Free Oral Pathology MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

Q1 : Adenoid cystic carcinoma is also known as_______________?

A: Cylindroma B: Pindborg tumor C: Warthins tumor D: Pleomorphic adenoma

Q2 : Paget’s disease of bone is a chronic disease of the________________?

A: Prepubertal skeleton B: Pubertal skeleton C: Infantile skeleton D: Adult skeleton

Q3 : Abscess formation is particularly characteristic of infections with which of the following microorganisms:_____________?

A: Viruses B: Rickettsiae C: Streptococci D: Staphylococci

Q4 : A deep pit lined by enamel seen in the lingual surface of Maxillary lateral incipor is most likely to be_______________?

A: Dens in dente B: Enamel Hypoplasia C: Talon’s cusp D: Enamel Pearl

Q5 : Facial pain due to elongated styloid process is called_________________?

A: Cowden syndrome B: Tic doulourex C: Eagle’s syndrome D: Reiter’s syndrome

Q6 : Which of the following is cariostatic?

A: Selenium B: Magnesium C: Cadmium D: Molybdenum

Q7 : Which of the following diseases of the skin is the most likely to be associated with partial anodontia?

A: calcinosis cutis B: Raynaud’s phenomenon C: Telagietasis D: Endocrine disorders

Q8 : Best way to differentiate a periapical cyst and a perapical granuloma is:__________?

A: Radiographically B: Histologically C: Clinically D: None of the above

Q9 : Frey’s syndrome results from surgery of the ______________?

A: Submandibular salivary gland B: Parotid gland C: sublingual salivary gland D: TMJ

Q10 : A 4-year old child has a normal complemented of primary teeth but they are gray and exhibit extensive occlusal and incisal weaRadiographic examination indicates extensive deposits of secondary dentin in these teeth. Most likely this condition is______________?

A: Neonatal hypoplasia B: Amelogenesis imperfecta C: Cleidocranial dysplasia D: Dentinogenesis imperfecta

Q11 : Pleomorphic adenoma is______________?

A: a teratomatous tumour of the salivary gland B: a neuroendocrine cell tumour C: multiple ectopic tissue proliferating in the salivary gland D: myoepithelial or ductal reserve cell origin

Q12 : Mucocutaneous lesions associated with neoplasia____________?

A: pemphigus vegentans B: Parapemphigus C: Paraneoplastic pemphigus D: familial benign pemphigus

Q13 : Which of the following is NOT a clinical feature of Pierre-Robin syndrome ?

A: Micrognathia B: Retrognathia C: Glossoptosis D: Coloboma of lower eyelid

Q14 : In children the most frequently missing permanent teeth are________________?

A: First premolars B: Second Premolars C: Max. lateral incisors D: Mandibular lateral incisors

Q15 : Constant feature associated with a radicular cyst

A: An impacted tooth B: A missing both C: A non-vital tooth D: An anomalous tooth

Q16 : A neuralgia with trigger zones in the oropharynx and pain in the ear pharynx, nasopharynx, tonsils and posterior tongue is most likely_______________?

A: Trigeminal neuralgia B: Bell’s palsy C: Glossopharyngeal neuralgia D: Sphenopalatine neuralgia

Q17 : Compound odontoma shows:______________?

A: Mixed tissue of dental origin with no resemblance to tooth structure B: Numerous tooth like structure with denticles commonly found in maxillary lateral incisors C: Haphazardly arranged calcified mass D: All of the above

Q18 : Ehlers Danlos syndrome is__________?

A: Autosomal Dominant B: Autosomal recessive C: X-linked Dominant D: X-Linked recessive

Q19 : L.E Cell phenomenon in peripheral blood is seen in:__________?

A: Rheumatic heart disease B: Infective endocarditis C: Ischemic heart disease D: Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

Q20 : Cysts associated with vital teeth are_______________?

A: Dentigerous cyst, Globulomaxillary cyst, lateral periodontal cyst, OKC B: Dentigerous cyst, Globulomaxillary cyst, radicular cyst C: Dentigerous cyst OKC, radicular cyst D: B’ & ‘C’

Q21 : Which of the following is wrong about keratocyst:

A: Haw low recurrence rate B: Has low protein content C: High recurrence rate D: B and C

Q22 : Hairy tongue is characterized by____________?

A: Hypertrophy of fungiform papillae B: Hypertrophy of foliate papillae C: Hypertrophy of filiform papillae D: Hypertrophy of circumvallate papillae

Q23 : Acute osteomyelitis is most frequently caused by which of the following microorganisms?

A: Gonococcus B: Enterococcus C: Streptococcus D: Staphylococcus

Q24 : Adenomatold odontogenic tumour is most commonly found in:

A: Anterior mandible B: Posterior maxilla C: Anterior maxilla D: Ramus of mandible

Q25 : The tooth most commonly involved in chronic focal sclerosing osteomyelitis is:___________?

A: Maxillary second molar B: Maxillary third molar C: Maxillary first molar D: Mandibular first molar

Q26 : A patient with fibrous dysplasia can be treated by________________?

A: Surgical excision B: Removal of adjacent teeth C: Irradiation of the lesion D: Conservative surgery

Q27 : Warthins tumor is_____________?

A: An adenolymphoma of the parotid gland B: A pleomorphic adenoma of parotid gland C: Carcinoma of the parotid gland D: None of the above

Q28 : “Fothergill’s disease” is one of the synonyms of_______________?

A: Sarcoidosis B: Multiple sclerosis C: Trigeminal neuralgia D: Lupus erythematosis

Q29 : Which of the following is a soft tissue cyst which do not produce any radiographic changes______________?

A: Nasolabial cyst B: Nasopalatine cyst C: Mid alveolar cyst D: Palatine cyst

Q30 : Xerostomia, enlargment of salivary and lacrimal glands is seen in______________?

A: Sicca syndrome B: Sjogren’s syndrome C: Mickulicz’s disease D: None of the above

Q31 : A multilocular cyst of the jaw is more likely:__________?

A: Dental cyst B: Dentigerous cyst C: Keratocyst D: Simple bone cyst

Q32 : Odontogenic epithelium responsible for the formation of dental cyst is:___________?

A: Cell rests of seirre B: Enamel organ C: Reduced enamel epithelium D: Cell rests of malassez

Q33 : Which of the following diseases of the bone characteristically exhibits (in contrast to the other three conditions) a single lesion in a single bone ?

A: Central giant cell granuloma B: Osteopetrosis C: Paget’s disease of the bone D: Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia

Q34 : A 36 year old man with an asymptomatic swelling in the body of the mandible with radiographic features of radiolucency with radiopaque flecks in suffering from:

A: Odontogenic keratocyst B: Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor (CEOT) C: Ameloblastoma D: None of the above

Q35 : A 25 year old male patient reports with bony expansile swelling of the right body of the mandible & mild paresthesia of the right IDN. OPG shows a multi locular radiolucency without root resorption. What would be your choice of next investigation?

A: Excision biopsy B: Aspiration Cytology C: CT Scan D: Pet Bone scan

Q36 : Which of the following has the potential of undergoing Spontaneous malignant transformation _____________?

A: Osteomalacia B: Albright’s syndrome C: Paget’s disease of bone D: Osteogenesis imperfecta

Q37 : A permanent tooth with a local hypoplastic deformity in a crown is called_______________?

A: Turner’s tooth B: Taurodontism C: Enameloma D: Ghost teeth

Q38 : The granulomatous tissue that is responsible for destruction of articular surfaces of TMJ in rheumatoid arthritis is known as________________?

A: Pannus B: Pulse granuloma C: Pulse granuloma D: Immune granuloma

Q39 : All of the following are true about trigeminal neuralgia EXCEPT______________?

A: it is unilateral B: it is of throbbing nature C: it is triggered by touching cheeks, mucosa etc D: occurs in bouts

Q40 : Pleomorphic adenoma arises from______________?

A: Myoepithelial cells B: Aciner cells C: Connective tissue D: Stem cells

Q41 : Phelogmon is a:__________?

A: Se*ually transmitted disease B: Type of cellulites C: Type of osteomyelitis D: Venereal disease

Q42 : Oral lesions are not seen in:_________?

A: Psoriasis B: Pemphigoid C: Stevens Johnson syndrome D: Candidiasis

Q43 : Which of the following are characteristic feature of cherubism______________?

A: Premature exfoliation of primary teeth B: Hypoplastic defects C: Progressive painless symmetric D: A + C

Q44 : Periapical cyst is usually preceded by:__________?

A: Periapical granuloma B: Periodontal abscess C: Periapical abscess D: All of the above

Q45 : A bony hard asymptomatic swelling found on the midline of the hard palate that appears radiopaque on a radiograph is most likely a__________________?

A: Odontoma B: Myxoma C: Boney cyst D: Torus palatinus

Q46 : A six year old child patient has blue-dome shaped swelling in posterior mandibular region, what will be the treatment plan?

A: Reassure the patient without any treatment B: Excise the lesion C: Marsupialization D: Surgical Excision

Q47 : Multiple fractures are seen in______________?

A: Rickets B: Osteogenesis imperfecta C: Osteomyelitis D: Osteoma

Q48 : The inheritance pattern of dentinogensis imperfecta is______________?

A: Homozygous B: Autosomal dominant C: Recessive D: X-linked recessive

Q49 : The cyst located at the junction of medial nasal process, lateral nasal process and maxillary process is________________?

A: Globulomaxillary cyst B: Median palatine cyst C: Nasopalatine cyst D: Nasoalveolar cyst

Q50 : Adamantinoma is:_____________?

A: A tumour from embrynomal cells of developing teeth B: Also known as Amebloblastoma C: is a complication of dentigerous cyst D: All of the above

Q51 : Butterfly rash is typically seen in:____________?

A: Herpes simplex B: Systemic lupus erythematosus C: Scleroderma D: None of the above

Q52 : Botryoid odontogenic cyst is a variant of:___________?

A: Lateral periodontal cyst B: Apical periodontal cyst C: Gingival cyst of new born D: Gingival cysts of adult

Q53 : The most common cause of TMJ ankylosis is______________?

A: Trauma B: Osteoarthritis C: Childhood illness D: Rheumatoid arthritis

Q54 : Patient suffering form Eagle’s syndrome complains of__________________?

A: burning sensations in mouth B: excessive salivation C: Glossodynia D: Dysphagia

Q55 : Turners tooth is seen in_____________?

A: enamel hypoplasia due to hypocalcemia B: enamel hypoplasia due to birth injuries C: enamel hypoplasia due to congenital syphilis D: enamel hypoplasia due to local infection or local trauma

Q56 : Cyst arising from rests of malassez is:___________?

A: Dental cyst B: Dentigerous cyst C: Radicular cyst D: Karato cyst

Q57 : Absence of pulp chambers is seen in_______________?

A: Craniofacial dysostosis B: Dentinogenesis imperfecta C: Amelogenesis imperfecta D: None of the above

Q58 : Naso Labial cyst is thought to arise from_______________?

A: Remnants of cell rests of serrae B: Remnants of cell rests of mallasez C: Remnants of cell rests of embryonic lacrimalduct D: Maxillary sinus lining epithelium

Q59 : The following site is the common involvement in case of Myositis ossificans_______________?

A: Massetor B: Hyoglossus C: Stylohyoid D: Lateral pterygoid

Q60 : Focal sclerosing osteomyelitis is:__________?

A: Due to excessive periosteal bone formation B: An extremely painful condition C: Due to low grade chronic infection D: A common sequel following sequestrectomy

Q61 : Sjorgen’s syndrome includes all except____________?

A: Xerostomia B: Keratoconjunctivitis C: Arthritis D: Lymphoma

Q62 : Developing Ameloblasts are effected by the ingestion of high fluoride content water resulting in______________?

A: Turners tooth B: Hutchinson’s teeth C: Mottled enamel D: Moon’s molars

Q63 : Trotter’s syndrome involves_____________?

A: Pharynx B: Oropharynx C: Larynx D: Nasopharynx

Q64 : Grinspan syndrome is associated with:_________?

A: Hypertension, diabetes, lichen planus B: Oral, ocular, genital lesions C: Hypertension with oral lesions D: lemphigus, CHF, diabetes

Q65 : Which of the following periapical conditions is often associated with a vital pulp?

A: Apical cyst B: Apical scar C: Condensing osteitis D: Chronic apical periodontitis

Q66 : Which one of the following is the cause of dilacerations ?

A: Trauma to the tooth germ during root development B: Abnormal displacement of tooth germ during root development C: Abnormal proliferation of enamel epithelium during tooth development D: Abnormal displacement of ameloblasts during tooth formation

Q67 : The latest drug of the choice in the management in trigeminal neuralgia is______________?

A: valproic acid B: carbamazepine C: Diphen hydantoin D: None of the above

Q68 : Bullae formation after striking an intact skin/mucosal surface is known as:__________?

A: Tinel’s sign B: Bablnski’s sign C: Nikolsky’s sign D: Chovstek’s sign

Q69 : Chronic periostitis in children is known as__________?

A: Cherubism B: Garre’s osteomyelitis C: Histiocytosis X D: Tuberculous osteomyelitis

Q70 : Unicentric, non-functional, anatomically benign, clinically persistent tumor is:___________?

A: Enameloma B: CEOT C: Odontoma D: Ameloblastoma

Q71 : Nikolsky’s sign in positive in:_____________?

A: bullous pemphigus B: eipdermolysis bullosa C: herpes simplex D: erythema multiforme

Q72 : Standard treatment of ameloblastoma:

A: Segmental resection with 1 cm of normal bone B: Enbloc resectio C: Enucleation D: Enucleation with cauterization

Q73 : In an acute attack of migraine, the during of choice______________?

A: Ergontamine tortrate B: Methysergide C: Propranolol D: Caffeine

Q74 : Parotid fatty change is sign of_____________?

A: Aging B: Alcoholism C: Malnutrition D: None of the above

Q75 : Lichen planus:____________?

A: Can undergo malignant change B: Treated only by medication C: Must be excised D: Is a idiosyncrasy reaction

Q76 : Darier’s disease is associated with:____________?

A: Pernicious anaemia B: Rickets with involvement of teeth and bones C: Vitamin A deficiency and involvement of oral epithelium and skin D: Diffuse tender ulceration on the palate predominantly

Q77 : Ground glass appearance in bone is seen in_____________?

A: Hyper parathyroidism B: Fibrous dysplasia C: Condensing osteitis D: Osteopetrosis

Q78 : Lesion of facial nerve at level of stylomastoid foramen leads to____________?

A: Loss of taste sensation from Ant. 2/3 of tongue B: Paralysis of orbicularis oculi muscle C: Loss of innervation to stapedius D: Loss of lacrimal secretion

Q79 : Which of the following Orofacial pain is not associated with vascular origin ?

A: Cluster headache B: Giant cell arteritis C: Anaesthesia dolorosa D: Chronic paroxysmal hemicrania

Q80 : In ectodermal dysplasia all of the following structures are affected except:___________?

A: Hair B: Nails C: Teeth D: Salivary glands

Q81 : Hydropic degeneration of the basal cell of the straturn germinativum is a feature of___________?

A: Leukoplakia B: Lichen planus C: Syphilis D: Pemphigus

Q82 : Which of the following statement is FALSE?

A: A salivary duct obstruction can cause a unilateral swelling in the floor of the mouth that is largest before a meal and smallest after a meal B: The lesion termed a ranula is associated with the sublingual salivary gland C: The sublingual salivary gland is the most common site of salivary gland neoplasia D: A pleomorphic adenoma is the most common salivary gland neoplasm

Q83 : Burning Mouth Syndrome describes pain associated with_____________?

A: Oral lichen planus B: Oral submucous fibrosis C: Aphthous stomatitis D: No detectable oral disease

Q84 : Osteomyelitis begins as an inflammation of:__________?

A: Cortical bone B: Periosteum C: Medullary bone D: periosteum and inner cortex

Q85 : Tender submandibular swelling is mostly due to________________?

A: Ludwig’s angina B: Stone or Sialolithiasis C: Enlarged lymph nodes D: All of the above

Q86 : Target lesions are observed in case of:___________?

A: Erythema multiforme B: Lichenplanus C: Pemphigus vulgaris D: Psoriasis

Q87 : The term dilaceration refers to______________?

A: A deformity of a tooth consisting of a sharp bend bend in the root B: Abrasions on two surfaces of single tooth C: A root or tooth that is split into two D: A tooth that is fractured at two or more places

Q88 : The most common odontogenic tumour which occurs in relationto an unerupted tooth in the anterior maxilla:____________?

A: Odontogenic adenomatoid tumour B: Odontoma C: Myxoma D: Cementifying fibroma

Q89 : Grinspan syndrome is associated with:___________?

A: Leukoplakia B: Lichen planus C: Aphthous ulcer D: Oral submucous fibrosis

Q90 : The most common salivary gland malignant neoplasm in bones______________?

A: Plemorphic adenoma B: Adenoid cystic carcinoma C: Muceopidermoid carcinoma D: Adenolymphoma

Q91 : A 15 years old boy reports with a rapidly growing swelling of the mandible with intermittent pain patient history is that the swelling occurred after an episode of trauma Radiographs reveal formation of new subperiosteal bone producing Onion skin appearance The patient also has lip paresthesia elevated white blood cell count Based on the clinical and radiographic picture, one of the following condition could be considered in the provisional diagnosis_________________?

A: Fracture of the jaw with cancellous bone formation B: Chronic suppurative osteomyelitis C: Burkitt’s Lymphoma D: Ewing’s sarcoma

Q92 : Pindborg tumor arises from:_________?

A: Basal layer of cells B: Stratum intermedium C: Stratum corneum D: Both B & D

Q93 : Pain due to acute irreversible pulpitis is:____________?

A: Spontaneous B: Sharp- shock like C: Lasting for short time D: Continuous

Q94 : A 4 year old child with one tooth less than the normal dentition shows large tooth with two crowns and two root canals, the anamoly is______________?

A: Dilaceration B: Fusion C: Gemination D: Concrescence

Q95 : Dentigerous cyst is suspected if the follicular space is more than:

A: 2-3 mm B: 3-4 mm C: 1-2 mm D: >5 mm

Q96 : Chemical mumps’ is synonymous with_____________?

A: Epidemic parotitis B: Iodine mumps C: Nutritional mumps D: Nonspecific mumps

Q97 : Multiple osteomas, multiple polyposis, supernumerary teeth are found in _______ syndrome?

A: Reiter’s B: Peutz – jeghers C: Gardner’s D: Behcet’s

Q98 : All of the following are inherited disorders of connective tissue EXCEPT:

A: Alport syndrome B: Ehlers-Danlos syndrome C: Marfan syndrome D: McArdle’s disease

Q99 : Break up time (BUT) test is done in_______________?

A: Sjogren’s syndrome B: Multiple sclerosis C: SLE D: Myasthenia gravis

Q100 : The epithelium of a dentigerous cyst is:___________?

A: 15-20 cell thick B: 6-10 cell thick C: 2-4 cell thick D: 1-2 cell thick

Free Oral Pathology MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

Time to prove what you know!

LAT Test

GAT Test

Contact Info

Free Oral Pathology MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

Subscribe our Newsletter

LAT Test

GAT Test

Contact Info