Free Oral Histology MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

Q1 : The component of future T.M.J shows development at _____________?

A: 6 weeks B: 10 weeks C: 18 weeks D: 16 weeks

Q2 : Moth eaten appearance of of enamel is seen in____________?

A: Odontodysplasia B: Amelogenisis stage C: Desmolytic stage D: Mottled enamel

Q3 : Following is derivative of dental lamina____________?

A: Epithelial rests of Malassez B: Enamel pearls C: Rests of serrae D: All of the above

Q4 : High levels of albumin is present in____________?

A: Inner enamel epithelium B: Outer enamel epithelium C: Stellate reticulum D: Stratum intermedium

Q5 : Total volume of saliva secreted by submandibular gland daily is______________?

A: 750 ml B: 450 ml C: 1500 ml D: 1000 ml

Q6 : Cellular cementum is____________?

A: Cellular cementum is____________? B: Less calcified than acellular type C: More calcified than acellular type D: Less irregular

Q7 : The size of apical foramen of maxillary teeth in adult is______________?

A: 0.4 mm B: 0.3 mm C: 0.2 mm D: 0.7 mm

Q8 : Epithelial cells which ultimately keratinize are known as_____________?

A: Keratinizing cells B: Melanocytes C: Non-Keratinizing cells D: Clear cells

Q9 : The muscle which is commonly involved in myofacial pain dysfunction syndrome______________?

A: Lateral ptergoid B: . Massetor C: Temporalis D: Medial pterygoid

Q10 : Resorption of dental tissue is caused by_____________?

A: Osteoclasts B: Osteoblasts C: Odontoclasts D: Odontoblasts

Q11 : Periodontal fibres joining cemental surface of one tooth, to cemental surface of adjacent tooth are called____________?

A: Gingivodental B: Cemental fibres C: Horizontal fibres D: Transseptal fibres

Q12 : In the tongue bitter taste is more perceived at_____________?

A: Tip B: Sides C: Back D: Front

Q13 : Gubernacular canal and gubernacular cord are seen in relation to____________?

A: Permanent teeth B: Deciduous teeth C: Succedaneous teeth D: None of the above

Q14 : Width of PDL is_______________?

A: 0.10 mm B: 0.50 mm C: 0.25 mm D: 0.75 mm

Q15 : The dentin adjacent to the dentinoenamel junction is called the______________?

A: Mantle dentin B: Circumpulpal dentin C: Predentin D: Secondary dentin

Q16 : Incremental lines of retzius are seen in______________?

A: Enamel B: Dentin C: Cementum D: Pulp

Q17 : Which of the following is not a Glycoside ?

A: Digoxin B: Digitoxin C: Ergotoxine D: Gitoxin

Q18 : Non keratinized epithelium is found over___________?

A: Attached gingiva B: Free gingiva C: Interdental papilla D: Gingival sulcus

Q19 : Of the total amount of saliva secreted by all the salivary glands, about 60% is secreted by the_____________?

A: Parotid glands B: Sublingual glands C: Submandibular glands D: None of the above

Q20 : All of the following viruses are capable of causing human cancers except________________?

A: papilloma virus B: Hepatitis B virus C: Epstein Barr virus D: Parvovirus B-19

Q21 : Fibres which continue from bone to ligament are_____________?

A: Sharpey’s fibres B: Tome’s fibres C: Ray’s fibres D: All of the above

Q22 : The radicular pulp is continous with tissues of the periapical area via the____________?

A: Pulp canal B: Pulp chamber C: Mental foramen D: Apical foramen

Q23 : Sclerotic dentin has following features_____________?

A: Caries susceptible B: Insensitive C: Hypersensitive D: Resistant to caries

Q24 : Inter globular dentin results due to_____________?

A: Failure of coalescence of calcospherities B: Fracture of the dentin C: Artifact in light microscopy D: Disturbance in dentinal tubules

Q25 : Adenomatoid odontogenic tumour is characterized histologically by:___________?

A: Polyhedral epithelial cells B: Tubular / duct like cells C: Stellate shaped cells D: Stratified squamous epithelial cells

Q26 :

A: Open faced nucleus in a cell signifies______________? B: That the cell is resting C: that the cell is active D: that the cell is in transition phase

Q27 : Fibres of periodontal ligament embedded in the bone are_____________?

A: Sharpey’s fibres B: Tomes fibres C: Elastic fibres D: Ray’s fibres

Q28 : Sharpey’s fibres are derived from_____________?

A: Hertwig’s root sheath B: Epithelial rests of malassez C: Alveolar bonez D: Dental follicle

Q29 : True about osteoclasts_____________?

A: Monocytes are precursor cells of osteoclasts B: The plasma membrane of osteoclasts adjacent to bone that is being resorbed is known as striated or ruffled border C: Contain lysosomes with acid phosphates D: All of the above are true

Q30 : Regressive changes in pulp include____________?

A: Increased fibrotic component B: Decreased cellular component C: Calcification in blood vessels near apical foramen D: All of the above

Q31 : The primary cause of acantholysis in pemphigus vulgaris is___________?

A: auto immunity B: Intercellular oedema C: intra epithelial oedema D: chronic alcoholism

Q32 : The major cells seen in gingiva are______________?

A: Fibro blast B: Odontoblasts C: Cementoblasts D: Merkel cells

Q33 : Dark bonds that are present in enamel rods at intervals of 4 μms are______________?

A: Neonantal bands B: Cross striations C: Striae of Retzius D: Hunter-Schregar bands

Q34 : Cementum_____________?

A: Is derived from the sheath of hertwig B: Is acellular in the apical third of the tooth C: Often overlaps the enamel D: Does not contain collagen fibres

Q35 : The tooth most commonly involved in chronic focal sclerosing osteomyelitis is:___________?

A: Maxillary second molar B: Maxillary third molar C: Maxillary first molar D: Mandibular first molar

Q36 : Blunt cell processes seen on the developing ameloblasts are celled as________________?

A: Tomes fibres B: Tomes layer C: Tomes processes D: Odontoblastic processes

Q37 : Which of the following structures is not found in a living pulp ?

A: Collagen fibres B: Haversian fibres C: Non-myelinated nerve fibres D: Reticulum

Q38 : The periodontal ligament is approximately_____________?

A: 0.25 mm in thickness B: 0.5 mm in thickness C: 0.75 mm in thickness D: mm in thickness

Q39 : Cementum that forms in conjunction with root end formation and eruption_____________?

A: Cellular cementum B: Acellular cementum C: Both of the above D: None of the above

Q40 : Second arch derivatives are all except_________________?

A: Stapes B: Malleus and incus C: Styloid process D: Superior part of hyoid bone

Q41 : Nitrates are not used in______________?

A: CCF B: Esophageal spasm C: Renal colic D: Cyanide poisoning

Q42 : Basement membrane________________?

A: Contains lamina lucida & Lamina dura B: Consists luratihyaline granules C: consists of lamina densa and lamina lucida D: consists of desmosomes and hemi desmosomes

Q43 : Carmalt’s glands are______________?

A: Major salivary glands B: Minor salivary glands (Retromolar) C: Minor salivary gland ( lingual) D: Taste Buds

Q44 : Oral tissue for microscopic examination is prepared by_______________?

A: Embedded in paraffin and sectioned B: Embedded in paradion and sectioned C: Frozen and sectioned D: All of the above

Q45 : The duct(s) of gland(s) opening into the floor of the mouth is (are)_______________?

A: Submandibular and sublingual B: submandibular and parotid C: Sublingual and parotid D: Von Ebner

Q46 : Which of the following enzymes are involved in bone formation________________?

A: Alkaline phosphatase and urease B: Catalase and phosphorylase C: Alkaline phosphatase and phosphorylase D: Acid phosphatase and catalase

Q47 : The intimal B cells of synovical memrbane of temporomandibular joint are_______________?

A: Fibroblast like B: Macrophage like C: Lmphocyte like D: Plasma cell like

Q48 : Static bone cyst is a cyst developing from______________?

A: Infection of Salivary gland in the mandible B: Tissue of the odontogenic apparatus C: Tissue of the oral mucosa D: None of the above

Q49 : Alveolar bone proper is also known as: or Which of the following is seen as lamina dura in an IOPA radiograph ?

A: Lamina lucida B: Lamina densa C: Lamina propria D: Lamina dura

Q50 : Non acidic, nonionic protein which helps in enamel mineralization _______________?

A: Tuftelin B: Sheathlin C: Enamelin D: Amelogenin

Q51 : The oropharyngeal and oesophageal candidiasis following long-term therapy with a broad spectrum antibiotic can be best treated with____________?

A: Griseofulvin B: Amphotericin C: Fluconazole D: Sulfonates

Q52 : Which of the following statement is true______________?

A: Cementum is thinnest at CEJ (20-50μm) B: Cementum is thickest towards the apex (150-200μm) C: The apical foramen is surrounded by cementum D: All of the above

Q53 : Long connective tissue papillae and keratinized epithelia are a feature of these parts of oral mucosa____________?

A: gingiva and alveolar mucosa B: Hard palate and gingiva C: Buccal andalveolar mucosa D: Hard and soft palate

Q54 : Keratohyaline granules are found in________________?

A: St. granulosum B: St. spinosum C: St. basale D: Prickle cell layer

Q55 : Unmyelinated nerve fibres of pulp are____________?

A: Sensory in nature B: Respond to hot and cold C: carry pain sensation D: Associated with blood vessels and are sympathetic in nature

Q56 : At the cemento enamel junction, which of the following occurs_____________?

A: Cementum meets enamel B: Cementum overlaps enamel C: Cementum does not meet enamel D: All of the above

Q57 : Reestablishing the former outline of the root surface is_____________?

A: Anatomic repair B: Functional repair C: Physiological repair D: Hyperplasia

Q58 : Enamel is laid down______________?

A: Mainly by odontoblasts B: Mainly by ameloblasts C: Only on odontoblasts D: Only by ameloblasts

Q59 : The deciduous teeth can be differentiated from permanent teeth by_____________?

A: Enamel prismatic arrangement B: Dentinal tubule arrangement C: Primary and secondary dentin D: Mineral content

Q60 : Which type of collagen fibers demonstrates Chicken wire configuration ?

A: Type I B: Type II C: Type III D: Type IV

Q61 : Epithelial attachment is derived from____________?

A: Reduced enamel epithelium B: Dental papilla C: Inner enamel epithelium D: Dental sac

Q62 : Formula of hydroxyapatite crystal is____________?

A: Ca3 (Po4)2 CaCo3 B: 3Ca (Po4)2 Ca(OH)2 C: CaPo4 Ca(OH)2 D: None of the above

Q63 : Centre of the disc in TMJ is_____________?

A: Avascular B: Devoid of nervous tissue C: Avascular & deviod of nervous tissue D: None of the above

Q64 : Which of the following statement is false______________?

A: Resorption of roots of deciduous incisors and canines begins on their lingual surfaces B: Resorption of roots of deciduous molars begins on their inner surfaces C: Shedding of deciduous teeth is delayed in the absence of their successor teeth D: None of the above

Q65 : Acellular cementum is typically found in_____________?

A: Coronal half of root B: Apical half of root C: Apex of root D: Entire root

Q66 : The most accepted theory of tooth eruption is____________?

A: Hydrodynamic theory B: Clone theory C: Periodontal ligament traction theory D: Vascular theory

Q67 : The dental pulp contains nerve endings/receptors for____________?

A: Pain B: Pressure C: Proprioception D: Temperature

Q68 : Enamel spindles are formed by______________?

A: Cracks B: Ameloblasts C: Odontoblasts D: Hypocalcified rods

Q69 : Vitality of pulp depends on________________?

A: Blood supply B: Nerve supply C: Nerve supply D: All of the above

Q70 : Periodontal ligament is made up of____________?

A: Type I collagen B: Type I and Type III collagen C: Type I and Type II collagen D: Type I and Type IV collagen

Q71 : The time taken for primary tooth root completion after eruption_____________?

A: 3 years B: 1 years C: 2 years D: 1 month

Q72 : Which of the following is not the principle fibre group of the periodontal ligament___________?

A: Horizontal B: Oblique C: Alveolar crest D: Transseplat

Q73 : Ectodermal cells in tooth bud are responsible for_______________?

A: Determination of shape of crown and root B: Formation of periodontal ligament C: Formation of cementum D: Formation of pulp

Q74 : Stratum granulosum is not present in_____________?

A: Hyper orthokeratosis B: Hyper parakeratosis C: Non keratinized epithelium D: Sulcular epithelium

Q75 : Partially keratinized papilla is_______________?

A: Fungiform B: Filiform C: Circumvallate D: Foliate

Q76 : The calcified mass found in the PDL are_____________?

A: Cementicles B: Osteoblasts C: Cementoclasts D: Osteoclasts

Q77 : In Treacher collin’s syndrome there is________________?

A: Upward sloping of the palpebral fissure B: Poorly developed or absence of malar bones C: Progenia and mandibular prognathism D: No loss of hearing

Q78 : Masticatory mucosa in the oral cavity covers the_______________?

A: Floor of the mouth and soft palate B: Alveolar mucosa and vestibular fornix C: Lip and cheek D: Gingiva and hard palate

Q79 : Wharton’s duct drains the_______________?

A: Pancreas B: Parotid C: Lacrimal gland D: Submandibular gland

Q80 : Interdependency of osteoblasts and osteoclasts in bone remodeling is called as_____________?

A: Lacunae B: Coupling C: Reversal lines D: Canaliculi

Q81 : The enamel has no capacity of self repair because______________?

A: It has only a small percent of organic content B: Its formative cells are lost once it is completely formed C: It is essentially a keratin tissue and has no blood vessels D: It has no direct connection with the active cells of the dental pulp

Q82 : Which of the following is correct_______________?

A: Non-keratinized epithelium is characterized by absence of stratum granulosum and stratum corneum, The surface cells are nucleated B: Parakeratinished epithelium is characterized by superficial cells with pyknotic nuclei and absence of stratum granulosum C: In ortho keratinisation the superficial cells lose their nuclei, but stratum granulosum is present D: All of the above

Q83 : Collagen molecule exhibits all of the following features except_____________?

A: Triple pleated sheath B: Mostly contains glycine residues C: Exhibit cross striations at 64 μm D: Intracellular in nature

Q84 : Membrane coating granules may_____________?

A: Appear as circular with an amorphous core in keratinized epithelium B: Originate from golgi system C: Packed with tonofilaments D: Helps in adhesion of fully keratinized epithelial cells

Q85 : In cap stage, regulating factor for cusp shape formation is present in____________?

A: Dental papilla B: Dental follicle C: Inner enamel epithelium D: Enamel Knot

Q86 : Pericytes are found___________?

A: In thymus B: Around capillaries of pulp C: In gallbladder D: Along with heparin on surface of mast cells

Q87 : Which of the following is wrong?

A: The architecture of type I spongiosa is seen in mandible B: Type II spongiosa is seen in maxilla C: Condylar process & angle in mandible, and tuberosity in maxilla contain hemopoietic cellular marrow D: Bundle bone contains a lesser amounts of calcium salts than other types of bony tissue

Q88 : The formation of the dental lamina is initiated by______________?

A: Forebrain B: Rathke’s pouch C: Neural crest cells D: Odontoblasts

Q89 : Transmission of stimulus across dentin is______________?

A: Direct activation of nerve endings B: Correlated with the innervation density of the dentin C: Stimulus induced fluid flow D: There is no transmission of stimulus across dentin

Q90 : Korffs fibres are seen in______________?

A: Mantle dentin B: Secondary dentin C: Reactionary dentin D: Indeed dermal tubules

Q91 : The type of bone present in the labial area of anterior teeth is_________________?

A: Cortical B: Cancellous C: Osteophytic D: Exophytic

Q92 : Intermediate cementum is___________?

A: Between enamel and cementum B: Found at dentinocemental junction C: Apical third D: Coronal third

Q93 : All are diseases of skin except:

A: Erythema multiforme B: Keratosis follicularis C: Erythema migrans D: Psoriasis form lesion

Q94 : The process of recesses formation in maxillary sinus is most frequently seen with________________?

A: Zygomatic process B: Frontal process C: Alveolar process D: Palatine process

Q95 : The thinnest epithelium of oral cavity is found in the____________?

A: Buccal gingiva B: Lingual gingiva C: Oral surface of lip D: Sublingual mucosa (floor of mouth)

Q96 : In a dried skull, holes on the lingual aspects of the deciduous teeth are called_____________?

A: Volkmann canals B: Canals of Hirchfeld and Zuckerland C: Herversian canals D: Gubernacular canals

Q97 : Serous demilunes are seen in______________?

A: Salivary glands B: Pancreas C: Liver D: Gastric glands

Q98 : The shallow furrows on the enamel surface, where stria of Retzius end are known as _______________ ?

A: Cracks B: Pellicle C: perikymata D: Enamel lamellae

Q99 : The anatomic crown is shorter than the clinical crown of a tooth in which of the following instances___________________?

A: Impaction B: Gingivitis C: Occlusal wear D: Gingival recession

Q100 : Chronological hypoplasia is_____________?

A: Hypoplasia of local origin B: Hypoplasia of systemic origin C: Hypoplasia of hereditary origin D: None of the above

Free Oral Histology MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

Time to prove what you know!

LAT Test

GAT Test

Contact Info

Free Oral Histology MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

Subscribe our Newsletter

LAT Test

GAT Test

Contact Info