Free Oral Histology MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

Q1 : Pulp responds to all stimuli by pain because it has only_______________?

A: Free nerve endings B: Krause end bulbs C: Pacinian corpuscle D: Ruffini corpuscle

Q2 : The duct(s) of gland(s) opening into the floor of the mouth is (are)_______________?

A: Submandibular and sublingual B: submandibular and parotid C: Sublingual and parotid D: Von Ebner

Q3 : The primary function of the dental pulp is____________?

A: Nutritive B: Production of dentin C: Production of enamel D: Vascular supply to the teeth

Q4 : Which of the following groups of fibres are not attached to alveolar bone ?

A: Transseptal B: Horizontal C: Oblique D: Oblique

Q5 : Hertwig’s epithelial root sheath is made up of_______________?

A: Outer and inner enamel epithelium B: Stratum intermedium C: Stellate reticulum D: Hyaline layer of Hopewell-smill

Q6 : Enamel rods at the cervical area at the occlusal edge and incisal lip in permanent teeth are______________?

A: Straight B: Shallow C: Bent D: Curved

Q7 : Which of the following is correct?

A: Roof of mandible contains thin, compact bone B: Articular tubercle is composed of spongy bone covered with thin compact bone C: Condyle contains red bone marrow D: All of the above

Q8 : The cells, which are responsible for removal of bone matrix in bone resorption, are_____________?

A: Osteoblast B: Fibrocytes C: Polymorphs D: Osteoclasts

Q9 : The formative cells of which of the following dental tissues disappear once tissue is formed___________?

A: Enamel B: Dentin C: Periodontal ligament D: Cementum

Q10 : Cells occurring in greatest number in pulp are______________?

A: Cementoblasts B: Fibroblasts C: Osteoblasts D: Ameloblasts

Q11 : Cementum formation is seen_______________?

A: After dentin formation B: Before dentin formation C: Both are formed at same time D: None of the above

Q12 : Which of the following statements about sjogren’s syndrome is incorrect______________?

A: MRI shows salt and pepper appearance B: Lacrimal gland enlargement is common C: Minor salivary gland biopsy is diagnostic test D: Pilocarpine is the most useful and convenient drug in its treatment

Q13 : Which of the following structures is not found in a living pulp ?

A: Collagen fibres B: Haversian fibres C: Non-myelinated nerve fibres D: Reticulum

Q14 : The vermilion border requires frequent moistening because_____________?

A: It contains more No. of sweat glands B: It contains more do. of sebaceous glands C: It contains less number of sebaceous glands D: It contains less number of sweat glands

Q15 : When osteoblast lay new bone from outside to inside in a osteon, the active formation area is called________________?

A: Haversion cone B: Filling cone C: Cutting cone D: Howships cone

Q16 : perikymata are the external surface manifestations of_____________?

A: Enamel rods B: Incremental lines of retzius C: Nasmyth’s membrane D: Pellicle

Q17 : The total volumes of all permanent pulp organ______________?

A: 0.38 cc B: 0.58 cc C: 0.02 cc D: 3.8 cc

Q18 : Ratio of diameter of enamel rods in the DEJ to the enamel surface is______________?

A: 1:4 B: 1:1 C: 1:2 D: 2:1

Q19 : Neonatal line is also referred to as______________?

A: Retzius line B: Line of cross striations C: Incremental lines D: Line of enamel tufts

Q20 : Cementicles are found in the_____________?

A: Gingiva B: Periodontal ligament C: Alveolar bone D: Cementum

Q21 : The common cause of sudden death in myocardial infarction is____________?

A: Pulmonary embolism B: Arrhythmias C: Congestive heart failure D: None of the above

Q22 : The class of low molecular weight calcium binding proteins seen predominantly in developing enamel are_____________?

A: Enamelin B: Amelogenin C: Tuftelin D: Ameloplakin

Q23 : Mature bone is otherwise called as______________?

A: woven bone B: Irregular bone C: Lamellar bone D: Resorbing bone

Q24 : 1st formed dental tissue______________?

A: Enamel B: Dentin C: Cementum D: Bone

Q25 : Outer and inner enamel epithelium first seen in____________?

A: Bud stage B: Advanced bell stage C: Cap stage D: Bell stage

Q26 : The tooth present close to maxillary sinus is_________________?

A: 1st molar B: 2nd premolar C: 1st premolar D: 2nd molar

Q27 : Which of the following is correct_______________?

A: Non-keratinized epithelium is characterized by absence of stratum granulosum and stratum corneum, The surface cells are nucleated B: Parakeratinished epithelium is characterized by superficial cells with pyknotic nuclei and absence of stratum granulosum C: In ortho keratinisation the superficial cells lose their nuclei, but stratum granulosum is present D: All of the above

Q28 : Color of the normal gingiva is_____________?

A: Pink B: Red C: Coral pink D: None of the above

Q29 : Collagen molecule exhibits all of the following features except_____________?

A: Triple pleated sheath B: Mostly contains glycine residues C: Exhibit cross striations at 64 μm D: Intracellular in nature

Q30 : The type of epithelium lining maxillary sinus is_______________?

A: Simple columnar B: Pseudo stratified columnar and cilliated C: Stratified squamous D: Simple squamous

Q31 : Sclerotic dentin has following features_____________?

A: Caries susceptible B: Insensitive C: Hypersensitive D: Resistant to caries

Q32 : The shallow furrows on the enamel surface, where stria of Retzius end are known as _______________ ?

A: Cracks B: Pellicle C: perikymata D: Enamel lamellae

Q33 : Histologically the dental pulp most closely resembles______________?

A: Nerve tissue B: Vascular tissue C: Granulation tissue D: Loose connective tissue

Q34 : Which of the following statement is correct?

A: Enamel cannot form in absence of dentin B: The formation of enamel and dentin are independent of each other C: Enamel formation can occur in absence of dentin D: None of the above

Q35 : Blunt cell processes seen on the developing ameloblasts are celled as________________?

A: Tomes fibres B: Tomes layer C: Tomes processes D: Odontoblastic processes

Q36 : On microscopic examination enamel rods have___________?

A: Key hole appearance in cross section B: Paddle appearance in cross section C: Lanullate appearance in cross-section D: None of the above

Q37 : The hertwig’s epithelial root shealth is essential to development of the root because it_______________?

A: Gives rise to cementoblasts that produce cementum of the root B: Moulds the shape of roots and stimulates differentiation of odontoblasts C: Given rise to odontoblasts that lay down dentin of the root D: Remians as an essential constituents of the periodontal ligament

Q38 : Propriceptors are seen in all except______________?

A: Skeletal muscle B: TMJ C: Pulp D: None of the above

Q39 : joint erosions are not a feature of:____________?

A: Rhematoid arthritis B: Psoriasis C: Multicentric reticulohisticytosis D: Systemis lupus eythematosus

Q40 : Dystrophic calcifiaction is seen most commonly in which of the following oral tissues__________?

A: Enamel B: Pulp C: Dentin D: Periodontal ligament

Q41 : The first sign of future deciduous teeth as a thickening of oral ectoderm appears at about_____________?

A: 25th day of Intra uterine life B: 34th day of Intra uterine life C: 56th day of Intra uterine life D: 20 wks of Intra uterine life

Q42 : The disturbances occurred during Calcification stage of tooth development is seen in_____________?

A: Peg laterals B: Microdontia C: Supernumerary tooth D: Interglobular dentin

Q43 : The diameter of the rod is______________?

A: 4 μ m B: 9 μ m C: 7 μ m D: 2 μ m

Q44 : The size of apical foramen of maxillary teeth in adult is______________?

A: 0.4 mm B: 0.3 mm C: 0.2 mm D: 0.7 mm

Q45 : Width of the periodontal ligament is least at______________?

A: Cervical third B: Cervical third C: Fulcrum of rotation D: It has uniform width

Q46 : Teeth with out antagonist if erupt is called____________?

A: Stable B: Over erupted C: Supra erupted D: Submerged

Q47 : Which of the following is true______________?

A: The uncalcified matrix of cementum is called cementoid B: Cementum contain type I collagen predominantly C: Cementodentinal junction is sometimes scallopes in deciduous teeth and smooth in permanent teeth D: All of the above

Q48 : In cap stage, regulating factor for cusp shape formation is present in____________?

A: Dental papilla B: Dental follicle C: Inner enamel epithelium D: Enamel Knot

Q49 : Cementum that forms in conjunction with root end formation and eruption_____________?

A: Cellular cementum B: Acellular cementum C: Both of the above D: None of the above

Q50 : Which of the following is not an ecto-mesenchymal derivative ?

A: Dentin B: Cementum C: Pulp D: Enamel

Q51 : The maxillary sinus______________?

A: Opens in to the inferior meatus of nose B: Has the 1st molar projecting into its floor C: Is fully developed by the age of 8 years D: Has good drainage in upright position

Q52 : Functional importance of maxillary sinus is______________?

A: Lightening of skull weight and production of bactericidal lysozyme to the nasal cavity B: Protects the brain against exposure to cold air by arresting air in sinus temporarily C: Resonance of voice and enhancement of faciocranial resistance to mechanical shock D: All of the above

Q53 : Main function of salivary duct is_______________?

A: To convey the saliva secreted by the terminal secretory units to oral cavity B: . Antibacterial action by secreting lysoenzymes and lactoferrin C: Synthesis of secretory glycoproteins by Kallidrein an enzyme in striated duct cells D: None of the above

Q54 : If a child’s teeth do not form, this would primarily effect the growth of the_____________?

A: Basal bone B: Whole face C: Mandible D: Alveolar bone

Q55 : In mammals independent and tough suspension for teeth is provided by____________?

A: Alveolar sockets B: Cementum C: Gubernacular cords D: Periodontal membrane

Q56 : Hammock ligament is present_______________?

A: Between temporal and sphenoid bone B: Between hamular notch and mandible C: In apical area of a tooth D: As a part of deep cervical fascia

Q57 : The small ridges, perikymata, seen on facial surfaces of canines are the result of_____________?

A: Hyperplasia B: Hypoplacification C: Normal development D: Interstitial development

Q58 : The principle central action of caffeine is on the________________?

A: Cerebral cortex B: Corpus callosum C: Hypothalamus D: Spinal cord

Q59 : Chronic hyperplastic pulpitis is:__________?

A: Necrotizing B: Suppurative lesion C: proliferation of a chronically inflamed pulp D: Also called as phoenix abscess

Q60 : The average width of enamel rods is______________?

A: 10mm B: 5mm C: 2mm D: 0.5mm

Q61 : narled enamel is seen in_____________?

A: Proximal surface of tooth B: Cervical region of tooth C: Cusp tips of tooth D: All of the above

Q62 : The microhardness of dentin is about____________?

A: 1/2 that of enamel B: 1/7 that of enamel C: 1/4 that of enamel D: 1/5 that of enamel

Q63 : The type of fibrous element in enamel is_____________?

A: Tono filament B: Keratin like fibre C: Collagen fibre D: Vimentin filament

Q64 : Dentinal tubules are______________?

A: Concave B: Straight C: S0shaped D: None of the above

Q65 : https://pakmcqs.com/medical-mcqs/oral-histology/age-changes-in-periodeontal-ligament-include-which-of-the-following

A: Increased fibroplasia B: Increased vascularity C: Increased thickness D: Decreased in number of cementicles

Q66 : The vascular supply of the periodontal ligament is______________?

A: Greatest in the middle-third of a single rotted tooth B: Greatest in the middle-third of a multirooted tooth C: A net like plexus that runs closer to the cementum than to the bone D: A net like plexus that runs closer to the bone than to the cementum

Q67 : Saliva is secreted by____________?

A: Major salivary glands B: Minor salivary glands C: Major & minor salivary glands D: Parotid gland

Q68 : Neonatal lines are found in all of the following except____________?

A: Enamel of primary incisors B: Enamel of permanent canines C: Enamel and dentin of permanent first molars D: Dentin of permanent mandibular incisors

Q69 : Enamel is laid down______________?

A: Mainly by odontoblasts B: Mainly by ameloblasts C: Only on odontoblasts D: Only by ameloblasts

Q70 : Accentuated incremental lines in dentin due to disturbances in matrix and mineralization process is_____________?

A: Incremental lines of retzius B: Incremental lines of vonebner C: Contour lines of owen D: None of the above

Q71 : The number of pulp organs in a person in___________?

A: 32 B: 50 C: 52 D: 62

Q72 : If overgrowth of cementum does not improve the functional qualities of cementum, it is termed as_____________?

A: Hyperplasia B: Hypoplasia C: Hypertrophy D: Excementoses

Q73 : The red zones of lips have_____________?

A: 30% Sebaceous glands B: 75% sebaceous glands C: very small number of sebaceous glands, if any D: Absolutely no sebaceous glands

Q74 : Which of the following penicillins can be given by IV route ?

A: Benzathine B: Procaine C: Crystalline D: Benzathamine

Q75 : Development of supporting tissues of the tooth is initiated by____________?

A: Cells of dental follicle B: Cells of odontogenic layer C: Cementoblasts D: Cells of the gingiva

Q76 : The neutralization of saliva is due to______________?

A: Mucin B: Ammonia C: Amino acids D: Bicarbonates

Q77 : Which of the following factors are primarily contributory to the shedding of deciduous tooth ?

A: Hydrostatic B: Vascular pressure C: Oncotic pressure D: Masticatory pressure

Q78 : All of the following are true about functions of dental pulp except______________?

A: Formation of dentin B: Nerve supply to dentin C: Sends impulses to CNS D: Nerve supply to enamel through fibres

Q79 : High levels of albumin is present in____________?

A: Inner enamel epithelium B: Outer enamel epithelium C: Stellate reticulum D: Stratum intermedium

Q80 : Cyst arising from dental lamina:___________________?

A: Radicular cyst B: Paradental cyst C: Eruption cyst D: Glandular odontogenic cyst

Q81 : The condyle of mandible is composed of____________________?

A: Compact bone B: Cancellous bone C: Cancellous bone covered by thin layer of compact bone D: Compact bone covered by cancellous bone

Q82 : Biomechanism that unites the epithelium to the tooth surface is_____________?

A: Internal basal lamina B: Junctional epithelium C: Reduced enamel epithelium D: Epithelial attachment

Q83 : Dentinal tubules are calcified in_______________?

A: Sclerotic dentin B: Primary dentin C: Secondary dentin D: Interglobular dentin

Q84 : The region in which cementum formation is most rapid is_____________?

A: Middle B: Coronal C: Apical D: Interradicular

Q85 : The common site for narcotizing sialometaplasia____________?

A: cheeks B: dorsum of tongue C: palate D: palate

Q86 : Membrana performative is seen in_________________?

A: Bell stage B: Cap stage C: Bud stage D: Advanced bell stage

Q87 : Korffs fibres are seen in______________?

A: Mantle dentin B: Secondary dentin C: Reactionary dentin D: Indeed dermal tubules

Q88 : The mucous membrane of cheeks and lips_____________?

A: It attached to buccinator muscle in cheeks B: It attached to orbicularis oris in lips C: A & B are correct D: None of the above

Q89 : The most accepted theory for dentin sensitivity is: or Which of the following is the most accepted theory of transmission of dental sensation_____________?

A: Transduction theory B: Direct neural stimulation C: Hydrodynamic theory D: Hydrostatic theory

Q90 : The anatomic crown is shorter than the clinical crown of a tooth in which of the following instances___________________?

A: Impaction B: Gingivitis C: Occlusal wear D: Gingival recession

Q91 : True about osteoclasts_____________?

A: Monocytes are precursor cells of osteoclasts B: The plasma membrane of osteoclasts adjacent to bone that is being resorbed is known as striated or ruffled border C: Contain lysosomes with acid phosphates D: All of the above are true

Q92 : Neonatal lines are seen in_______________?

A: Enamel of deciduous incisiors B: Enamel of permanent incisors C: Enamel of premolars D: Dentin of all teeth, as if is formed first

Q93 : Trauma or excessive occlusal forces causes_____________?

A: Hyperplasia of cementum B: Hypertrophy of cementum C: Resorption of cementum D: None of the above

Q94 : Accessory canals result from____________?

A: Defects in cementogenesis B: Dividing epithelial bridges C: Break in Hertwig’s root sheath D: Adherent epithelial rests

Q95 : Morphological stages of tooth development are explained based on_____________?

A: Shape of enamel organ B: Shape of tooth germ C: Function of enamel organ D: Shape of dental papilla

Q96 : Enamel tufts are_______________?

A: Thin tuft like structure extending from enamel surface of dentin enamel junction B: Tuft like structure arising from dentin-enamel junction towards enamel surface C: Odontoblastic processes extending into enamel D: None of the above

Q97 : Dentinogenesis by odontoblasts first begins at_____________?

A: Pulpal end B: Tooth bud stage C: Tooth bud stage D: Cervical area

Q98 : Aging process affects pulp tissue by_____________?

A: Decreasing the size and shape of pulp tissue and cellular component B: Increase cellular component at the expenses of fibre component C: Increases vascularity of the pulp D: Decrease the calcific component of the pulp

Q99 : Oral tissue for microscopic examination is prepared by_______________?

A: Embedded in paraffin and sectioned B: Embedded in paradion and sectioned C: Frozen and sectioned D: All of the above

Q100 : The components of future TMJ shows development at_____________?

A: 6 weeks B: 18 weeks C: 10 weeks D: 16 weeks

Free Oral Histology MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

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