Free Oral Pathology MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

Q1 : Of the following which is most common disorder causing pain about the masticatory apparatus including the TMJ_____________?

A: Traumatic arthritis B: Trigeminal neuralgia C: Myofacial pain dysfunction syndrome D: Degenerative arthritis

Q2 : Chemical mumps’ is synonymous with_____________?

A: Epidemic parotitis B: Iodine mumps C: Nutritional mumps D: Nonspecific mumps

Q3 : Patient comes with pain pharyngeal region and is having carcinoma of nasopharynx. The diagnosis is _____________?

A: Horner’s syndrome B: Glossopharyngeal neuralgia C: Trotter’s syndrome D: Eagles syndrome

Q4 : Treacher collins syndrome is______________?

A: Maxillofacial Dysostosis B: Mandibulofacial Dysostosis C: Maxillomandibulofacial Dysostosis D: Condylar Dysostosis

Q5 : A patient with multiple impacted supernumerary teeth and can bring his shoulders together is suffering from______________?

A: Klinefelter’s syndrome B: Trisomy 21 C: Down’s syndrome D: Cleidocranial dysostosis

Q6 : Dentinal union of two embryologically developing teeth is referred as______________?

A: Gemination B: Twinning C: Concrescence D: Fusion

Q7 : Sjorgen’s syndrome includes all except____________?

A: Xerostomia B: Keratoconjunctivitis C: Arthritis D: Lymphoma

Q8 : The most likely diagnosis in a 23 year old, mentally alert, male dwarf with disproportionate arm and leg to body growth, prominent forehead and retruded maxilla is_______________?

A: Cretinism B: Pituitary dwarfism C: Acromegaly D: Achondroplasia

Q9 : The cyst which is found within the bone at the junction of teh globular process, the lateral nasal process & maxillary process is______________?

A: Naso-alveolar cyst B: Globulomaxillary cyst C: Naso palatine cyst D: Mid palatine cyst

Q10 : Median rhomboid glossits is associated is associated with_________________?

A: Oral cancer B: fungal infection C: Leukoplakia D: Burning sensation of tongue

Q11 : Paget’s disease of bone is a chronic disease of the________________?

A: Prepubertal skeleton B: Pubertal skeleton C: Infantile skeleton D: Adult skeleton

Q12 : Class III malocclussion is seen in all of the following except___________________?

A: pierre robinson syndrome B: Cleft palate C: Cleidocranial dysplasia D: Craniofacial dysostosis

Q13 : Dentinogenesis imperfecta is________________?

A: Autosomal dominant B: Autosomal recessive C: Se* linked recessive D: Not a inheritable trait

Q14 : A patient with fibrous dysplasia can be treated by________________?

A: Surgical excision B: Removal of adjacent teeth C: Irradiation of the lesion D: Conservative surgery

Q15 : Each of the following cyst is associated with an impacted tooth except:___________?

A: Dentigerous cyst B: Clacifying epithelial odontogenic cyst C: Keratocyst D: Primordial cyst

Q16 : A patient 18 years of age with sebaceous cysts on the scalp and back of the neck an osteroma on the right mandible: Radiographs reveal multiple impacted supernumerary teeth in both jaws. These findings suggest_______________?

A: Cleidocranial dysostosis B: Ectodermal dysplasia C: Gardner’s syndrome D: Osteogenesis imperfecta

Q17 : Brittle bone syndrome is caused by______________?

A: Improper synthesis of procollagen B: Polymerisation of collagen C: Increase osteoclastic activity D: Increase fibroblastic activity

Q18 : In lichen planus the basal cells which are shrunken with an eosinophilic cytoplasm and with a pyknotic and fragmented nuclei are called__________?

A: Tzanck cells B: Civatte bodies C: Donovan bodies D: Rushton bodies

Q19 : A tooth with a 3 month history of pain, which was worse when hot liquid were in mouth. After extraction, the tooth was split open. The pulp chamber was completely filled with pus. A few remnants of pulp tissue were found in apical end. The condition is:__________?

A: Acute partial pulpits B: Acute total pulpits C: Suppurative pulpitis D: Strangulation of pulp

Q20 : A 3-year old patient reports of painless progressive bilateral facial swellings. The tentative diagnosis is______________?

A: Cherubism B: Monostotic fibrous dysplasia C: Ployostotic fibrous dysplasia D: Central giant cell granuloma

Q21 : Which of the following is a soft tissue cyst which do not produce any radiographic changes______________?

A: Nasolabial cyst B: Nasopalatine cyst C: Mid alveolar cyst D: Palatine cyst

Q22 : Trotter’s syndrome involves_____________?

A: Pharynx B: Oropharynx C: Larynx D: Nasopharynx

Q23 : Ghost (shadow) cells are seen in:___________?

A: Amebloblastic fibroodontoma B: Calcifying odontogenic cyst C: Compound odontoma D: All of the above

Q24 : Which of the following is not a type of lichen planus?

A: Atrophic B: Hypertrophic C: Verrucous D: Erosive

Q25 : An attack of cluster headache can be aborted by _____________?

A: Morphine administration B: Breathing oxygen C: Aspirin administration D: Sublingual nitroglycerine administration

Q26 : Ground glass appearance in bone is seen in_____________?

A: Hyper parathyroidism B: Fibrous dysplasia C: Condensing osteitis D: Osteopetrosis

Q27 : Facial nerve paralysis is common with:___________?

A: Pleomorphic adenoma B: Epidermoid carcinoma C: Warthin’s stumour D: Lymphoepithelial carcinoma

Q28 : In ectodermal dysplasia all of the following structures are affected except:___________?

A: Hair B: Nails C: Teeth D: Salivary glands

Q29 : A twenty-one-year-old woman complains that regular, gentle brushing of her teeth is painful besides causing profuse bleeding. Oral examination reveals the loss of epithelium from the attached gingival of both arches. Which of the following dermatological problems is this patient most likely to have?

A: Benign mucous membrane pemphigiod B: Chronic discoid lupus erythematosus C: Pemphigus D: Psoriasis

Q30 : Which of the following salivary gland tumors has highest rate of malignant transformation?

A: Patrotid B: Submanidbular C: Sublingual D: Minor

Q31 : A 4 year old child with one tooth less than the normal dentition shows large tooth with two crowns and two root canals, the anamoly is______________?

A: Dilaceration B: Fusion C: Gemination D: Concrescence

Q32 : Anodontia affects the growth of________________?

A: Maxilla B: Mandible C: Alveolar bone D: Cranium

Q33 : Odontogenic keratocyst has the following feature:____________?

A: Occurs due to infection periapically B: Is developmental in origin C: Can be treated by aspiration D: Has low recurrence rate

Q34 : A non-neoplastic hereditary bone lesion, histologically similar to central giant cell granuloma affects children and shows, a bilateral involvement of the jaws with eye to heaven appearance clinically is_______________?

A: Fibrous dysplasia B: Cherubism C: Craniofacial dysostosis D: Chondro-ectodermal dysplasia

Q35 : All of the following lesions may be classified as Odontogenic Tumours EXCEPT:

A: Acanthomatous ameloblastoma B: Branchial cleft cyst C: Myxoma D: Simple ameloblastoma

Q36 : In a middle – aged man the radiograph shows cotton-wool appearance and blood investigation reveal an elevated alkaline phosphatase levels. The tentative diagnosis is____________?

A: Paget’s disease B: Cherubism C: Fibrous dysplasia D: Osteogenesis imperfecta

Q37 : Precocious puberty is most characteristic of which of the following ?

A: Jaffe’s syndrome B: Monostotic fibrous dysplasia C: Abright’s syndrome D: Osteogenesi imperfecta

Q38 : Cotton-wool appearance is seen in______________?

A: Peget’s disease B: Osteoclerosis C: Pariapical cemential dysplasia D: Ossifying fibroma

Q39 : The most common odontogenic cyst is:____________?

A: Primordial cyst B: Dentigerous cyst C: Radicular cyst D: Mucocele

Q40 : Carbamazepine has been utilized to successfully diminish attacks in trigeminal neuralgia. During this therapy which of the following is indicated ?

A: Clinical observation only B: Clinical observation and complete blood and platelet counts prior to and at frequent intervals during therapy C: No monitoring D: Complete blood investigation only if adverse symptoms arise

Q41 : A girl suffering from browing of teeth, wearing of enamel but not cavitory, OPG shows obliteration of pulp with narrowing of canal & deposition of secondary dentin, she gave the history that out of her 4 brothers 2 are suffering from the same disease, She is suffering from_______________?

A: melogenesis imperfecta B: Dentinogenesis imperfecta C: Flurosis D: Odontodysplasia

Q42 : Geniculate neuralgia is caused in the nerve______________?

A: VII B: IX C: X D: II

Q43 : MONRO’s abscess are seen in:____________?

A: Pemphigus B: Lichen planus C: Leukoplakia D: Psoriasis

Q44 : A diffuse spreading inflammatory lesion is due to bacterial enzyme

A: Coagulase B: Hyaluronidase C: Peroxidase D: Bradykinin

Q45 : Mask-like appearance of face with narrowing of aperture and rigidity of the mucosa is characteristic of______________?

A: Progressive systemic sclerosis B: Tetanus C: Multiple sclerosis D: Osteomalacia

Q46 : Pindborg tumor arises from:_________?

A: Basal layer of cells B: Stratum intermedium C: Stratum corneum D: Both B & D

Q47 : Clavicle is absent is______________?

A: Osteogenesis imperfecta B: Cleidocranial dysostosis C: Fibrous dysplasia D: Osteopetrosis

Q48 : The epithelium of a dentigerous cyst is:___________?

A: 15-20 cell thick B: 6-10 cell thick C: 2-4 cell thick D: 1-2 cell thick

Q49 : Immature bony trabeculae are found in_____________?

A: Fibrous dysplasia B: Paget’s disease C: Rickets D: Cleidocranial Dysplasia

Q50 : A patient with ameloblastoma of the jaw can best be treated by:_____________?

A: Irradiation B: Excision C: Enucleation D: Surgical removal followed by cauterization

Q51 : Anti-convulsants frequently used in management of trigeminal neuralgia are_______________?

A: Phenytoin B: Gabapentin C: Baclofen D: All of the above

Q52 : Mixed tumour of the salivary glands are_______________?

A: Most common in submandibular gland B: Usually malignant C: Most common in parotid gland D: Associated with calculi

Q53 : Robinson’s classification of ameloblastoma does not include:___________?

A: Multicentric B: Non-Functional C: Anatomically benign D: clinically persistent

Q54 : Lichen planus:____________?

A: Can undergo malignant change B: Treated only by medication C: Must be excised D: Is a idiosyncrasy reaction

Q55 : Multiple odontogenic keratocyst are associated with:____________?

A: Gardner’s syndrome B: Gorlin-Goltz syndrome C: Goldenhar’s syndrome D: Grinspan syndrome

Q56 : Oral lesions are not seen in:_________?

A: Psoriasis B: Pemphigoid C: Stevens Johnson syndrome D: Candidiasis

Q57 : Which of the following features are of naso alveolar cyst_______________?

A: An avoid shaped radiolucency above the lateral incisor and canine teeth B: Erosion of base above lateral incisor and canine teeth C: An inverted funnel shaped radiolucent lesion above the roots of lateral incisor and canine teeth D: A pear shaped radiolucent lesion between roots of lateralincisor and canine teeth

Q58 : White radiating lines can be observed in case of lesions of:___________?

A: Lichen planus B: Erythema multiforme C: Pemphigus D: Leukoplakia

Q59 : Which of the following is wrong about keratocyst:

A: Haw low recurrence rate B: Has low protein content C: High recurrence rate D: B and C

Q60 : Chronic periostitis in children is known as__________?

A: Cherubism B: Garre’s osteomyelitis C: Histiocytosis X D: Tuberculous osteomyelitis

Q61 : According to Veau’s classification of cleft lip & palate, isolated cleft palate falls under______________?

A: Group I B: Group II C: Group III D: Group IV

Q62 : A multilocular cyst of the jaw is more likely:__________?

A: Dental cyst B: Dentigerous cyst C: Keratocyst D: Simple bone cyst

Q63 : Erythema multiformae is:___________?

A: An acute self limiting disease, of skin and oral mucous membrane B: painless vesicular self limiting disease C: A viral disease D: Bacterial infection

Q64 : The histopathology of osteopetrosis shows_______________?

A: Endosteal bone formation and lack of normal bone resorption B: Periosteal bone formation and lack of normal bone resorption C: Persence of extra collagen fibres and less calcification resulting in resistance of bones to fracture D: Presence of numerous osteoclasts and a few osteoblasts

Q65 : Commonest salivary gland tumour in children______________?

A: Lymphoma B: Pleomorphic adenoma C: Adenoid cystic carcinoma D: Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

Q66 : Odontogenic epithelium responsible for the formation of dental cyst is:___________?

A: Cell rests of seirre B: Enamel organ C: Reduced enamel epithelium D: Cell rests of malassez

Q67 : Severe pain which arise after injury to or sectioning of a peripheral sensory nerve is called as____________?

A: Temporal arteritis B: Neuralgia C: Neuritis D: Causalgia

Q68 : Oral lesion associated with ulcerative colitis?

A: Lichen planus B: pyostomatitis vegentanus C: sarcoidosis D: Dermatitis herpetiformis

Q69 : In which of the following disorders a circulating antibody directed to intercellular cementing substance of stratified squamous epithelium is observed:_________?

A: Lichen planus B: Verrucous vulgaris Verrucous vulgaris C: Verrucous vulgaris D: Pemphigus vulgari

Q70 : Which one of the following is the cause of dilacerations ?

A: Trauma to the tooth germ during root development B: Abnormal displacement of tooth germ during root development C: Abnormal proliferation of enamel epithelium during tooth development D: Abnormal displacement of ameloblasts during tooth formation

Q71 : The following site is the common involvement in case of Myositis ossificans_______________?

A: Massetor B: Hyoglossus C: Stylohyoid D: Lateral pterygoid

Q72 : In Cicatrial pemphigoid, which antigen is bound by IgG on the epidermal side of the salt split skin technique:___________?

A: XVII collagen B: Epiligrin C: Laminin 5 D: BP antigen 1 & 2

Q73 : Which of the following is an oral manifestation of lichen planus?

A: Dentinogenesis imperfecta B: Fordyce spots C: White, chalky enamel surface D: White radiating lines on the buccal mucosa

Q74 : Generalised hyper cementesis is seen in_______________?

A: Hypophosphatasia B: Pagets disease C: Fibrous dysplasia D: Cherubism

Q75 : Horner’s syndrome Does NOT include_____________?

A: Ptosis B: Anhydrosis C: Flushing D: Mydriasis

Q76 : Hypoplastic defects in permanent central and lateral incisors are likely to result due to severe illness or other factors during_______________?

A: First nine month of life B: First two years of life C: First month of life D: Two or three years of life

Q77 : Complication of Rheumatoid arthritis of condyle is______________?

A: Fibrous ankylosis B: Subluxation C: Dislocation D: None of the above

Q78 : Oral diagnostic features of scleroderma include all of the following, except:__________?

A: A hard and a rigid tongue B: Widening of the oral aperture C: Pseudo ankylosis of the T.M joint D: Difficulty in swallowing

Q79 : Fordyce’s spots are________________?

A: Fat tissue embedded in buccal mucosa B: Red spots C: Present on the cheek mucosa lateral to angle of the mouth D: All of the above

Q80 : Which of the following is absent in Crest syndrome

A: calcinosis cutis B: Raynaud’s phenomenon C: Telagietasis D: Endocrine disorders

Q81 : Leisegang rings are found in:___________?

A: Calcifying epithelial odontogenic cyst B: Primordial cyst C: Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor D: Odontoma

Q82 : Pathologic calcification is seen in:__________?

A: Scleroderma B: Lichen planus C: Dystrophic epidermolysis bullosa D: Lupus erythematosus

Q83 : The treatment for a child with cherubism is______________?

A: surgical excision B: cosmetic surgery after puberty C: radiation D: Enbloc dissection

Q84 : A patient complains of loss of visual acuity, deafness and enlargement of maxilla_______________?

A: Paget’s disease B: Osteomalacia C: Fibrous dysplaisa D: Osteogenesis imperfecta

Q85 : The tooth most commonly involved in chronic focal sclerosing osteomyelitis is:___________?

A: Maxillary second molar B: Maxillary third molar C: Maxillary first molar D: Mandibular first molar

Q86 : Which of the following is a true neoplasm of functional cementoblasts:

A: Periapical cemental dysplasia B: Familial cemental dysplasia C: Benign cementoblastoma D: Hypercementosis

Q87 : Easy fatigability of muscles seen in______________?

A: Epilepsy B: MPDS C: Myasthenia gravis D: Cerebral palsy

Q88 : Orange peel and Ground glass radiographic appearance is observed in case of______________?

A: Pagets disease B: Weing’s sarcoma C: Osteosarcoma D: Fibrous dysplasia

Q89 : Lesions associated with vital tooth?

A: condensing osteitis B: cementoma C: Periapical abscess D: None of the above

Q90 : The most common salivary gland malignant neoplasm in bones______________?

A: Plemorphic adenoma B: Adenoid cystic carcinoma C: Muceopidermoid carcinoma D: Adenolymphoma

Q91 : A salivary gland tumour, which histologically shows a double layer of epithelial cells based on a reactive lymphoid stroma is_______________?

A: Pleomorphic adenoma B: Mucoepidermoid carcinoma C: Acinic cell tumour D: Warthin tumour

Q92 : Scleroderma involves:__________?

A: Tightening of oral mucosa and periodontal involvement B: Multiple palmar keratosis C: Raynaud’s phenomenon D: All of the above

Q93 : Bell’s Palsy is characterized by_____________?

A: Bilateral involvement of the side of the face B: Inability to whistle C: No loss of muscular control D: Closing of the eyes

Q94 : Immunoflourescence is seen at basement membrane as patchy distribution in:___________?

A: Lichen planus B: Pemphigus C: Pemphigoid D: Lupus erythematosus

Q95 : Preauricular pain, grating sensation and partial trismus are the symptons of______________?

A: TMJ fibrous ankylosis B: TMJ bony ankylosis C: TMJ pain dysfurction symdnome D: Ear infection

Q96 : A 36 year old man with an asymptomatic swelling in the body of the mandible with radiographic features of radiolucency with radiopaque flecks in suffering from:

A: Odontogenic keratocyst B: Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor (CEOT) C: Ameloblastoma D: None of the above

Q97 : The most common cause of TMJ ankylosis is______________?

A: Trauma B: Osteoarthritis C: Childhood illness D: Rheumatoid arthritis

Q98 : Sialoliths are stones found in the salivary duct and gland and are primarily composed of_____________?

A: Hydroxyapatitie B: Potassium cloride C: Unknown compounds of phosphats D: Calcium chloride

Q99 : Which of the following parotid malignancy shows perineural spread_______________?

A: Pleomorphic adenoma B: Adenoid cystic carcinoma C: Warthin’s tumor D: Ductal papilloma

Q100 : All of the following are inherited disorders of connective tissue EXCEPT:

A: Alport syndrome B: Ehlers-Danlos syndrome C: Marfan syndrome D: McArdle’s disease

Free Oral Pathology MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

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