mast cells and basophils is called_____________?

A: Type I hypersensitivity B: Type II hypersensitivity C: Type III hypersensitivity D: Type IV hypersensitivity

Q78 : Which of the following would you consider to be general properties of viruses______________?

A: New virus particle arises directly (by division) from preexisting viruses B: Fall in to the general size range of 200-3000 angstrom unit C: Contain equal proportions of protein, lipo polysaccharide and nucleic acids D: Contain DNA but no RNA

Q79 : Example of immune complex hyper-sensitivity reaction is______________?

A: Atopic allergy B: Serum sickness C: Transfusion reaction D: Contact dermatitis

Q80 : Which of the following represents the serologic evidence of recent Hepatitis B virus infection during window period ?

A: HBs Ag B: IgM anti – HBc C: Anti HBs D: None of the above

Q81 : Killer and Helper cells are part of_______________?

A: B cells B: T cells C: Monocytes D: Macrophage

Q82 : Which of the following antibacterial substance is present in eggs and saliva ?

A: Lysozyme B: Secretozyme C: Albumin D: Isozyme

Q83 : Physical sterilization was discovered by__________________?

A: Alexander flemings B: Robert Koch C: Joeph Lister D: John Hunter

Q84 : Which of the following is most potent antigen for stimulating both humoral and cell mediated immunity ?

A: Adjuvant B: Proteins C: Polysaccharides D: Lipids

Q85 : The earliest identifiable cells of T-Cell lineage during maturation are_______________?

A: CD7+ Pro-T-Cells B: CD5+ Pre-T-Cells C: CD8+ Pro-T-Cells D: CD8+ Pre-T-Cells

Q86 : Spores are disinfected by_______________?

A: Glutaraldehyde B: Betapropiolactone C: Formaldehyde D: Both A & C

Q87 : The following immunoglobulin is not known to fix complement_________________?

A: IgE B: IgE C: IgM D: IgG

Q88 : A diabetic patient developed cellulitis due to staphylococcus aureus, which was found to be Methicillin resistant on the antibiotic sensitivity testing. All of the following antibiotics will be appropriate EXCEPT________________?

A: Vancomycin B: Imipenem C: Teichoplanin D: Linezolid

Q89 : The cell wall deficient bacteria_______________?

A: Rickettsiae B: Mycoplasma C: Chlamydiae D: Ehrlichiae

Q90 : Dental Plaque adheres to tooth surface by________________?

A: Dextran B: Epithelial cells C: Bacteria D: Sucrose

Q91 : Bacteriophage was discovered by_________________?

A: Robert koch B: Twort and d’herelle C: Menkin D: Metchinkoff

Q92 : The major antiseptic value of soap lies in its ability to_____________?

A: Kill mircobes B: Remove microbes C: Inhibit microbial growth D: Dehydrate microbial cells

Q93 : Which is type II hypersensitivity ?

A: Anaphylaxis B: Delayed hypersensitivity C: Immune complex mediated D: Cytotoxic / cytolytic type

Q94 : Herpes virus_____________?

A: Acquires its envelope from nuclear membrane B: Acquires its envelope from nucleolar membrane C: Acquires its envelope from cytoplasmi membrane D: None of the above

Q95 : The best skin disinfectant is________________?

A: Chlorhexdine B: Alcohol C: Savlon D: None of the above

Q96 : Anaphylaxis refers to the________________?

A: Severe reaction following the injection of protein solution in a sensitized individual B: Severe reaction following primary injection of Protein solutions C: Severe reaction resulting from sensitivity to common allergens D: State of immunity developed by repeated injections of any foreign substance

Q97 : Growth factor needed for Salmonella_________________?

A: Tryptophan B: Niacin C: B-12 D: Citrate

Q98 : Robertsons cooked meat medium is best suited for cultivation of_______________?

A: Clostridia B: S. epidermidis C: Choleria D: Mycobacterium

Q99 : The component that sensitizes bacteria and virus to UV irradiation_______________?

A: Lipids B: Carbohydrates C: Inorganic salts D: Nucleic acids

Q100 : The medium of choice for growing most fungi is_______________?

A: Blood agar B: Tissue culture C: Sabouraud’s agar D: Thioglycollate medium

Free Microbiology MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

Time to prove what you know!

LAT Test

GAT Test

Contact Info

Free Microbiology MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

Subscribe our Newsletter

LAT Test

GAT Test

Contact Info