Free Oral Pathology MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

Q1 : Naso Labial cyst is thought to arise from_______________?

A: Remnants of cell rests of serrae B: Remnants of cell rests of mallasez C: Remnants of cell rests of embryonic lacrimalduct D: Maxillary sinus lining epithelium

Q2 : Fordyce’s spots are________________?

A: Fat tissue embedded in buccal mucosa B: Red spots C: Present on the cheek mucosa lateral to angle of the mouth D: All of the above

Q3 : The following are the high grade salivary gland malignancies, EXCEPT______________?

A: Basal cell adenocarcinoma B: Mucoepidermoid carcinoma C: Adenoid Cystic carcinoma D: Salivary duct carcinoma

Q4 : According to Veau’s classification of cleft lip & palate, isolated cleft palate falls under______________?

A: Group I B: Group II C: Group III D: Group IV

Q5 : Preauricular pain, grating sensation and partial trismus are the symptons of______________?

A: TMJ fibrous ankylosis B: TMJ bony ankylosis C: TMJ pain dysfurction symdnome D: Ear infection

Q6 : Alkaline phosphatase increases in_____________?

A: Pagets disease B: Osteopetrosis C: Cherubism D: A and D

Q7 : A flat, cricumscribed discolouration of skin or mucosa that may vary in size and shape is referred to as:____________?

A: Epulits B: Macule C: Nodule D: papule

Q8 : Pemphigus is characterized by:____________?

A: Acanthosis B: Acantholysis C: Hyperorthokeratosis D: Hyperparakeratosis

Q9 : Xerostomia, enlargment of salivary and lacrimal glands is seen in______________?

A: Sicca syndrome B: Sjogren’s syndrome C: Mickulicz’s disease D: None of the above

Q10 : The cyst with highest recurrence rate is:_____________?

A: Keratocyst B: Periapical cyst C: Nasoalveolar cyst D: Globulamaxilary cyst

Q11 : The 2nd common most supernumerary teeth is________________?

A: Mesiodens B: Distal to 3rd molar in maxilla C: Distal to mandibular 3rd molar D: Para molars

Q12 : What is non characteristic of Eagle’s syndrome_______________?

A: Excessive lacrimation B: pain during mandibular movement C: Stabbing type pain orginate in the tonsillar regions D: When the jaws are closed the pain subsided

Q13 : The cyst which is found within the bone at the junction of teh globular process, the lateral nasal process & maxillary process is______________?

A: Naso-alveolar cyst B: Globulomaxillary cyst C: Naso palatine cyst D: Mid palatine cyst

Q14 : Which of the following has the potential of undergoing Spontaneous malignant transformation _____________?

A: Osteomalacia B: Albright’s syndrome C: Paget’s disease of bone D: Osteogenesis imperfecta

Q15 : Robinson’s classification of ameloblastoma does not include:___________?

A: Multicentric B: Non-Functional C: Anatomically benign D: clinically persistent

Q16 : Pleomorphic adenoma arises from______________?

A: Myoepithelial cells B: Aciner cells C: Connective tissue D: Stem cells

Q17 : A multilocular cyst of the jaw is more likely:__________?

A: Dental cyst B: Dentigerous cyst C: Keratocyst D: Simple bone cyst

Q18 : The gelatinous deposit adherent on the tooth surface is called as:__________?

A: Materia alba B: Plaque C: Calculus D: All of the above

Q19 : Chocolate-coloured fluid is seen in the cystic space of_______________?

A: Dentigerous cyst B: Odontogenic deratocyst C: Unicystic ameloblastoma D: Papillary cystadenoma lymphomatosum

Q20 : A patient shows inability to close the right corner of the mouth is most probably suffering form_______________?

A: Myasthenia gravis B: Bell’s palsy C: TMJ dysfunction syndrome D: Multiple sclerosis

Q21 : The most common odontogenic cyst is:____________?

A: Primordial cyst B: Dentigerous cyst C: Radicular cyst D: Mucocele

Q22 : The most ideal expianation for recurrence of odontogenic keratocyst is:____________?

A: Increased mitotic activity of the epithelial lining B: Friability of the epithelial lining C: Presence of satellite cysts or daughter cysts D: Continued proliferation of rests of dental lamina

Q23 : Warthins tumor is_____________?

A: An adenolymphoma of the parotid gland B: A pleomorphic adenoma of parotid gland C: Carcinoma of the parotid gland D: None of the above

Q24 : Which of the following is of salivary gland origin ?

A: Acinic cell carcinoma B: Granular cell myoblastoma C: Chondrosarcoma D: All of the above

Q25 : Sialolith in the excretory duct, will result in______________?

A: Chronic sialadenitis B: Mucous retention cyst C: Pleomorphic adenoma D: rupture of the duct

Q26 : Brittle bone syndrome is caused by______________?

A: Improper synthesis of procollagen B: Polymerisation of collagen C: Increase osteoclastic activity D: Increase fibroblastic activity

Q27 : A patient with ameloblastoma of the jaw can best be treated by:_____________?

A: Irradiation B: Excision C: Enucleation D: Surgical removal followed by cauterization

Q28 : Osteosclerosis of bone occurs due to______________?

A: Decreased host resistance B: Increase in the virulence of organisms causes infection C: Increased host response D: Occurs in immunocompromised patients

Q29 : MONRO’s abscess are seen in:____________?

A: Pemphigus B: Lichen planus C: Leukoplakia D: Psoriasis

Q30 : Which tumour does not occur in minor salivary gland ?

A: Pleomorphic adenoma B: Adenocarcinoma C: Mucoepidermoid carcinoma D: Warthin’s tumour

Q31 : In which of the following disorders a circulating antibody directed to intercellular cementing substance of stratified squamous epithelium is observed:_________?

A: Lichen planus B: Verrucous vulgaris Verrucous vulgaris C: Verrucous vulgaris D: Pemphigus vulgari

Q32 : The Pathogenesis of Periapical Cyst is___________?

A: Increased pressure within the cyst B: Immune mediated bone destruction C: Proliferation of epithelium D: None of the above

Q33 : Which syndrome consists of flushing, warmness and perspiration over the cheek and pinna of the ear on the side following the ingestion of highly seasoned food ?

A: Fanconi’s B: Auriculotemporal C: Horner’s D: Cushin’s

Q34 : Ehlers Danlos syndrome is__________?

A: Autosomal Dominant B: Autosomal recessive C: X-linked Dominant D: X-Linked recessive

Q35 : Reversible pulpitis change to irreversible pulpitis primarily because of:__________?

A: Vacular strangulation B: Reduced host resistance C: Invasion of microorganisms D: An increase in microbial virulence

Q36 : Progression of dental caries caries on pit and fissure occurs from:

A: Apex of the pit and fissure B: Wide and of the pit and fissure C: Lateral surface of the pit and fissure D: Bottom of the pit and fissure

Q37 : Premaxilla-premaxillary cyst_________________?

A: Nasoalveolar cyst B: Nasopalatine cyst C: Incisive canal D: Globulomaxillary cyst

Q38 : Mutation in GNAS 1 gene is associated with________________?

A: Fibrous dysplasia B: Ossifying fibroma C: Focal cementoosseous dysplasia D: Periapical cementoosseous dysplasia

Q39 : Commonest site for ectopic salivary gland tumour is_______________?

A: Tongue B: Cheek C: Palate D: Neck

Q40 : Wickham’s striae are seen in:__________?

A: Lichen planus B: Leukoplakia C: Leukoedema D: Erythema multiformae

Q41 : A six year old child patient has blue-dome shaped swelling in posterior mandibular region, what will be the treatment plan?

A: Reassure the patient without any treatment B: Excise the lesion C: Marsupialization D: Surgical Excision

Q42 : Trigeminal heuralgia (tic doulourex) is characterized by______________?

A: Paralysis of one side of the face B: Uncontrollable twitching of muscles C: Sharp, excruciating pain of short duration D: Prolonged episodes of plain on one side of the face

Q43 : Which of the following Orofacial pain is not associated with vascular origin ?

A: Cluster headache B: Giant cell arteritis C: Anaesthesia dolorosa D: Chronic paroxysmal hemicrania

Q44 : Dentinal union of two embryologically developing teeth is referred as______________?

A: Gemination B: Twinning C: Concrescence D: Fusion

Q45 : Each of the following cyst is associated with an impacted tooth except:___________?

A: Dentigerous cyst B: Clacifying epithelial odontogenic cyst C: Keratocyst D: Primordial cyst

Q46 : Eruption fails in this bone disease, as there is no bone resorption_______________?

A: Primary hyperparathyroidism B: Phantom bone disease C: Paget’s disease D: Osteopetrosis

Q47 : Nikolsky’s sign in positive in:_____________?

A: bullous pemphigus B: eipdermolysis bullosa C: herpes simplex D: erythema multiforme

Q48 : Chronic periostitis in children is known as__________?

A: Cherubism B: Garre’s osteomyelitis C: Histiocytosis X D: Tuberculous osteomyelitis

Q49 : Which of the following is inherited as a autosomal dominant triat?

A: Lichen planus B: Bullous pemphigoid C: Pemphigus yulgaris D: White sponge nevus

Q50 : Lesions associated with vital tooth?

A: condensing osteitis B: cementoma C: Periapical abscess D: None of the above

Q51 : Which of the following is the most common lesion of the mandible?

A: Adamantinoma B: Osteogenic sarcoma C: Squamous cell carcinoma D: Osteoclastoma

Q52 : A 25 year old male patient reports with bony expansile swelling of the right body of the mandible & mild paresthesia of the right IDN. OPG shows a multi locular radiolucency without root resorption. What would be your choice of next investigation?

A: Excision biopsy B: Aspiration Cytology C: CT Scan D: Pet Bone scan

Q53 : Cyst arising from rests of malassez is:___________?

A: Dental cyst B: Dentigerous cyst C: Radicular cyst D: Karato cyst

Q54 : Destructively invasive locally malignant with rare metastasis, the lesion is:

A: Fibroma B: .Ameloblastoma C: Papilloma D: None of the above

Q55 : Which histopathological type of odontogenic keratocyst is commoner, more invasive & has a greater tendency for recurrence ?

A: Orthokeratinised B: Parakeratinised C: Non-Keratinised D: Diskeratinised

Q56 : Radiographic finding in pindborg tumour is:___________?

A: Sun-burst appearance B: Onion – peel appearance C: Driven-snow appearance D: Cherry -blossom appearance

Q57 : In children the most frequently missing permanent teeth are________________?

A: First premolars B: Second Premolars C: Max. lateral incisors D: Mandibular lateral incisors

Q58 : Generalised hyper cementesis is seen in_______________?

A: Hypophosphatasia B: Pagets disease C: Fibrous dysplasia D: Cherubism

Q59 : A 3-year old patient has extensive vesicles on lip, tongue, oral mucous membrane, After 2-4 days vesicles rupture at followed by pseudomembrane formation and also some dermal lesions seen what will be the diagnosis?

A: Herpetic stomatitis B: EM C: ANUG D: Steven-Johnson syndrome

Q60 : Oral ocular and genital lesions are seen in:__________?

A: Erythema multiforma B: Steven Johnson syndrome C: SLE D: None of the above

Q61 : Primordial cyst develops:______________?

A: In place of missing teeth B: In teeth in which crown development is completed C: In periapical region D: In mandibular body

Q62 : Adenomatoid odontogenic tumour is characterized histologically by:___________?

A: Polyhedral epithelial cells B: Tubular / duct like cells C: Stellate shaped cells D: Stratified squamous epithelial cells

Q63 : Transformation into osteosarcoma is seen with________________?

A: pagets disease and polyostotic fibrous dysplasia B: pagets disease and osteopetrosis C: Cherubism and Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia D: Cherubism and pagets disease

Q64 : Ground glass appearance in bone is seen in_____________?

A: Hyper parathyroidism B: Fibrous dysplasia C: Condensing osteitis D: Osteopetrosis

Q65 : Mosaic pattern of bone is seen in radiographic features of_____________?

A: fibrous dysplasia B: paget’s disease C: Osteopetrosis D: Osteogenesis imperfecta

Q66 : A patient 18 years of age with sebaceous cysts on the scalp and back of the neck an osteroma on the right mandible: Radiographs reveal multiple impacted supernumerary teeth in both jaws. These findings suggest_______________?

A: Cleidocranial dysostosis B: Ectodermal dysplasia C: Gardner’s syndrome D: Osteogenesis imperfecta

Q67 : Geographic tongue is of red colour because of________________?

A: Infiltration of eosinophils B: Infiltration of neutrophils C: Both of the above D: None of the above

Q68 : In ectodermal dysplasia all of the following structures are affected except:___________?

A: Hair B: Nails C: Teeth D: Salivary glands

Q69 : A patient with multiple impacted supernumerary teeth and can bring his shoulders together is suffering from______________?

A: Klinefelter’s syndrome B: Trisomy 21 C: Down’s syndrome D: Cleidocranial dysostosis

Q70 : In Cleidorcranial dysostosis, sometimes the roots of the permanent teeth are_____________?

A: Thin and long B: thin and short C: Thick and short D: Fused

Q71 : Delayed dentition with multiple supernumerary teeth is seen in________________?

A: Hypoparathyroidism B: Cleidocranial dysplasia C: Pierre Robin Syndrome D: Mongolism (Down’s Syndrome

Q72 : The following site is the common involvement in case of Myositis ossificans_______________?

A: Massetor B: Hyoglossus C: Stylohyoid D: Lateral pterygoid

Q73 : Which of the following is wrong about keratocyst:

A: Haw low recurrence rate B: Has low protein content C: High recurrence rate D: B and C

Q74 : A permanent tooth with a local hypoplastic deformity in a crown is called_______________?

A: Turner’s tooth B: Taurodontism C: Enameloma D: Ghost teeth

Q75 : Dentigerous cyst is associated with the following

A: Impacted 3rd molar B: Impacted supernumerary tooth C: Odontome D: All of the above

Q76 : Patient suffering form Eagle’s syndrome complains of__________________?

A: burning sensations in mouth B: excessive salivation C: Glossodynia D: Dysphagia

Q77 : Multiple osteomas, multiple polyposis, supernumerary teeth are found in _______ syndrome?

A: Reiter’s B: Peutz – jeghers C: Gardner’s D: Behcet’s

Q78 : A tooth with a 3 month history of pain, which was worse when hot liquid were in mouth. After extraction, the tooth was split open. The pulp chamber was completely filled with pus. A few remnants of pulp tissue were found in apical end. The condition is:__________?

A: Acute partial pulpits B: Acute total pulpits C: Suppurative pulpitis D: Strangulation of pulp

Q79 : A fluid filled elevated lesion of skin is called___________?

A: Bulla B: Macule C: Papule D: Nodule

Q80 : Abscess formation is particularly characteristic of infections with which of the following microorganisms:_____________?

A: Viruses B: Rickettsiae C: Streptococci D: Streptococci

Q81 : Venous malformation involving the leptomeninges of the cerebral cortex is salient feature of_____________?

A: Rendu-Osler-Weber disease B: Maffuci’s syndrome C: Angioosteohypertrophy syndrome D: Sturge weber syndrome

Q82 : Mask-like appearance of face with narrowing of aperture and rigidity of the mucosa is characteristic of______________?

A: Progressive systemic sclerosis B: Tetanus C: Multiple sclerosis D: Osteomalacia

Q83 : Mucocutaneous lesions associated with neoplasia____________?

A: pemphigus vegentans B: Parapemphigus C: Paraneoplastic pemphigus D: familial benign pemphigus

Q84 : A 36 year old man with an asymptomatic swelling in the body of the mandible with radiographic features of radiolucency with radiopaque flecks in suffering from:

A: Odontogenic keratocyst B: Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor (CEOT) C: Ameloblastoma D: None of the above

Q85 : Histopathological study of lichen planus shows:___________?

A: Mixed cellular inflammatory infiltrate B: Presence of T-lymphocytes predominantly C: Antiepithelial antibodies D: Scattered infiltrate with ill-defined lower border

Q86 : Erosive lichen planus resembles which of the following:

A: Monilial gingivitis B: Desquamative gingivitis C: Herpetic gingivitis D: Acute ulcerative gingivitis

Q87 : Low grade infection which leads to localized periosteal reaction is:____________?

A: Garre’s osteomyelitis B: Acute osteomyelitis C: Condensing osteitis D: Local alveolar osteitis

Q88 : Which is not true of Ludwig’s angina?

A: Usually arises from an infected molar B: involves submandibular space C: May need emergency tracheostomy D: None of the above

Q89 : Pain due to acute irreversible pulpitis is:____________?

A: Spontaneous B: Sharp- shock like C: Lasting for short time D: Continuous

Q90 : Scleroderma involves:__________?

A: Tightening of oral mucosa and periodontal involvement B: Multiple palmar keratosis C: Raynaud’s phenomenon D: All of the above

Q91 : Geographical tongue, all are true except______________?

A: Lesions may be Bilaterally symmetrical on tongue B: No treatment is required C: Is a precancerous condition D: May be related to emotional stress

Q92 : The earliest radiographic sign of osteomyelitis is___________?

A: Solitary or multiple small radiolucent areas B: Increased granular radioopacity C: Blurring of trabecular outlines D: Formation of sequestrum appearing as radiopaque patches

Q93 : Treacher collins syndrome is______________?

A: Maxillofacial Dysostosis B: Mandibulofacial Dysostosis C: Maxillomandibulofacial Dysostosis D: Condylar Dysostosis

Q94 : True generalized microdontia is characterized by______________?

A: Small teeth with large jaw B: Small teeth with small jaws C: Smaller teeth than the normal D: Large teeth with small jaws

Q95 : One of them is not a true cyst:__________?

A: Nemorrhagic cyst B: Median palatal C: Median palatal D: Nasolabial

Q96 : The treatment for a child with cherubism is______________?

A: surgical excision B: cosmetic surgery after puberty C: radiation D: Enbloc dissection

Q97 : In a 60 year old adult, which of the following diseases causes expansile maxillary lesions ?

A: Paget’s disease B: Acromegaly C: Fibrous Dysplasia D: Rickets

Q98 : Large pulp chambers are characteristic of all the following conditions except_______________?

A: Shell teeth B: Tauradontisam C: Dentin Dysplasia D: Dentinogenesis imperfecta

Q99 : Serum alkaline phosphatase levels are increased in_______

A: Osteorthritis B: Dentinogenesis imperfecta C: Paget’s disease D: Rheumatoid arthitis

Q100 : Cyst arising from dental lamina:___________________?

A: Radicular cyst B: Paradental cyst C: Eruption cyst D: Glandular odontogenic cyst

Free Oral Pathology MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

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