Free Oral Histology MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

Q1 : Dental lamina is active up to_______________?

A: 1 year B: 2 years C: 3 years D: 4 years

Q2 : Order of development of tooth germ is____________?

A: Bell-bud-cap B: Cap-bell-bud C: Bud-cap-bell D: Bell-cap-bud

Q3 : The function of merkel cells is_______________?

A: Sensory function B: Secretory function C: Neuro sensory D: Nutritive function

Q4 : Incremental lines of retzius are seen in______________?

A: Enamel B: Dentin C: Cementum D: Pulp

Q5 : Dark bonds that are present in enamel rods at intervals of 4 μms are______________?

A: Neonantal bands B: Cross striations C: Striae of Retzius D: Hunter-Schregar bands

Q6 : Epithelial cells which ultimately keratinize are known as_____________?

A: Keratinizing cells B: Melanocytes C: Non-Keratinizing cells D: Clear cells

Q7 : The most aggressive and destructive cyst is:_____________?

A: Periapical cyst B: Dentigerous cyst C: Globulomaxillary cyst D: Nasopalatine cyst

Q8 : Epithelium of oral mucous membrane is_______________?

A: Keratinized B: Non keratinized C: Ortho, para and non keratinized D: Only para keratinized

Q9 : The most abundant principle fibre group in periodontal ligament is____________?

A: Horizontal B: Transeptal C: Apical D: Oblique

Q10 : Bone at forming stage has_________________?

A: Osteoclasts, osteoblasts, osteoid B: Odontoblasts & megakaryocyte C: Megakaryocytes, osteoblasts, osteoclasts D: None of the above

Q11 : Enamel tufts are_______________?

A: Thin tuft like structure extending from enamel surface of dentin enamel junction B: Tuft like structure arising from dentin-enamel junction towards enamel surface C: Odontoblastic processes extending into enamel D: None of the above

Q12 : The class of low molecular weight calcium binding proteins seen predominantly in developing enamel are_____________?

A: Enamelin B: Amelogenin C: Tuftelin D: Ameloplakin

Q13 : In mineralization which one of the following is known as Epitaxy ?

A: Booster Mechanism B: Seeding theory C: Alkaline Phosphatase theory D: Cartier/s Adenosine Triphosphate theory

Q14 : Compared to the inter tubular dentin, peritubular dentin is characterized by which of the following ?

A: Greater stainability B: Lasser content of inorganic salts C: greater content of inorganic salts D: Greater content of large collagen fibres

Q15 : A suitable fixative for a routine biopsy specimen is_____________?

A: 10% formalin B: 40% formalin C: 20% formalin D: 10% alcohol

Q16 : Interwining of the enamel rods at the cusp timps and the incisal edges of a tooth is called______________?

A: Enamel spindles B: Gnarled enamel C: Incremental lies of woven D: Incremental lines of retzius

Q17 : The duct(s) of gland(s) opening into the floor of the mouth is (are)_______________?

A: Submandibular and sublingual B: submandibular and parotid C: Sublingual and parotid D: Von Ebner

Q18 : All of the following cells of periodontal ligament are of mesenchymal origin except______________?

A: Fibroblasts B: Multi totipotent cells C: Cementoblasts D: Cell rests of malassez

Q19 : Which of the following shows the presence of cholesterol crystals:___________?

A: Keratocyst B: Periodontal cyst C: Aneurysmal cyst D: Hemorrhagic cyst

Q20 : Tooth buds of permanent mandibular incisors are situated_____________?

A: Lingual to primary teeth B: Inferior to primary teeth C: Labial to primary teeth D: A and B

Q21 : Incremental lines of Retzius appear_____________?

A: As lines in the enamel running at right angles to the enamel surface B: As lines in the dentin running at right angles to the dentino-enamel junction C: In enamel and follow the apposition pattern D: In dentin and follow the appositional pattern

Q22 : Bone adjacent to periodontal ligament that contains a great number of sharpey’s fibres is known as______________?

A: Lamina dura B: Bundle bone C: Lamina propria D: Lamina densa

Q23 : calcification in enamel starts at____________?

A: Enamel matrix B: Root C: CEJ D: DEJ

Q24 : The most abundant group of fibres in the PDL are_____________?

A: Trans-septal B: Horizontal C: Oblique D: Apical

Q25 : Mandible develops by______________?

A: Endochondral ossification only B: Membranous ossification only C: Both of the above D: None of the above

Q26 : Butt joint in cementoenamel junctions seen is _________% of cases?

A: 10% B: 30% C: 60% D: 90%

Q27 : Formula of hydroxyapatite crystal is____________?

A: Ca3 (Po4)2 CaCo3 B: 3Ca (Po4)2 Ca(OH)2 C: CaPo4 Ca(OH)2 D: None of the above

Q28 : The cells of the enamel organ which differentiate into future ameloblasts are_____________?

A: Cells of inner enamel epithelium B: Cells of outer enamel epithelium C: Cells of stellate reticulum D: Cells of stratum intermedium

Q29 : A person experiences throbbing pain at night. It is due to:__________?

A: Acute Pulpal degeneration B: Acute Pulpal degeneration C: Chronic pulpitis D: Cellulitis

Q30 : Ameloblasts is______________?

A: Pertaining to dentin B: A tissue from which tooth erupts C: A tumour of the jaw D: Pertaining to dentin

Q31 : Length of enamel rods is_____________?

A: Greater than the thickness of enamel B: Less than the thickness of enamel C: Equal to the thickness of enimal D: None of the above

Q32 : Dentinal tubules are calcified in_______________?

A: Sclerotic dentin B: Primary dentin C: Secondary dentin D: Interglobular dentin

Q33 : Of the total amount of saliva secreted by all the salivary glands, about 60% is secreted by the_____________?

A: Parotid glands B: Sublingual glands C: Submandibular glands D: None of the above

Q34 : Which of the following is wrong?

A: The architecture of type I spongiosa is seen in mandible B: Type II spongiosa is seen in maxilla C: Condylar process & angle in mandible, and tuberosity in maxilla contain hemopoietic cellular marrow D: Bundle bone contains a lesser amounts of calcium salts than other types of bony tissue

Q35 : Insulin facilitates glucose uptake in____________?

A: Kidney tubules B: Red blood cells C: Brain D: Skeletal muscle

Q36 : Partially keratinized papilla is_______________?

A: Fungiform B: Filiform C: Circumvallate D: Foliate

Q37 : The type of fibrous element in enamel is_____________?

A: Tono filament B: Keratin like fibre C: Collagen fibre D: Vimentin filament

Q38 : Enamel pearls are found in_____________?

A: Occlusal surface of premolars B: Furcation areas of permanent molars C: On the incisal edges of incisors D: None of the above

Q39 : The primary cause of acantholysis in pemphigus vulgaris is___________?

A: auto immunity B: Intercellular oedema C: intra epithelial oedema D: chronic alcoholism

Q40 : The maxillary sinus______________?

A: Opens in to the inferior meatus of nose B: Has the 1st molar projecting into its floor C: Is fully developed by the age of 8 years D: Has good drainage in upright position

Q41 : Pericytes are found___________?

A: In thymus B: Around capillaries of pulp C: In gallbladder D: Along with heparin on surface of mast cells

Q42 : The neutralization of saliva is due to______________?

A: Mucin B: Ammonia C: Amino acids D: Bicarbonates

Q43 : Which of the following is correct about enamel crystals ?

A: Same as dentin crystals B: Contains organic portion in the center C: Roughly texagonal in shape D: Their diameter is about 5 microns in size

Q44 : The half-life of plasma Albumin is approximately___________________?

A: 7 days B: 20 days C: 60 days D: 90 days

Q45 : Which of the following is least mineralized ?

A: Cementoid B: Incremental line C: Cellular cementum D: Acellular cementum

Q46 : The odontoblasts killed during cavity preparation are derived from_____________?

A: Unaffected odontoblasts from the pulp B: Undifferentiated cells C: Histocytes D: Osteoblasts

Q47 : Metalloprotienases are used in which stage of the amelogenesis_____________?

A: Organising B: Formative/ Secretory C: Protective D: Desmolytic

Q48 : Osteogenesis imperfecta_____________?

A: In a se*-linked disorder of bones that develop that develop in cartilage B: manifests with blue sclera which are pathognomonic of this diease C: May be associated with deafness D: Has associations with amelogenesis imperfecta

Q49 : Intermediate cemental layer_____________?

A: Does not exhibit features of either dentin of cementum B: Predominantly seen in apical tow thirds of roots of molars and premolars and is rare in incisors or deciduous teeth C: Represents area of entrapment of hertwig’s sheath in dentin or cementum D: All of the above are correct

Q50 : Basement membrane________________?

A: Contains lamina lucida & Lamina dura B: Consists luratihyaline granules C: consists of lamina densa and lamina lucida D: consists of desmosomes and hemi desmosomes

Q51 : The connective tissue of the gingiva is known as the______________?

A: Lamina dura B: Dental cuticle C: Lamina propria D: Fibroblasts

Q52 : Ghon complex of the lung usually____________?

A: Undergoes cavitation B: Undergoes calcification C: Progresses to tuberculous pneumonia D: Progresses to military tuberculosis

Q53 : Unmyelinated nerve fibres of pulp are____________?

A: Sensory in nature B: Respond to hot and cold C: carry pain sensation D: Associated with blood vessels and are sympathetic in nature

Q54 : Hardness of fully mineralized cementum is_____________?

A: Less than dentin B: More than dentin C: Equal dentin D: None of the above

Q55 : Membrane coating granules may_____________?

A: Appear as circular with an amorphous core in keratinized epithelium B: Originate from golgi system C: Packed with tonofilaments D: Helps in adhesion of fully keratinized epithelial cells

Q56 : Pure mucous glands are_____________?

A: Labial and buccal glands B: Glosso palatine & palatine glands C: Vonebners glands D: Lingual glands

Q57 : The disturbances occurred during Calcification stage of tooth development is seen in_____________?

A: Peg laterals B: Microdontia C: Supernumerary tooth D: Interglobular dentin

Q58 : The periodontal ligament_____________?

A: Derives its blood supply primarily from the branches of vessels entering the pulp B: Has a slow rate of turn over C: Contains epithelial cells D: Comprises primarily of type II collagen

Q59 : The average width of enamel rods is______________?

A: 10mm B: 5mm C: 2mm D: 0.5mm

Q60 : Sclerotic dentin has following features_____________?

A: Caries susceptible B: Insensitive C: Hypersensitive D: Resistant to caries

Q61 : The position of mucogingival line____________________?

A: Shifts apically with age B: Shifts coronally with age C: Constant throughout the life D: None of the above

Q62 : One of the following statement is unique about circumpulpal dentine______________?

A: Collagen fibers are oriented perpendicular to DEJ B: Vonkorff fibers are present C: Contain phosphophoryn D: Requires matrix vesicle for mineralization

Q63 : Which of the following is correct?

A: Fibronectin helps in attachment of fibroblasts to collagen B: Cementicles are found in periodontal ligament of order individuals C: The large nerve fibres are myelinated and are concerned with discerment of touch D: The small nerve fibres may or may not be myelinated and are concerned with discrement of pain

Q64 : Dentino enamel junction is_________________?

A: Non-scalloped B: Straight C: Scalloped and the convexities are directed towards dentin D: Scalloped and the convexities are directed towards enamel

Q65 : The incisal edges and the incisal thirds of facial surfaces of mandibular incisors and canines generally oppose lingual surfaces of maxillary incisor and canines _____________?

A: Within the incisor thirds B: At the junction of middle and cervical thirds C: At the linguo cervical ridges D: Immediately incisal to cingulam

Q66 : Matrix vesicles_______________?

A: Are found in mantle dentin B: Contain collagen C: Produce alkaline phosphatase D: Inhibit mineralization

Q67 : The tissue macrophages are derived from the________________?

A: Neutrophil B: Eosinophil C: Monocyte D: All of the above

Q68 : Resorption of dental tissue is caused by_____________?

A: Osteoclasts B: Osteoblasts C: Odontoclasts D: Odontoblasts

Q69 : Movement of tooth to close the intermaxillary gap during eruption is due to____________?

A: Physiological tooth migration B: Active eruption C: Passive eruption D: None of the above

Q70 : Which of the following dentinal layers is more mineralized______________?

A: Peritubular dentin B: Inter tubular dentin C: Dentinal tubules D: Circum pulpal dentin

Q71 : The striking difference between enamel and other mineralized tissues is______________?

A: Presence of high percentage of organic matrix B: Presence of incremental lines C: Enamel has high reparative capacity D: Most of organic component is lost during mineralization

Q72 : If overgrowth of cementum does not improve the functional qualities of cementum, it is termed as_____________?

A: Hyperplasia B: Hypoplasia C: Hypertrophy D: Excementoses

Q73 : The major cells seen in gingiva are______________?

A: Fibro blast B: Odontoblasts C: Cementoblasts D: Merkel cells

Q74 : Secondary cementum is generally confined to_____________?

A: Cervical third of the root B: Middle third of the root C: Apical third of the root D: No secondary cementum forms

Q75 : Articular disc of tmj receives insertion from which muscle______________?

A: Medial pterygoid B: Massetor C: Temporalis D: Lateral pterygoid

Q76 : Weil’s zone of pulp is__________?

A: Cell degenerated zone B: Cell rich zone C: Cell regenerated zone D: cell free zone

Q77 : Moth eaten appearance of of enamel is seen in____________?

A: Odontodysplasia B: Amelogenisis stage C: Desmolytic stage D: Mottled enamel

Q78 : The range of level of fluoride secreted by the glands into the mouth is_____________?

A: 0.004-0.005 ppm B: 0.006-0.007 ppm C: 0.007-0.005 ppm D: 0.007-0.08 ppm

Q79 : The main bulk of dentin is formed by______________?

A: Peritubular dentin B: Mantle dentin C: Inter tubular dentin D: Predentin

Q80 : Atypical or osteodentin is formed due to disturbance during____________?

A: Morphodifferentiation B: Histodifferentiation C: Apposition D: Initiation

Q81 : All of the following is true about dentinal tubules except______________?

A: Inner pulpal layer contains more dentinal tubules than outer dentin layer B: The diameter of dentin tubules ranges from 5 to 7μm C: The diameter of dentinal tubule is more at pulpal layer than outer layer D: The bonding is more on the inner layer of dentin compared to outer surface

Q82 : Basic metabolic unit of bone is_______________?

A: Osteon B: Osteoblast C: Osteocyte D: Osteocyte

Q83 : Protein secreted by odontoblast_____________?

A: Chitin B: Keratin C: Collagen D: Elastin

Q84 : True about osteoclasts_____________?

A: Monocytes are precursor cells of osteoclasts B: The plasma membrane of osteoclasts adjacent to bone that is being resorbed is known as striated or ruffled border C: Contain lysosomes with acid phosphates D: All of the above are true

Q85 : Dehydration of specimen is carried out by____________?

A: By using 10% formalin B: By using liquid or solid Co2 C: By using increasing percentages of alcohol D: By using 5% nitric acid

Q86 : The content of saliva include all except____________?

A: Amylase B: Urea C: Lysoenzyme D: Lipase

Q87 : A purine which is found in saliva is_______________?

A: Uric acid B: Thymine C: Adenosine D: Hypolithinium

Q88 : Shape of enamel rod is______________?

A: Key hole or paddle shaped B: Square C: Round D: None of the above

Q89 : Minor salivary glands are present in the submucosa through out the oral mucosa except for the______________?

A: Gingiva and anterior part of hard palate B: Tongue and soft palate C: Retromolar area and hard palate D: Lip and posterior third of the hard palate

Q90 : All are true regarding the enamel spindles except____________?

A: Produced by ameloblasts B: Found in the region of cusps C: Surrounded by inter prismatic enamel D: Terminate as rounded process

Q91 : Synthesis of enamel matrix proteins occurs in the________________?

A: Outer enamel epithelium B: Ameloblast C: Stratum intermedium D: Stratum granulosum

Q92 : The most accepted theory of tooth eruption is____________?

A: Hydrodynamic theory B: Clone theory C: Periodontal ligament traction theory D: Vascular theory

Q93 : Total volume of saliva secreted by submandibular gland daily is______________?

A: 750 ml B: 450 ml C: 1500 ml D: 1000 ml

Q94 : Sharpey’s fibres are derived from_____________?

A: Hertwig’s root sheath B: Epithelial rests of malassez C: Alveolar bonez D: Dental follicle

Q95 : The type of bone present in the labial area of anterior teeth is_______________?

A: Cortical B: Cancellous C: Osteophytics D: Exophytic

Q96 : Non keratinized epithelium is found over___________?

A: Attached gingiva B: Free gingiva C: Interdental papilla D: Gingival sulcus

Q97 : The fibroblasts associated with capillaries are__________?

A: Plasma cell B: Histocytes C: Lymphocytes D: Pericytes

Q98 : Which of the following is correct?

A: Reparative dentin is characterized by having fewer and more twisted tubules than normal dentin and may include odontoblasts B: Dead tracts appear black in transmitted and white in reflected ligth C: Sclerotic transparent dentin appears transparent or light in transmitted light and dark in reflected light D: All of the above

Q99 : First appearance of tooth formation occurs in____________?

A: 6th week IU B: 2nd week IU C: 9th week IU D: 4th week IU

Q100 : The relationship between the pulpal and periodontal tissue complex begins during dental development at_____________?

A: Adolescent stage B: 5-10 years C: Embryonic stage D: None of the above

Free Oral Histology MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

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