Free Oral Histology MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

Q1 : Vonebilers glands open into which papilla_____________?

A: Foliate B: Filiform C: Circumvallate D: Fungiform

Q2 : The cell free zone in pulp lies____________?

A: Above odontoblast B: Below odontoblast C: In radicular pulp D: In pulp horn

Q3 : Psoriasis is associated with:____________?

A: Geographic tongue B: Benign median rhomboid glossitis C: Lupus erythematosus D: Lupus erythematosus

Q4 : Interdependency of osteoblasts and osteoclasts in bone remodeling is called as_____________?

A: Lacunae B: Coupling C: Reversal lines D: Canaliculi

Q5 : Enamel spindles are formed by______________?

A: Cracks B: Ameloblasts C: Odontoblasts D: Hypocalcified rods

Q6 : Synthesis of enamel matrix proteins occurs in the________________?

A: Outer enamel epithelium B: Ameloblast C: Stratum intermedium D: Stratum granulosum

Q7 : The only sugar normally absorbed in the intestine against a concentration gradient is_____________?

A: Xylose B: Mannose C: Glucose D: Galactose

Q8 : Teeth with out antagonist if erupt is called____________?

A: Stable B: Over erupted C: Supra erupted D: Submerged

Q9 : One of the following statement is unique about circumpulpal dentine______________?

A: Collagen fibers are oriented perpendicular to DEJ B: Vonkorff fibers are present C: Contain phosphophoryn D: Requires matrix vesicle for mineralization

Q10 : Which of the following penicillins can be given by IV route ?

A: Benzathine B: Procaine C: Crystalline D: Benzathamine

Q11 : The range of level of fluoride secreted by the glands into the mouth is_____________?

A: 0.004-0.005 ppm B: 0.006-0.007 ppm C: 0.007-0.005 ppm D: 0.007-0.08 ppm

Q12 : The periodontal ligament_____________?

A: Derives its blood supply primarily from the branches of vessels entering the pulp B: Has a slow rate of turn over C: Contains epithelial cells D: Comprises primarily of type II collagen

Q13 : The successors of deciduous teeth develops form_______________?

A: Successional lamina B: Dental lamina C: Stellate reticulum D: Neutral ectodermal cells

Q14 : Histologically the dental pulp most closely resembles______________?

A: Nerve tissue B: Vascular tissue C: Granulation tissue D: Loose connective tissue

Q15 : All of the following viruses are capable of causing human cancers except________________?

A: papilloma virus B: Hepatitis B virus C: Epstein Barr virus D: Parvovirus B-19

Q16 : Enamel rods at the cervical area at the occlusal edge and incisal lip in permanent teeth are______________?

A: Straight B: Shallow C: Bent D: Curved

Q17 : Epithelial cells which ultimately keratinize are known as_____________?

A: Keratinizing cells B: Melanocytes C: Non-Keratinizing cells D: Clear cells

Q18 : The anatomic crown is shorter than the clinical crown of a tooth in which of the following instances___________________?

A: Impaction B: Gingivitis C: Occlusal wear D: Gingival recession

Q19 : Maxillary sinus is described as a four sided pyramid containing base, apex, roof and floor. The apex of maxillary sinus extends________________?

A: Laterally into zygomatics process of maxilla B: Medially into zygomatic process of maxilla C: Laterally into lateral nasal wall D: Superiorly into floor of orbit

Q20 : Basic metabolic unit of bone is_______________?

A: Osteon B: Osteoblast C: Osteocyte D: Osteocyte

Q21 : Bulk of lamina propria of the gingiva is made of collagen type_______________?

A: I B: II C: III D: IV

Q22 : Difference between the skin and mucosa of cheek is_______________?

A: Thin lamina and non keratinized mucosa of cheek B: Keratinized mucosa of cheek C: Rete pegs D: Thick lamina propria on skin of cheek

Q23 : The dental pulp is derived form____________?

A: Dental papilla B: Dental sac C: Odontoblasts D: Stellate reticulum

Q24 : Alveolar bone proper is also known as: or Which of the following is seen as lamina dura in an IOPA radiograph ?

A: Lamina lucida B: Lamina densa C: Lamina propria D: Lamina dura

Q25 : Tooth buds of permanent mandibular incisors are situated_____________?

A: Lingual to primary teeth B: Inferior to primary teeth C: Labial to primary teeth D: A and B

Q26 : A special feature of the periodontal ligament fibroblasts is______________?

A: The number or organelles B: Presence of actin fibres and shape change C: size of the cells D: Collagen fibre formation

Q27 : Role of meckel’s cartilage in development of mandible__________________?

A: It has a major role B: It has a minor role C: It does not have any role D: None of the above

Q28 : Collagen biosynthesis occurs inside the______________?

A: Chondroblasts B: Odontoblasts C: Osteoblasts D: Fibroblasts

Q29 : The earliest response of pulpitis is:__________?

A: Cyst formation B: Calcification C: Hyalinization D: Formation of dental granuloma

Q30 : In considering the process of eruption, the pre-functional eruptive stage of a tooth begins when the_____________

A: . Bud stage begins B: Cap stage begins C: Bell stage begins D: Dental lamina begins forming

Q31 : Which of the following is correct?

A: Roof of mandible contains thin, compact bone B: Articular tubercle is composed of spongy bone covered with thin compact bone C: Condyle contains red bone marrow D: All of the above

Q32 : The region in which cementum formation is most rapid is_____________?

A: Middle B: Coronal C: Apical D: Interradicular

Q33 : The intimal B cells of synovical memrbane of temporomandibular joint are_______________?

A: Fibroblast like B: Macrophage like C: Lmphocyte like D: Plasma cell like

Q34 : The striking difference between enamel and other mineralized tissues is______________?

A: Presence of high percentage of organic matrix B: Presence of incremental lines C: Enamel has high reparative capacity D: Most of organic component is lost during mineralization

Q35 : Formation of dentin by odontoblasts begins in_______________?

A: Morphogenic stage B: Organizing stage C: Desmolytic stage D: Formative stage

Q36 : Which of the following is least mineralized ?

A: Cementoid B: Incremental line C: Cellular cementum D: Acellular cementum

Q37 : The type of tertiary dentin which contains cellular inclusions is found in_____________?

A: Sclerotic dentin B: Mantle dentin C: Predentin D: Osteodentin

Q38 : Bundle bone is part of____________?

A: Periodontal ligament B: Alveolar bone C: Cementum D: Longbones

Q39 : In the tongue bitter taste is more perceived at_____________?

A: Tip B: Sides C: Back D: Front

Q40 : The main causative agent of Ludwig’s angina is:__________?

A: Anaerobic streptococci B: Aerobic streptococci C: Staphylococci D: Legionella infection

Q41 : The organic lining of the calcified dentinal tubules is known as_______________?

A: Lamina propria B: Lamina lucida C: Lamina limitans D: Lamina densa

Q42 : Masticatory mucosa in the oral cavity covers the_______________?

A: Floor of the mouth and soft palate B: Alveolar mucosa and vestibular fornix C: Lip and cheek D: Gingiva and hard palate

Q43 : All are diseases of skin except:

A: Erythema multiforme B: Keratosis follicularis C: Erythema migrans D: Psoriasis form lesion

Q44 : https://pakmcqs.com/medical-mcqs/oral-histology/age-changes-in-periodeontal-ligament-include-which-of-the-following

A: Increased fibroplasia B: Increased vascularity C: Increased thickness D: Decreased in number of cementicles

Q45 : The shallow furrows on the enamel surface, where stria of Retzius end are known as _______________ ?

A: Cracks B: Pellicle C: perikymata D: Enamel lamellae

Q46 : Which of the following tissues have no reparative capacity______________?

A: Enamel B: Dentin C: Cementum D: Periodontal ligament

Q47 : Bone at forming stage has_________________?

A: Osteoclasts, osteoblasts, osteoid B: Odontoblasts & megakaryocyte C: Megakaryocytes, osteoblasts, osteoclasts D: None of the above

Q48 : Nutritional supply of the ameloblasts during most of their life cycle is from the_____________?

A: Dental pulp B: Odontoblastic processes C: Dental sac D: Reduced dental organ

Q49 : Temporary structures in enamel organ are (before enamel formation) ?

A: Enamel knot Enamel cord B: Enamel cord C: Both A and B D: Enamel Cuticle

Q50 : At the cemento enamel junction, which of the following occurs_____________?

A: Cementum meets enamel B: Cementum overlaps enamel C: Cementum does not meet enamel D: All of the above

Q51 : Dendritic cell located in the stratified squamous keratinizing epithelium of the oral cavity include_____________?

A: Keratinocytes B: Mast cells C: Melanocytes D: Myoepithelila cells

Q52 : Osteoblasts appear basic gram staining due to______________?

A: Increased ribonucleic acid B: Acidic ground substance C: Increased mitochondria D: Presence of basic ground substance

Q53 : Which of the following is correct?

A: Reparative dentin is characterized by having fewer and more twisted tubules than normal dentin and may include odontoblasts B: Dead tracts appear black in transmitted and white in reflected ligth C: Sclerotic transparent dentin appears transparent or light in transmitted light and dark in reflected light D: All of the above

Q54 : Which of the following is a rare occurrence______________?

A: Enamel meet cementum at a point B: Enamel overlaps cementum C: Cementum overlaps enamel D: Both never meet

Q55 : Which of the following statements about sjogren’s syndrome is incorrect______________?

A: MRI shows salt and pepper appearance B: Lacrimal gland enlargement is common C: Minor salivary gland biopsy is diagnostic test D: Pilocarpine is the most useful and convenient drug in its treatment

Q56 : Acellular cementum is typically found in_____________?

A: Coronal half of root B: Apical half of root C: Apex of root D: Entire root

Q57 : The periodontal ligament is approximately_____________?

A: 0.25 mm in thickness B: 0.5 mm in thickness C: 0.75 mm in thickness D: mm in thickness

Q58 : All of the following is true about dentinal tubules except______________?

A: Inner pulpal layer contains more dentinal tubules than outer dentin layer B: The diameter of dentin tubules ranges from 5 to 7μm C: The diameter of dentinal tubule is more at pulpal layer than outer layer D: The bonding is more on the inner layer of dentin compared to outer surface

Q59 : Which of the following is not correct ?

A: In case of pituitary gigantis, all sinuses assume a larger volume than normal B: In chronic infections, the pain may mimic neuralgia of dental origin C: Malignant lesions of maxillary sinus produce their manifestations in maxillary teeth D: None of the above

Q60 : Which of the following is true___________?

A: Pulpal pressure is highest among body tissues B: Majority of nerve that enter the pulp are non myelinated and are sympathetic in nature C: Plexus of Rashkow or parietal layers of nerves is formed by network of peripheral axons located adjacent to cell rich zone D: All of the above

Q61 : Blunt cell processes seen on the developing ameloblasts are celled as________________?

A: Tomes fibres B: Tomes layer C: Tomes processes D: Odontoblastic processes

Q62 : After the eruption of crown, reduced enamel is known as_____________?

A: Primary attachment epithelium B: Secondary attachment epithelium C: Primary enamel cuticle D: Reduced enamel epithelium

Q63 : T- lymphocytes function to______________?

A: Antibody production B: Antibody production C: Lymphokine production and delayed hypersensitivity D: Immediate hypersensitivity

Q64 : Hemophilics show_________________?

A: Increased bleeding time and clotting time B: Decreased bleeding time and clotting time C: Decreased bleeding time and increased clotting time D: Normal bleeding time and increased clotting time

Q65 : Which of the following has immune function in the oral mucous membrane_______________?

A: Melanocyte B: Merkel cells C: Langerhan cell D: Keratinocyte

Q66 : An enzyme present in saliva which causes cell wall lysis____________?

A: Lysozhyme B: Peroxidase C: Lactoferin D: Hyaluronidase

Q67 : The tooth present close to maxillary sinus is_________________?

A: 1st molar B: 2nd premolar C: 1st premolar D: 2nd molar

Q68 : The odontoblasts killed during cavity preparation are derived from_____________?

A: Unaffected odontoblasts from the pulp B: Undifferentiated cells C: Histocytes D: Osteoblasts

Q69 : Biomechanism that unites the epithelium to the tooth surface is_____________?

A: Internal basal lamina B: Junctional epithelium C: Reduced enamel epithelium D: Epithelial attachment

Q70 : The half-life of plasma Albumin is approximately___________________?

A: 7 days B: 20 days C: 60 days D: 90 days

Q71 : Outer and inner enamel epithelium first seen in____________?

A: Bud stage B: Advanced bell stage C: Cap stage D: Bell stage

Q72 : Masticatory mucosa is____________?

A: Para keratinised B: Ortho keratinised C: Non keratinised D: Sub keratinised

Q73 : Size of pulp chamber____________?

A: Increases with age B: Decreases with age C: Increased in some cases and decreases in some cases D: None of the above

Q74 : Basement membrane________________?

A: Contains lamina lucida & Lamina dura B: Consists luratihyaline granules C: consists of lamina densa and lamina lucida D: consists of desmosomes and hemi desmosomes

Q75 : A purine which is found in saliva is_______________?

A: Uric acid B: Thymine C: Adenosine D: Hypolithinium

Q76 : The main function of horizontal fibres of P.D ligament is____________?

A: Prevent extrusion B: Prevent rotation C: Maintains the mesiodistal width D: All of the above

Q77 : Which of the following is wrong?

A: The architecture of type I spongiosa is seen in mandible B: Type II spongiosa is seen in maxilla C: Condylar process & angle in mandible, and tuberosity in maxilla contain hemopoietic cellular marrow D: Bundle bone contains a lesser amounts of calcium salts than other types of bony tissue

Q78 : The average diameter of coronal dentinal tubules near the pulp is____________?

A: 0.2-0.5 microns B: 2-3 microns C: 0.2-0.3 microns D: 7 microns

Q79 : Aging process affects pulp tissue by_____________?

A: Decreasing the size and shape of pulp tissue and cellular component B: Increase cellular component at the expenses of fibre component C: Increases vascularity of the pulp D: Decrease the calcific component of the pulp

Q80 : Transmission of stimulus across dentin is______________?

A: Direct activation of nerve endings B: Correlated with the innervation density of the dentin C: Stimulus induced fluid flow D: There is no transmission of stimulus across dentin

Q81 : The most abundant principle fibre group in periodontal ligament is____________?

A: Horizontal B: Transeptal C: Apical D: Oblique

Q82 : Long connective tissue papillae and keratinized epithelia are a feature of these parts of oral mucosa____________?

A: gingiva and alveolar mucosa B: Hard palate and gingiva C: Buccal andalveolar mucosa D: Hard and soft palate

Q83 : Resorption of dental tissue is caused by_____________?

A: Osteoclasts B: Osteoblasts C: Odontoclasts D: Odontoblasts

Q84 : Of the total amount of saliva secreted by all the salivary glands, about 60% is secreted by the_____________?

A: Parotid glands B: Sublingual glands C: Submandibular glands D: None of the above

Q85 : The function of merkel cells is_______________?

A: Sensory function B: Secretory function C: Neuro sensory D: Nutritive function

Q86 : Which of the areas of the tooth is most sensitive during cavity preparation ?

A: Enamel (anterior teeth) B: Enamel (Posterior teeth) C: Dentin D: Dentinoenamel junction

Q87 : Cementicles are found in the_____________?

A: Gingiva B: Periodontal ligament C: Alveolar bone D: Cementum

Q88 : The microhardness of dentin is about____________?

A: 1/2 that of enamel B: 1/7 that of enamel C: 1/4 that of enamel D: 1/5 that of enamel

Q89 : Which type of collagen fibers demonstrates Chicken wire configuration ?

A: Type I B: Type II C: Type III D: Type IV

Q90 : The most aggressive and destructive cyst is:_____________?

A: Periapical cyst B: Dentigerous cyst C: Globulomaxillary cyst D: Nasopalatine cyst

Q91 : The cells of the dental pulp which are responsible for the deposition of reparative dentin are_________?

A: Osteoblasts B: Odontoblasts C: Ameloblasts D: Osteocytes

Q92 : Which of the following anomalies occur during the initiation and proliferation of tooth development ?

A: Amelogenisis imperfecta B: Dentinogenesis imperfecta C: Enamel hypoplasia D: Oligodontia

Q93 : Intermediate cementum is____________?

A: Highly defined cellular zone near cemento – dentinal junction (CDJ) B: Highly defined fibrillar zone near CDJ C: Poorly defined zone near cemento-dentinal junction D: Both a and B

Q94 : Keratohyaline granules are more evident in_______________?

A: Keratinised B: Non keratinized C: Parakeratinised D: Orthokeratinized

Q95 : Fibres which continue from bone to ligament are_______________?

A: Sharpey’s fibres B: Tome’s fibres C: Ray’s fibres D: All of the above

Q96 : Vitality of pulp depends on________________?

A: Blood supply B: Nerve supply C: Nerve supply D: All of the above

Q97 : Xeroderma pigmentosum is characterized by:___________?

A: Autosomal dominant inheritance B: Inability to repair sunlight induced damage to DNA C: Irregular accemulation of melanin in the basal cell layer D: Acanthosis of epithelium with elongation of rete ridges

Q98 : Static bone cyst is a cyst developing from______________?

A: Infection of Salivary gland in the mandible B: Tissue of the odontogenic apparatus C: Tissue of the oral mucosa D: None of the above

Q99 : Cementum is_____________?

A: Avascular B: Vascular C: Has blood supply initially only D: None of the above

Q100 : Enamel pearls are found in_____________?

A: Occlusal surface of premolars B: Furcation areas of permanent molars C: On the incisal edges of incisors D: None of the above

Free Oral Histology MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

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