Free Oral Histology MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

Q1 : Which of the following is not true___________?

A: Alveolar bone proper surrounds the root and gives attachment to fibres of periodontal ligament B: supporting alveolar bone surrounds the alveolar bone proper and supports the socket C: The cortical plates are thinner in maxilla than in mandible D: They are thickest in anterior portion of jaw

Q2 : The disturbances occurred during Calcification stage of tooth development is seen in_____________?

A: Peg laterals B: Microdontia C: Supernumerary tooth D: Interglobular dentin

Q3 : The principle central action of caffeine is on the________________?

A: Cerebral cortex B: Corpus callosum C: Hypothalamus D: Spinal cord

Q4 : The most definite feature of a malignant tumour is_____________?

A: Haemorrhage B: Increased mitoses C: Metastasis D: Necrosis

Q5 : Neonatal lines are seen in_______________?

A: Enamel of deciduous incisiors B: Enamel of permanent incisors C: Enamel of premolars D: Dentin of all teeth, as if is formed first

Q6 : Intermediate plexus is absent in which of the following principle fibres_____________?

A: Gingival B: Oblique C: Horizontal D: Transseptal

Q7 : Cellular cementum is____________?

A: Cellular cementum is____________? B: Less calcified than acellular type C: More calcified than acellular type D: Less irregular

Q8 : Functional importance of maxillary sinus is______________?

A: Lightening of skull weight and production of bactericidal lysozyme to the nasal cavity B: Protects the brain against exposure to cold air by arresting air in sinus temporarily C: Resonance of voice and enhancement of faciocranial resistance to mechanical shock D: All of the above

Q9 : Pure mucous glands are_____________?

A: Labial and buccal glands B: Glosso palatine & palatine glands C: Vonebners glands D: Lingual glands

Q10 : Incremental lines of retzius are seen in______________?

A: Enamel B: Dentin C: Cementum D: Pulp

Q11 : Accentuated incremental lines in dentin are______________?

A: Incremental lines of retzius B: Incremental lines of von Ebner C: Contour lines lines of owen D: None of the above

Q12 : Weil’s zone of pulp is__________?

A: Cell degenerated zone B: Cell rich zone C: Cell regenerated zone D: cell free zone

Q13 : Which of the following is true?

A: Cutting cone or resorption tunnel is the area of resorption seen in alveolar bone B: CAMP or cyclic adenosine monophosphate levels are increased on pressure side of bone and this results in bone resorption C: Immature born / embryonic bone seen during fracture healing contains less calcified material and greater number of large osteocytes D: All of the above

Q14 : Ionic exchange between enamel surface and environment______________?

A: Does not take place once enamel surface and invironment B: Stops after 2 years of eruption C: Continues till adult life D: Continues through out life

Q15 : Serous demilunes are seen in______________?

A: Salivary glands B: Pancreas C: Liver D: Gastric glands

Q16 : The anatomic crown is shorter than the clinical crown of a tooth in which of the following instances___________________?

A: Impaction B: Gingivitis C: Occlusal wear D: Gingival recession

Q17 : The intimal B cells of synovical memrbane of temporomandibular joint are_______________?

A: Fibroblast like B: Macrophage like C: Lmphocyte like D: Plasma cell like

Q18 : The deciduous teeth can be differentiated from permanent teeth by_____________?

A: Enamel prismatic arrangement B: Dentinal tubule arrangement C: Primary and secondary dentin D: Mineral content

Q19 : Sialography is used to detect anomaly of_______________?

A: Salivary duct only B: Salivary gland C: Salivary gland & duct D: Salivary gland tumours

Q20 : Any insult to cells in apposition stage result in______________?

A: Hutchinson’s incisor B: Osteodentin formation C: Enamel hypoplasia D: Anodontia

Q21 : The enamel of the posterior teeth is thickest at____________?

A: Cervical third of buccal surface B: Middle third of buccal surface C: Middle third of lingual surface D: Occlusal surface

Q22 : Mirgration of odontoblasts into dentinal tubules occurs during ________________?

A: Cavity preparation B: Dehydration C: Water irrigation D: None of the above

Q23 : After the eruption of crown, reduced enamel is known as_____________?

A: Primary attachment epithelium B: Secondary attachment epithelium C: Primary enamel cuticle D: Reduced enamel epithelium

Q24 : The cementuoenamel junction is approximately at the level at which the root canal becomes_____________?

A: Twisted B: Curved C: Pulp chamber D: Lateral canal

Q25 : Ghon complex of the lung usually____________?

A: Undergoes cavitation B: Undergoes calcification C: Progresses to tuberculous pneumonia D: Progresses to military tuberculosis

Q26 : The class of low molecular weight calcium binding proteins seen predominantly in developing enamel are_____________?

A: Enamelin B: Amelogenin C: Tuftelin D: Ameloplakin

Q27 : Color of the normal gingiva is_____________?

A: Pink B: Red C: Coral pink D: None of the above

Q28 : In mineralization which one of the following is known as Epitaxy ?

A: Booster Mechanism B: Seeding theory C: Alkaline Phosphatase theory D: Cartier/s Adenosine Triphosphate theory

Q29 : The fibroblasts associated with capillaries are__________?

A: Plasma cell B: Histocytes C: Lymphocytes D: Pericytes

Q30 : Tooth buds of permanent mandibular incisors are situated_____________?

A: Lingual to primary teeth B: Inferior to primary teeth C: Labial to primary teeth D: A and B

Q31 : Fibres which continue from bone to ligament are_______________?

A: Sharpey’s fibres B: Tome’s fibres C: Ray’s fibres D: All of the above

Q32 : The type of dentin that is formed prior to root completion______________?

A: Inter tubular dentin B: Peritubular dentin C: Circum pulpal dentin D: Secondary dentin

Q33 : The dental pulp is derived form____________?

A: Dental papilla B: Dental sac C: Odontoblasts D: Stellate reticulum

Q34 : Dendritic cell located in the stratified squamous keratinizing epithelium of the oral cavity include_____________?

A: Keratinocytes B: Mast cells C: Melanocytes D: Myoepithelila cells

Q35 : Synthesis of enamel matrix proteins occurs in the________________?

A: Outer enamel epithelium B: Ameloblast C: Stratum intermedium D: Stratum granulosum

Q36 : Mature bone is otherwise called as______________?

A: woven bone B: Irregular bone C: Lamellar bone D: Resorbing bone

Q37 : Interdependency of osteoblasts and osteoclasts in bone remodeling is called as_____________?

A: Lacunae B: Coupling C: Reversal lines D: Canaliculi

Q38 : Nutritional supply of the ameloblasts during most of their life cycle is from the_____________?

A: Dental pulp B: Odontoblastic processes C: Dental sac D: Reduced dental organ

Q39 : Merkel cells are found in which of the following tissue ______________?

A: Epidermis B: Papillary layer of dermis C: Reticular of dermis D: Hypodermis

Q40 : In which of the following papillae of the tongue are the taste buds predominantly located ?

A: Circumvallate B: Filliform C: Foliate D: Fungiform

Q41 : Epithelium of the inner surface of the gingival sulcus______________?

A: Has no rete pegs B: Has prominent rete pegs C: Is keratinized D: Is para-keratinized

Q42 : Dentino enamel junction is_________________?

A: Non-scalloped B: Straight C: Scalloped and the convexities are directed towards dentin D: Scalloped and the convexities are directed towards enamel

Q43 : Basement membrane________________?

A: Contains lamina lucida & Lamina dura B: Consists luratihyaline granules C: consists of lamina densa and lamina lucida D: consists of desmosomes and hemi desmosomes

Q44 : Trauma or excessive occlusal forces causes_____________?

A: Hyperplasia of cementum B: Hypertrophy of cementum C: Resorption of cementum D: None of the above

Q45 : Specific stain for fat cells is___________?

A: Eosin & haematoxylin B: Carbol fuschin C: Sudan III D: Cresyl violet

Q46 : Which of the following enzymes are involved in bone formation________________?

A: Alkaline phosphatase and urease B: Catalase and phosphorylase C: Alkaline phosphatase and phosphorylase D: Acid phosphatase and catalase

Q47 : Chronic periapical inflammation is usually associated with____________?

A: Ankylosis B: Resorption of cementum C: Hypertrophy of cementum D: Hyperplasia of cementum

Q48 : Pulp tissue contains all except____________?

A: Fibroblasts B: Capillary C: Osteoblasts D: Ameloblasts

Q49 : Which of the following shows the presence of cholesterol crystals:___________?

A: Keratocyst B: Periodontal cyst C: Aneurysmal cyst D: Hemorrhagic cyst

Q50 : Narrowing of periodontal ligament in labially placed mandibular canine with age is due to_____________?

A: Due to deposition of cementum and bone B: Down growths of gingival epithelium C: Gingival cysts formed from cell rests D: Reversal of function of horizontal and oblique fibres

Q51 : Xeroderma pigmentosum is characterized by:___________?

A: Autosomal dominant inheritance B: Inability to repair sunlight induced damage to DNA C: Irregular accemulation of melanin in the basal cell layer D: Acanthosis of epithelium with elongation of rete ridges

Q52 : Which of the following is true?

A: Maxillary sinus communicates with environment through middle meatus and nasal vestibule B: Maxillary sinus is four- sided pyramid C: In most of the cases, the main ostium is present in posterior third of hiatus semilunar D: All of the above

Q53 : The major cells seen in gingiva are______________?

A: Fibro blast B: Odontoblasts C: Cementoblasts D: Merkel cells

Q54 : All of the following cells of periodontal ligament are of mesenchymal origin except______________?

A: Fibroblasts B: Multi totipotent cells C: Cementoblasts D: Cell rests of malassez

Q55 : Organic portion can be separated from the mineral by_____________?

A: Incineration/organic chelation B: Decalcification C: Devitrification D: Combustion

Q56 : The formation of the dental lamina is initiated by______________?

A: Forebrain B: Rathke’s pouch C: Neural crest cells D: Odontoblasts

Q57 : Jacobson’s organ is________________?

A: Auxillary olfactory sense organ B: Ellipsoid/Cigar shaped C: Undergoes degeneration after 4 months of intrauterine life D: All of the above

Q58 : All are diseases of skin except:

A: Erythema multiforme B: Keratosis follicularis C: Erythema migrans D: Psoriasis form lesion

Q59 : Salivary gland stone most commonly involves___________?

A: Submandibular gland B: Parotid gland C: Sub lingual glands D: Lingual glands

Q60 : Which of the following is correct about enamel crystals ?

A: Same as dentin crystals B: Contains organic portion in the center C: Roughly texagonal in shape D: Their diameter is about 5 microns in size

Q61 : Organ of chievity is seen near the______________?

A: Medial surface of the mandible B: Naso palatine foramen C: Mental foramen D: Foramen caecum

Q62 : Long connective tissue papillae and keratinized epithelia are a feature of these parts of oral mucosa____________?

A: gingiva and alveolar mucosa B: Hard palate and gingiva C: Buccal andalveolar mucosa D: Hard and soft palate

Q63 : Hemophilics show_________________?

A: Increased bleeding time and clotting time B: Decreased bleeding time and clotting time C: Decreased bleeding time and increased clotting time D: Normal bleeding time and increased clotting time

Q64 : First appearance of tooth formation occurs in____________?

A: 6th week IU B: 2nd week IU C: 9th week IU D: 4th week IU

Q65 : Articular disc of tmj receives insertion from which muscle______________?

A: Medial pterygoid B: Massetor C: Temporalis D: Lateral pterygoid

Q66 : Moth eaten appearance of of enamel is seen in____________?

A: Odontodysplasia B: Amelogenisis stage C: Desmolytic stage D: Mottled enamel

Q67 : The primary response of the pulp to tissue destruction is_______________?

A: Necrosis B: Ulceration C: Calcific degeneration D: Inflammation

Q68 : Secondary cementum is generally confined to_____________?

A: Cervical third of the root B: Middle third of the root C: Apical third of the root D: No secondary cementum forms

Q69 : A supernumerary tooth results from a deviation during_____________?

A: Initiation B: Differentiation C: Apposition D: Calcification

Q70 : Which of the following anomalies occur during the initiation and proliferation of tooth development ?

A: Amelogenisis imperfecta B: Dentinogenesis imperfecta C: Enamel hypoplasia D: Oligodontia

Q71 : The most accepted theory of tooth eruption is____________?

A: Hydrodynamic theory B: Clone theory C: Periodontal ligament traction theory D: Vascular theory

Q72 : The earliest response of pulpitis is:__________?

A: Cyst formation B: Calcification C: Hyalinization D: Formation of dental granuloma

Q73 : Which of the areas of the tooth is most sensitive during cavity preparation ?

A: Enamel (anterior teeth) B: Enamel (Posterior teeth) C: Dentin D: Dentinoenamel junction

Q74 : In a dried skull, holes on the lingual aspects of the deciduous teeth are called_____________?

A: Volkmann canals B: Canals of Hirchfeld and Zuckerland C: Herversian canals D: Gubernacular canals

Q75 : Propriceptors are seen in all except______________?

A: Skeletal muscle B: TMJ C: Pulp D: None of the above

Q76 : The formation of which of the following does not represent normal physiologiacl process of dentin formation_______________?

A: Primary and secondary dentin B: Secondary dentin and circumpulpal dentin C: Tetiary dentin and sclerotic dentin D: All of the above

Q77 : The most accepted theory for dentin sensitivity is: or Which of the following is the most accepted theory of transmission of dental sensation_____________?

A: Transduction theory B: Direct neural stimulation C: Hydrodynamic theory D: Hydrostatic theory

Q78 : Collagen biosynthesis occurs inside the______________?

A: Chondroblasts B: Odontoblasts C: Osteoblasts D: Fibroblasts

Q79 : Lip furrow band is______________?

A: Vestibular lamina B: Successional lamina C: Dental lamina D: Basal lamina

Q80 : Protein secreted by odontoblast_____________?

A: Chitin B: Keratin C: Collagen D: Elastin

Q81 : All factors govering dentine permeability EXCEPT_______________?

A: Smear layer B: Fluid convection C: Length of dentinal tubules D: Diffusion coefficient

Q82 : Incremental lines of Retzius appear_____________?

A: As lines in the enamel running at right angles to the enamel surface B: As lines in the dentin running at right angles to the dentino-enamel junction C: In enamel and follow the apposition pattern D: In dentin and follow the appositional pattern

Q83 : The primary function of the dental pulp is____________?

A: Nutritive B: Production of dentin C: Production of enamel D: Vascular supply to the teeth

Q84 : A suitable fixative for a routine biopsy specimen is_____________?

A: 10% formalin B: 40% formalin C: 20% formalin D: 10% alcohol

Q85 : Blunt cell processes seen on the developing ameloblasts are celled as________________?

A: Tomes fibres B: Tomes layer C: Tomes processes D: Odontoblastic processes

Q86 : Group of fibres, which resist the masticatory forces___________?

A: Dentogingival B: Transeptal C: Oblique D: Horizontal

Q87 : Reestablishing the former outline of the root surface is_____________?

A: Anatomic repair B: Functional repair C: Physiological repair D: Hyperplasia

Q88 : The half-life of plasma Albumin is approximately___________________?

A: 7 days B: 20 days C: 60 days D: 90 days

Q89 : Length of enamel rods is_____________?

A: Greater than the thickness of enamel B: Less than the thickness of enamel C: Equal to the thickness of enimal D: None of the above

Q90 : The relationship between the pulpal and periodontal tissue complex begins during dental development at_____________?

A: Adolescent stage B: 5-10 years C: Embryonic stage D: None of the above

Q91 : Keratohyaline granules are more evident in_______________?

A: Keratinised B: Non keratinized C: Parakeratinised D: Orthokeratinized

Q92 : Which of the following is true___________?

A: Pulpal pressure is highest among body tissues B: Majority of nerve that enter the pulp are non myelinated and are sympathetic in nature C: Plexus of Rashkow or parietal layers of nerves is formed by network of peripheral axons located adjacent to cell rich zone D: All of the above

Q93 : Which of the following is not an ecto-mesenchymal derivative ?

A: Dentin B: Cementum C: Pulp D: Enamel

Q94 : The key hole, pattern appearance in the cross section is feature of______________?

A: Aprismatic enamel B: Prismatic enamel C: Intertubular dentin D: Intratubular dentin

Q95 : Epithelial attachment is_____________?

A: Attachment of ameloblasts to the tooth B: Microscopically it resembles basal lamina C: Derived from secondary attachment epithelium D: All of the above

Q96 : The dentin receptors are unique because_____________?

A: They elicit pain to hot and cold B: They elicit pain to touch and pressure C: They elicit pain to chemicals D: Elicit only pain as a response

Q97 : The common cause of sudden death in myocardial infarction is____________?

A: Pulmonary embolism B: Arrhythmias C: Congestive heart failure D: None of the above

Q98 : The thickness of prismless enamel in diciduous teeth is______________?

A: 25 μ m B: 50 μ m C: 75 μ m D: 100 μ m

Q99 : The articular cartilage is characterized by all of the following features except_____________?

A: It is devoid of perichondrium B: It has a rich nerve supply C: It is avascular D: It lacks the capacity to regenerate

Q100 : The main causative agent of Ludwig’s angina is:__________?

A: Anaerobic streptococci B: Aerobic streptococci C: Staphylococci D: Legionella infection

Free Oral Histology MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

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