Free Oral Pathology MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

Q1 : Ameloblastoma most frequently occurs in:___________?

A: Mandibular moral region B: Maxillary molar region C: Mandibular premolar region D: Maxillary premolar region

Q2 : Primordial cyst develops:______________?

A: In place of missing teeth B: In teeth in which crown development is completed C: In periapical region D: In mandibular body

Q3 : Chronic periostitis in children is known as__________?

A: Cherubism B: Garre’s osteomyelitis C: Histiocytosis X D: Tuberculous osteomyelitis

Q4 : A child with Down’s syndrome has Moon facies, retarded mentally and which of the facial characteristic________________?

A: Maxillary prognathism B: Mandibular retrognathia C: Mandibular prognathism D: Maxillary hypoplasia

Q5 : Which of the following has the potential of undergoing Spontaneous malignant transformation _____________?

A: Osteomalacia B: Albright’s syndrome C: Paget’s disease of bone D: Osteogenesis imperfecta

Q6 : Sialoliths are stones found in the salivary duct and gland and are primarily composed of_____________?

A: Hydroxyapatitie B: Potassium cloride C: Unknown compounds of phosphats D: Calcium chloride

Q7 : The histopathology of osteopetrosis shows_______________?

A: Endosteal bone formation and lack of normal bone resorption B: Periosteal bone formation and lack of normal bone resorption C: Persence of extra collagen fibres and less calcification resulting in resistance of bones to fracture D: Presence of numerous osteoclasts and a few osteoblasts

Q8 : One of them is not a true cyst:__________?

A: Nemorrhagic cyst B: Median palatal C: Median palatal D: Nasolabial

Q9 : Which of the following is inherited as a autosomal dominant triat?

A: Lichen planus B: Bullous pemphigoid C: Pemphigus yulgaris D: White sponge nevus

Q10 : Which of the following structures are associated with bells palsy______________?

A: sub mandibular gland B: Seventh cranial nerve C: Temporomandibular joint D: Glosso pharyngeal nerve

Q11 : Hairy tongue is characterized by____________?

A: Hypertrophy of fungiform papillae B: Hypertrophy of foliate papillae C: Hypertrophy of filiform papillae D: Hypertrophy of circumvallate papillae

Q12 : Mikulicz’s disease is____________?

A: Neoplastic disease B: An inflammatory disease C: An autoimmune disease D: Viral infection

Q13 : A cyst occurs under the tongue, caused by obstruction of a salivary gland. Such a cyst is called_______________?

A: Mucocele B: Ranula C: Dermoid cyst D: Dentigerous cyst

Q14 : Psoralane Ultraviolet A (PUVA) therapy is advised in__________?

A: Pemphigus vulgaris B: Apthous ulcers C: Carcinoma in situ D: ANUG

Q15 : The most likely diagnosis in a 23 year old, mentally alert, male dwarf with disproportionate arm and leg to body growth, prominent forehead and retruded maxilla is_______________?

A: Cretinism B: Pituitary dwarfism C: Acromegaly D: Achondroplasia

Q16 : Which of the following are seen in ectodermal dysplasia?

A: Hyperpyrexia B: Protuberant lips and frontal bossing C: Defective or absence of sweat glands D: Any of the above

Q17 : Brittle bone syndrome is caused by______________?

A: Improper synthesis of procollagen B: Polymerisation of collagen C: Increase osteoclastic activity D: Increase fibroblastic activity

Q18 : Hydropic degeneration of the basal cell of the straturn germinativum is a feature of___________?

A: Leukoplakia B: Lichen planus C: Syphilis D: Pemphigus

Q19 : Which of the following differentiates between condensing osteitis and benign cementoblastoma?

A: Condensing osteitis is associated with vital teeth where as cementoblastoma is associated with non-vital teeth B: In condensing osteitis radiopacity is attached to tooth where as in cementoblastoma it is not C: Cementoblastoma is associated with vital tooth where as condensing osteitis is associated with non-vital tooth D: In cementoblastoma radiopacity is attached to tooth where as in condensing osteitis it is not

Q20 : Focal sclerosing osteomyelitis is:__________?

A: Due to excessive periosteal bone formation B: An extremely painful condition C: Due to low grade chronic infection D: A common sequel following sequestrectomy

Q21 : Wickham’s striae are seen in:__________?

A: Lichen planus B: Leukoplakia C: Leukoedema D: Erythema multiformae

Q22 : A patient 18 years of age with sebaceous cysts on the scalp and back of the neck an osteroma on the right mandible: Radiographs reveal multiple impacted supernumerary teeth in both jaws. These findings suggest_______________?

A: Cleidocranial dysostosis B: Ectodermal dysplasia C: Gardner’s syndrome D: Osteogenesis imperfecta

Q23 : A 60 year old has got severe bulla and target lesion Which erythema around halo and genital lesions:_____________?

A: Stevens Jhonson syndrome B: Herpes zoster C: Herpes simplex D: Herpangina

Q24 : Which of the following diseases of the skin is the most likely to be associated with partial anodontia?

A: erythema multiformae B: hereditary actodermal dysplasia C: Keratosis follicularils D: lichen planus

Q25 : Generalised hyper cementesis is seen in_______________?

A: Hypophosphatasia B: Pagets disease C: Fibrous dysplasia D: Cherubism

Q26 : Taurodontism is usually seen in_________________?

A: Mesiodens B: Incisor with talon/cusp C: Mandibular first molar D: Maxillary premolars

Q27 : A 3-year old patient reports of painless progressive bilateral facial swellings. The tentative diagnosis is______________?

A: Cherubism B: Monostotic fibrous dysplasia C: Ployostotic fibrous dysplasia D: Central giant cell granuloma

Q28 : In a middle – aged man the radiograph shows cotton-wool appearance and blood investigation reveal an elevated alkaline phosphatase levels. The tentative diagnosis is____________?

A: Paget’s disease B: Cherubism C: Fibrous dysplasia D: Osteogenesis imperfecta

Q29 : Most common cyst in oral region is:__________?

A: Medial cyst B: Radicular cyst C: Follicular cyst D: Naso labial cyst

Q30 : Estein Pearls are________________?

A: Gingival cyst of newborn B: Gingival cyst of adult C: Enamel pearls D: Epithelial rests

Q31 : “Fothergill’s disease” is one of the synonyms of_______________?

A: Sarcoidosis B: Multiple sclerosis C: Trigeminal neuralgia D: Lupus erythematosis

Q32 : Histological clefts in lichen planus are____________?

A: Civatte bodies B: Wickham’s Striae C: Max – Joseph spaces D: Auspitz’s sign

Q33 : Koebner’s phenomenon is seen with_____________?

A: Erythema multiforme B: Pemphigoid C: Psoriasis D: Impetigo

Q34 : Frey’s syndrome results from surgery of the ______________?

A: Submandibular salivary gland B: Parotid gland C: sublingual salivary gland D: TMJ

Q35 : Developing Ameloblasts are effected by the ingestion of high fluoride content water resulting in______________?

A: Turners tooth B: Hutchinson’s teeth C: Mottled enamel D: Moon’s molars

Q36 : A six year old child patient has blue-dome shaped swelling in posterior mandibular region, what will be the treatment plan?

A: Reassure the patient without any treatment B: Excise the lesion C: Marsupialization D: Surgical Excision

Q37 : Dental cyst:_______________?

A: Occurs from the reduced enamel epithelium B: Occurs from the reduced enamel epithelium C: Is frequently seen with a missing tooth on the X-ray D: Cystic lining of stratified squamous epithelium

Q38 : Which of the following teeth is most likely to be congenitally missing ?

A: Maxi. central incisor B: Mandibular canine C: Mand. second premolar D: Maxillary first premolar

Q39 : Carbamazepine has been utilized to successfully diminish attacks in trigeminal neuralgia. During this therapy which of the following is indicated ?

A: Clinical observation only B: Clinical observation and complete blood and platelet counts prior to and at frequent intervals during therapy C: No monitoring D: Complete blood investigation only if adverse symptoms arise

Q40 : Amber coloured tooth traslucency, blue sclerae and bone fragility and a history of pervious bone fractures are characteristic findings in_____________?

A: Osteoporosis B: Osteogenesis imperfecta C: Osteitis deformans D: Osteitis fibrosa cystic

Q41 : Hydropic degeneration of the basal cell of the straturn germinativum is a feature of___________?

A: Leukoplakia B: Lichen planus C: Syphilis D: Pemphigus

Q42 : Cysts associated with vital teeth are_______________?

A: Dentigerous cyst, Globulomaxillary cyst, lateral periodontal cyst, OKC B: Dentigerous cyst, Globulomaxillary cyst, radicular cyst C: Dentigerous cyst OKC, radicular cyst D: B’ & ‘C’

Q43 : Plaque microflora can-split carbohydrates. What does it means?

A: Saprophytic B: Sacchrolytic C: Virulant D: Avirulant

Q44 : Acinic cell carcinomas of the salivary gland arise most often in the_______________?

A: Parotid salivary gland B: Minor salivary glands C: Submandibular salivary gland D: Sublingual salivary gland

Q45 : Developmental enamel defects are most commonly seen in_______________?

A: Primary incisors B: Primary 2nd molar C: Permanent incisors D: Permanent 1st molar

Q46 : Trigeminal neuralgia_______________?

A: Does not disturb the patient during sleep B: Can be treated with NSAID’s C: Always bilateral in distribution D: Is a hereditary condition

Q47 : Antinuclear antibodies are seen in:___________?

A: SLE B: Systemic sclerosis C: Morphea D: All of the above

Q48 : Serum alkaline phosphatase levels are increased in_______

A: Osteorthritis B: Dentinogenesis imperfecta C: Paget’s disease D: Rheumatoid arthitis

Q49 : Eruption fails in this bone disease, as there is no bone resorption_______________?

A: Primary hyperparathyroidism B: Phantom bone disease C: Paget’s disease D: Osteopetrosis

Q50 : Treatment for cementoma?

A: No treatment B: Pulpectomy C: Resection of jaw D: None of the above

Q51 : Reversible pulpitis change to irreversible pulpitis primarily because of:__________?

A: Vacular strangulation B: Reduced host resistance C: Invasion of microorganisms D: An increase in microbial virulence

Q52 : Constant feature associated with a radicular cyst

A: An impacted tooth B: A missing both C: A non-vital tooth D: An anomalous tooth

Q53 : Gardner syndrome does not include______________?

A: Osteomas B: Epidermoid cysts C: Osteosarcoma D: Impacted permanent teeth

Q54 : Which of the following is wrong about keratocyst:

A: Haw low recurrence rate B: Has low protein content C: High recurrence rate D: B and C

Q55 : Osteosclerosis of bone occurs due to______________?

A: Decreased host resistance B: Increase in the virulence of organisms causes infection C: Increased host response D: Occurs in immunocompromised patients

Q56 : All of the following statements about the typical features of a periapical granuloma are true EXCEPT:

A: It consists of proliferating granulation tissue B: It can form only if the periapical bone is resorbed C: It shows evidence of local antibody production D: It results from immunologically mediated tissue damage

Q57 : Clavicle is absent is______________?

A: Osteogenesis imperfecta B: Cleidocranial dysostosis C: Fibrous dysplasia D: Osteopetrosis

Q58 : All of the following lesions may be classified as Odontogenic Tumours EXCEPT:

A: Acanthomatous ameloblastoma B: Branchial cleft cyst C: Myxoma D: Simple ameloblastoma

Q59 : Pleomorphic adenoma arises from______________?

A: Myoepithelial cells B: Aciner cells C: Connective tissue D: Stem cells

Q60 : Salivary duct calculi______________?

A: produce pain on eating B: Are commonest in the parotid ducts C: Are common cause of acute parotitis D: Are associated with hypercaleaemic states

Q61 : Premaxilla-premaxillary cyst_________________?

A: Nasoalveolar cyst B: Nasopalatine cyst C: Incisive canal D: Globulomaxillary cyst

Q62 : Acute osteomyelitis is most frequently caused by which of the following microorganisms?

A: Gonococcus B: Enterococcus C: Streptococcus D: Staphylococcus

Q63 : A 25 year old male patient reports with bony expansile swelling of the right body of the mandible & mild paresthesia of the right IDN. OPG shows a multi locular radiolucency without root resorption. What would be your choice of next investigation?

A: Excision biopsy B: Aspiration Cytology C: CT Scan D: Pet Bone scan

Q64 : Commonest site for ectopic salivary gland tumour is____________________?

A: Tongue B: Cheek C: Palate D: Neck

Q65 : Which of the following statement is FALSE?

A: A salivary duct obstruction can cause a unilateral swelling in the floor of the mouth that is largest before a meal and smallest after a meal B: The lesion termed a ranula is associated with the sublingual salivary gland C: The sublingual salivary gland is the most common site of salivary gland neoplasia D: A pleomorphic adenoma is the most common salivary gland neoplasm

Q66 : Which one of the following is the cause of dilacerations ?

A: Trauma to the tooth germ during root development B: Abnormal displacement of tooth germ during root development C: Abnormal proliferation of enamel epithelium during tooth development D: Abnormal displacement of ameloblasts during tooth formation

Q67 : Bimanual palpation technique is carried out for____________________?

A: Submandibular gland B: Sublingual gland C: Ranula D: Cervical lymph nodes when they are enlarged due to inflammation

Q68 : Geographical tongue, all are true except______________?

A: Lesions may be Bilaterally symmetrical on tongue B: No treatment is required C: Is a precancerous condition D: May be related to emotional stress

Q69 : Fordyce granules mostly occurs in all of the following area EXCEPT________________?

A: Vermilion of the lip B: Posterior tonsillar pillar C: Alveolar ridge D: Palate

Q70 : Primary lesion in lichen planus is:___________?

A: Macule B: Papule C: Vesicle D: Bulla

Q71 : Most common tumor of parotid gland is______________?

A: Plemorphic adenoma B: Adenoid cystic carcinoma C: Cylindroma D: Epidermoud carcinoma

Q72 : White radiating lines on the buccal mucosa

A: Condensing osteitis is associated with vital teeth where as cementoblastoma is associated with non-vital teeth B: In condensing osteitis radiopacity is attached to tooth where as in cementoblastoma it is not C: Cementoblastoma is associated with vital tooth where as condensing osteitis is associated with non-vital tooth D: In cementoblastoma radiopacity is attached to tooth where as in condensing osteitis it is not

Q73 : Mask-like appearance of face with narrowing of aperture and rigidity of the mucosa is characteristic of______________?

A: Progressive systemic sclerosis B: Tetanus C: Multiple sclerosis D: Osteomalacia

Q74 : The most common complication of mumps is______________?

A: myocarditis B: Orchitis C: Uveitis D: Conjunctivits

Q75 : Most common primary malignant bone tumor is_______________?

A: Osteosarcoma B: Ewing sarcoma C: Metastatic carcinoma D: Multiple Myeloma

Q76 : Robinson’s classification of ameloblastoma does not include:___________?

A: Multicentric B: Non-Functional C: Anatomically benign D: clinically persistent

Q77 : Which of the following features are of naso alveolar cyst_______________?

A: An avoid shaped radiolucency above the lateral incisor and canine teeth B: Erosion of base above lateral incisor and canine teeth C: An inverted funnel shaped radiolucent lesion above the roots of lateral incisor and canine teeth D: A pear shaped radiolucent lesion between roots of lateralincisor and canine teeth

Q78 : Alkaline phosphatase increases in_____________?

A: Pagets disease B: Osteopetrosis C: Cherubism D: A and D

Q79 : Xerostomia, enlargment of salivary and lacrimal glands is seen in______________?

A: Sicca syndrome B: Sjogren’s syndrome C: Mickulicz’s disease D: None of the above

Q80 : Tender submandibular swelling is mostly due to________________?

A: Ludwig’s angina B: Stone or Sialolithiasis C: Enlarged lymph nodes D: All of the above

Q81 : The Pathogenesis of Periapical Cyst is___________?

A: Increased pressure within the cyst B: Immune mediated bone destruction C: Proliferation of epithelium D: None of the above

Q82 : Dentigerous cyst is likely to cause which neoplasia?

A: Ameloblastoma B: Adeno carcinoma C: Fibrosarcoma D: All of the above

Q83 : In an acute attack of migraine, the during of choice______________?

A: Ergontamine tortrate B: Methysergide C: Propranolol D: Caffeine

Q84 : The most common organism involved in a periapical abscess is:__________?

A: Strep. Pyogens B: Strep. viridans C: β hemolytic stretococci D: Non hemolytic stretococci

Q85 : Venous malformation involving the leptomeninges of the cerebral cortex is salient feature of_____________?

A: Rendu-Osler-Weber disease B: Maffuci’s syndrome C: Angioosteohypertrophy syndrome D: Sturge weber syndrome

Q86 : Tiny linear or arc-shaped bodied, amorphous, brittle and eosinophilic in reaction found in association with some odontogenic cysts, are called:___________?

A: Civattle bodies B: Russell bodies C: Guarneri bodies D: rushton bodies

Q87 : Mixed tumour of the salivary glands are_______________?

A: Most common in submandibular gland B: Usually malignant C: Most common in parotid gland D: Associated with calculi

Q88 : Scleroderma involves:__________?

A: Tightening of oral mucosa and periodontal involvement B: Multiple palmar keratosis C: Raynaud’s phenomenon D: All of the above

Q89 : The cells most frequently found in a granuloma are:___________?

A: Mast cells B: Giant cells C: Lymphocytes D: Neutrophilis

Q90 : Sialolith in the excretory duct, will result in______________?

A: Chronic sialadenitis B: Mucous retention cyst C: Pleomorphic adenoma D: rupture of the duct

Q91 : Most used selective medium for streptococcus mutans is:____________?

A: Mac conkey medium B: Mitus salivarius bacitracin agar C: Nutrient agar D: Tellurite medium

Q92 : Eruption cyst:______________?

A: Transforms into dentigerous cyst B: Regresses after eruption of the tooth C: Is found in the place of the missing tooth D: Is a type of dentigerous cyst

Q93 : Fine Needle aspiration biopsy is indicated to diagnose:_____________?

A: Traumatic ulcer B: Pemphigus C: Necrotic pulp D: Chronic gingivitis

Q94 : Odontogenic epithelium responsible for the formation of dental cyst is:___________?

A: Cell rests of seirre B: Enamel organ C: Reduced enamel epithelium D: Cell rests of malassez

Q95 : The following are the high grade salivary gland malignancies, EXCEPT______________?

A: Basal cell adenocarcinoma B: Mucoepidermoid carcinoma C: Adenoid Cystic carcinoma D: Salivary duct carcinoma

Q96 : The term dilaceration refers to______________?

A: A deformity of a tooth consisting of a sharp bend bend in the root B: Abrasions on two surfaces of single tooth C: A root or tooth that is split into two D: A tooth that is fractured at two or more places

Q97 : Ghost (shadow) cells are seen in:___________?

A: Amebloblastic fibroodontoma B: Calcifying odontogenic cyst C: Compound odontoma D: All of the above

Q98 : The most ideal expianation for recurrence of odontogenic keratocyst is:____________?

A: Increased mitotic activity of the epithelial lining B: Friability of the epithelial lining C: Presence of satellite cysts or daughter cysts D: Continued proliferation of rests of dental lamina

Q99 : According to Veau’s classification of cleft lip & palate, isolated cleft palate falls under______________?

A: Group I B: Group II C: Group III D: Group IV

Q100 : Oral lesions are not seen in:_________?

A: Psoriasis B: Pemphigoid C: Stevens Johnson syndrome D: Candidiasis

Free Oral Pathology MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

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