Free Oral Pathology MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

Q1 : Streptococcus mutans produces an adhesive polymer from sucrose, known as:__________?

A: Levans B: Lectins C: Glucans D: Polyfructans

Q2 : A cyst occurs under the tongue, caused by obstruction of a salivary gland. Such a cyst is called_______________?

A: Mucocele B: Ranula C: Dermoid cyst D: Dentigerous cyst

Q3 : Naso Labial cyst is thought to arise from_______________?

A: Remnants of cell rests of serrae B: Remnants of cell rests of mallasez C: Remnants of cell rests of embryonic lacrimalduct D: Maxillary sinus lining epithelium

Q4 : “Xerostomia” is seen in all of the following EXCEPT in_______________?

A: Anticholinergic drugs B: Dehydration C: Sjogren’s syndrome D: Oral sepsis

Q5 : Progression of dental caries caries on pit and fissure occurs from:

A: Apex of the pit and fissure B: Wide and of the pit and fissure C: Lateral surface of the pit and fissure D: Bottom of the pit and fissure

Q6 : Which of the following is more prone to osteomyelitis:__________?

A: Maxilla B: zygoma C: palatine bone D: mandible

Q7 : Pindborg tumor arises from:_________?

A: Basal layer of cells B: Stratum intermedium C: Stratum corneum D: Both B & D

Q8 : Bimanual palpation technique is carried out for____________________?

A: Submandibular gland B: Sublingual gland C: Ranula D: Cervical lymph nodes when they are enlarged due to inflammation

Q9 : Which one of the following is the cause of dilacerations ?

A: Trauma to the tooth germ during root development B: Abnormal displacement of tooth germ during root development C: Abnormal proliferation of enamel epithelium during tooth development D: Abnormal displacement of ameloblasts during tooth formation

Q10 : Orange peel and Ground glass radiographic appearance is observed in case of______________?

A: Pagets disease B: Weing’s sarcoma C: Osteosarcoma D: Fibrous dysplasia

Q11 : Bell’s Palsy is characterized by_____________?

A: Bilateral involvement of the side of the face B: Inability to whistle C: No loss of muscular control D: Closing of the eyes

Q12 : During a routine checkup a 70 year old male is found to have Serum Alkaline Phosphatase three time the upper limit of normal. Serum Calcium, Serum Phosphorous and liver function tests are normal. The most likely diagonsis is______________?

A: Primary hyperparathyroidism B: Paget’s disease of the bone C: Osteomalacia D: Metastatic bone disease

Q13 : Marked reduction in amount of dentin, widening of predentin layer, presence of large area of interglobular dentin and irregular pattern of dentin is seen in______________?

A: Hypocalcified dentin B: Odonto dysplasia C: Dentin dysplasia D: Dentinogenesis imperfecta

Q14 : Brittle bone syndrome is caused by______________?

A: Improper synthesis of procollagen B: Polymerisation of collagen C: Increase osteoclastic activity D: Increase fibroblastic activity

Q15 : Clavicle is absent is______________?

A: Osteogenesis imperfecta B: Cleidocranial dysostosis C: Fibrous dysplasia D: Osteopetrosis

Q16 : Failure of descent of thyroid analage can be seen in the tongue______________?

A: In anterior 2/3 of dorsal aspect B: In posterior 1/3 of dorsal aspect C: Near the base of tongue close to foramen caecum D: In anterior 2/3 of inferior surface

Q17 : A patient with ameloblastoma of the jaw can best be treated by:_____________?

A: Irradiation B: Excision C: Enucleation D: Surgical removal followed by cauterization

Q18 : Dental cyst:_______________?

A: Occurs from the reduced enamel epithelium B: Occurs from the reduced enamel epithelium C: Is frequently seen with a missing tooth on the X-ray D: Cystic lining of stratified squamous epithelium

Q19 : A 7-year old child having yellowish discoloured spot of maxillary central incisor. His mother presents a history of injury to deciduous tooth 3 years back with recurrent infection & swelling. The diagnosis is_______________?

A: Turners hypoplasia B: Generalised dental fluorosis C: Syphillitic hypoplasia D: Rickets hypomineralisation

Q20 : The most ideal expianation for recurrence of odontogenic keratocyst is:____________?

A: Increased mitotic activity of the epithelial lining B: Friability of the epithelial lining C: Presence of satellite cysts or daughter cysts D: Continued proliferation of rests of dental lamina

Q21 : Pemphigus is characterized by:____________?

A: Acanthosis B: Acantholysis C: Hyperorthokeratosis D: Hyperparakeratosis

Q22 : The recurrence of pleomorphic adenoma is attributed to____________?

A: Presence of an incomplete capsule B: Mixed origin C: Absence of capsule D: Perineural spread

Q23 : The cyst with highest recurrence rate is:_____________?

A: Keratocyst B: Periapical cyst C: Nasoalveolar cyst D: Globulamaxilary cyst

Q24 : A 3-year old patient has extensive vesicles on lip, tongue, oral mucous membrane, After 2-4 days vesicles rupture at followed by pseudomembrane formation and also some dermal lesions seen what will be the diagnosis?

A: Herpetic stomatitis B: EM C: ANUG D: Steven-Johnson syndrome

Q25 : Pathologic calcification is seen in:__________?

A: Scleroderma B: Lichen planus C: Dystrophic epidermolysis bullosa D: Lupus erythematosus

Q26 : Mutation in GNAS 1 gene is associated with________________?

A: Fibrous dysplasia B: Ossifying fibroma C: Focal cementoosseous dysplasia D: Periapical cementoosseous dysplasia

Q27 : The most common odontogenic tumour which occurs in relationto an unerupted tooth in the anterior maxilla:____________?

A: Odontogenic adenomatoid tumour B: Odontoma C: Myxoma D: Cementifying fibroma

Q28 : Leafless fruit laden tree or cherry-blossom appearance on a sialogram indicates_____________?

A: Mucoepidermoid cell carcinoma B: Acinar cell carcinoma C: Sjogren’s syndrome D: Pleomorphic adenoma

Q29 : Which of the following is a soft tissue cyst which do not produce any radiographic changes______________?

A: Nasolabial cyst B: Nasopalatine cyst C: Mid alveolar cyst D: Palatine cyst

Q30 : The epithelium of a dentigerous cyst is:___________?

A: 15-20 cell thick B: 6-10 cell thick C: 2-4 cell thick D: 1-2 cell thick

Q31 : Frey’s syndrome results from surgery of the ______________?

A: Submandibular salivary gland B: Parotid gland C: sublingual salivary gland D: TMJ

Q32 : Erosive lichen planus resembles which of the following:

A: Monilial gingivitis B: Desquamative gingivitis C: Herpetic gingivitis D: Acute ulcerative gingivitis

Q33 : Sjorgen’s syndrome includes all except____________?

A: Xerostomia B: Keratoconjunctivitis C: Arthritis D: Lymphoma

Q34 : If a patient with Raynaud’s disease puts his hand in cold water, the hand appears_______________?

A: Red B: Yellow C: White D: Blue

Q35 : A 25 year old male patient reports with bony expansile swelling of the right body of the mandible & mild paresthesia of the right IDN. OPG shows a multi locular radiolucency without root resorption. What would be your choice of next investigation?

A: Excision biopsy B: Aspiration Cytology C: CT Scan D: Pet Bone scan

Q36 : Facial paralysis is tested by_______________?

A: Whistling B: chewing C: Protruding the tongue D: Swallowing

Q37 : A deep pit lined by enamel seen in the lingual surface of Maxillary lateral incipor is most likely to be_______________?

A: Dens in dente B: Enamel Hypoplasia C: Talon’s cusp D: Enamel Pearl

Q38 : Mucocele most commonly arise as a result of_____________?

A: Rupture of a salivary duct B: Partial or complete compression of the salivary acini C: . Inflammatory changes in the glandular interestitial tissue D: Partial or complete obstruction of teh salivary duct by calculus

Q39 : Compound odontoma shows:______________?

A: Mixed tissue of dental origin with no resemblance to tooth structure B: Numerous tooth like structure with denticles commonly found in maxillary lateral incisors C: Haphazardly arranged calcified mass D: All of the above

Q40 : All of the following are inherited disorders of connective tissue EXCEPT:

A: Alport syndrome B: Ehlers-Danlos syndrome C: Marfan syndrome D: McArdle’s disease

Q41 : Abscess formation is particularly characteristic of infections with which of the following microorganisms:_____________?

A: Viruses B: Rickettsiae C: Streptococci D: Streptococci

Q42 : Best way to differentiate a periapical cyst and a perapical granuloma is:__________?

A: Radiographically B: Histologically C: Clinically D: None of the above

Q43 : The most common odontogenic cyst is:____________?

A: Primordial cyst B: Dentigerous cyst C: Radicular cyst D: Mucocele

Q44 : Radiographic finding in pindborg tumour is:___________?

A: Sun-burst appearance B: Onion – peel appearance C: Driven-snow appearance D: Cherry -blossom appearance

Q45 : Dental anomaly of teeth associated with defective bone formation is seen in_______________?

A: amelogenesis imperfecta B: dentinogenesis imperfecta C: Odontodysplasia D: Osteitis deformans

Q46 : Geniculate neuralgia is caused in the nerve______________?

A: VII B: IX C: X D: II

Q47 : Which of the following is most common development cyst________________?

A: Nasopalatine cyst B: Naso-alveolar cyst C: Globulomaxillary cyst D: Median palatal cyst

Q48 : According to Veau’s classification of cleft lip & palate, isolated cleft palate falls under______________?

A: Group I B: Group II C: Group III D: Group IV

Q49 : Premaxilla-premaxillary cyst_________________?

A: Nasoalveolar cyst B: Nasopalatine cyst C: Incisive canal D: Globulomaxillary cyst

Q50 : Spindle cell carinoma is a variant of_____________?

A: Pleomorphic Adenoma B: Adenoid cystic carcinoma C: Basal cell carcinoma D: Squamous cell carcinoma

Q51 : Hairy tongue is characterized by____________?

A: Hypertrophy of fungiform papillae B: Hypertrophy of foliate papillae C: Hypertrophy of filiform papillae D: Hypertrophy of circumvallate papillae

Q52 : Osteosarcoma characteristically may develop in some causes of______________?

A: Osteopetrosis B: Osteogenesis imperfecta C: Acromegaly D: Osteitis deformans

Q53 : A flat, cricumscribed discolouration of skin or mucosa that may vary in size and shape is referred to as:____________?

A: Epulits B: Macule C: Nodule D: papule

Q54 : Treatment for cementoma?

A: No treatment B: Pulpectomy C: Resection of jaw D: None of the above

Q55 : The granulomatous tissue that is responsible for destruction of articular surfaces of TMJ in rheumatoid arthritis is known as________________?

A: Pannus B: Pulse granuloma C: Pulse granuloma D: Immune granuloma

Q56 : Leisegang rings are found in:___________?

A: Calcifying epithelial odontogenic cyst B: Primordial cyst C: Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor D: Odontoma

Q57 : Bullae formation after striking an intact skin/mucosal surface is known as:__________?

A: Tinel’s sign B: Bablnski’s sign C: Nikolsky’s sign D: Chovstek’s sign

Q58 : Which of the following is an odontogenic tumor?

A: Arrhenoblastoma B: Astrocytoma C: Ameloblastoma D: Granular cell tumor

Q59 : Dentigerous cyst is suspected if the follicular space is more than:

A: 2-3 mm B: 3-4 mm C: 1-2 mm D: >5 mm

Q60 : Which of the following is wrong about keratocyst:

A: Haw low recurrence rate B: Has low protein content C: High recurrence rate D: B and C

Q61 : A 10-years-old child presents with anemia and recurrent fractures. The X-ray shows diffuse hyper density of bone The diagnosis is most likely to be______________?

A: Osteogenesis imperfecta B: Osteopetrosis C: Osteochondroma D: Hyperparathyroidism

Q62 : An asymptomatic tooth has deep has deep caries on occlusal surface. Radiograph shows radiopaque mass at apex of the tooth: this mass is most likely to be:____________?

A: Cementoma B: Condensing Osteitis C: Chronic apical periodontitis D: Acute apical periodontitis

Q63 : Cyst arising from rests of malassez is:___________?

A: Dental cyst B: Dentigerous cyst C: Radicular cyst D: Karato cyst

Q64 : Saliva is increased by_____________?

A: Cholinergic drugs B: Anticholinergic drugs C: Andrenergic drugs D: None of the above

Q65 : Developing Ameloblasts are effected by the ingestion of high fluoride content water resulting in______________?

A: Turners tooth B: Hutchinson’s teeth C: Mottled enamel D: Moon’s molars

Q66 : Pleomorphic adenoma arises from______________?

A: Myoepithelial cells B: Aciner cells C: Connective tissue D: Stem cells

Q67 : Psoralane Ultraviolet A (PUVA) therapy is advised in__________?

A: Pemphigus vulgaris B: Apthous ulcers C: Carcinoma in situ D: ANUG

Q68 : Amber coloured tooth traslucency, blue sclerae and bone fragility and a history of pervious bone fractures are characteristic findings in_____________?

A: Osteoporosis B: Osteogenesis imperfecta C: Osteitis deformans D: Osteitis fibrosa cystic

Q69 : Easy fatigability of muscles seen in______________?

A: Epilepsy B: MPDS C: Myasthenia gravis D: Cerebral palsy

Q70 : Class III malocclussion is seen in all of the following except___________________?

A: pierre robinson syndrome B: Cleft palate C: Cleidocranial dysplasia D: Craniofacial dysostosis

Q71 : Anodontia affects the growth of________________?

A: Maxilla B: Mandible C: Alveolar bone D: Cranium

Q72 : Salivary duct calculi______________?

A: produce pain on eating B: Are commonest in the parotid ducts C: Are common cause of acute parotitis D: Are associated with hypercaleaemic states

Q73 : In children the most frequently missing permanent teeth are________________?

A: First premolars B: Second Premolars C: Max. lateral incisors D: Mandibular lateral incisors

Q74 : The 2nd common most supernumerary teeth is________________?

A: Mesiodens B: Distal to 3rd molar in maxilla C: Distal to mandibular 3rd molar D: Para molars

Q75 : Estesin pearls are cysts that arise from_________________?

A: Squamous tissue of the mucosa B: Connective tissue of the mucosa C: Rests of malassez D: Dental lamina

Q76 : Acinic cell carcinomas of the salivary gland arise most often in the_______________?

A: Parotid salivary gland B: Minor salivary glands C: Submandibular salivary gland D: Sublingual salivary gland

Q77 : Odontogenic keratocyst has the following feature:____________?

A: Occurs due to infection periapically B: Is developmental in origin C: Can be treated by aspiration D: Has low recurrence rate

Q78 : White radiating lines can be observed in case of lesions of:___________?

A: Lichen planus B: Erythema multiforme C: Pemphigus D: Leukoplakia

Q79 : Venous malformation involving the leptomeninges of the cerebral cortex is salient feature of_____________?

A: Rendu-Osler-Weber disease B: Maffuci’s syndrome C: Angioosteohypertrophy syndrome D: Sturge weber syndrome

Q80 : Which of the following has the potential of undergoing Spontaneous malignant transformation _____________?

A: Osteomalacia B: Albright’s syndrome C: Paget’s disease of bone D: Osteogenesis imperfecta

Q81 : Mask-like appearance of face with narrowing of aperture and rigidity of the mucosa is characteristic of______________?

A: Progressive systemic sclerosis B: Tetanus C: Multiple sclerosis D: Osteomalacia

Q82 : Ground glass appearance in bone is seen in_____________?

A: Hyper parathyroidism B: Fibrous dysplasia C: Condensing osteitis D: Osteopetrosis

Q83 : Which of the following statement is false in relation to myofacial pain dysfunction syndrome ?

A: Maily affects young females B: is caused by muscle fatigue due to chronic oral habits are grinding and clenching C: Treatment involves construction of occlusal guard and stress free emotional condition D: The perioral musculature becomes hypotonic

Q84 : Which of the following are seen in ectodermal dysplasia?

A: Hyperpyrexia B: Protuberant lips and frontal bossing C: Defective or absence of sweat glands D: Any of the above

Q85 : Horner’s syndrome Does NOT include_____________?

A: Ptosis B: Anhydrosis C: Flushing D: Mydriasis

Q86 : Commonest site for ectopic salivary gland tumour is_______________?

A: Tongue B: Cheek C: Palate D: Neck

Q87 : Mixed tumour of the salivary glands are_______________?

A: Most common in submandibular gland B: Usually malignant C: Most common in parotid gland D: Associated with calculi

Q88 : Which of the following is inherited as a autosomal dominant triat?

A: Lichen planus B: Bullous pemphigoid C: Pemphigus yulgaris D: White sponge nevus

Q89 : A child with Down’s syndrome has Moon facies, retarded mentally and which of the facial characteristic________________?

A: Maxillary prognathism B: Mandibular retrognathia C: Mandibular prognathism D: Maxillary hypoplasia

Q90 : Which of the following diseases of the skin is the most likely to be associated with partial anodontia?

A: calcinosis cutis B: Raynaud’s phenomenon C: Telagietasis D: Endocrine disorders

Q91 : TENS therapy is useful in ______________?

A: MPDS B: Trigeminal neuralgia C: Facial palsy D: Neurosis

Q92 : Lupus erythematosus is:____________?

A: Reactive lesion B: Degenerative condition C: Autoimmune disorder D: Neoplastic condition

Q93 : Erythema multiformae is:___________?

A: An acute self limiting disease, of skin and oral mucous membrane B: painless vesicular self limiting disease C: A viral disease D: Bacterial infection

Q94 : Turners tooth is seen in_____________?

A: enamel hypoplasia due to hypocalcemia B: enamel hypoplasia due to birth injuries C: enamel hypoplasia due to congenital syphilis D: enamel hypoplasia due to local infection or local trauma

Q95 : Which is a degeneration disorder characterized by atrophic changes of the deeper structures (e.g fat, muscle, cartilage & bone) involving one side of the face:

A: Scleroderma B: Parry Romberg syndrome C: Miescher’s syndrome D: peutz-Jeghers syndrome

Q96 : A patient complains of loss of visual acuity, deafness and enlargement of maxilla_______________?

A: Paget’s disease B: Osteomalacia C: Fibrous dysplaisa D: Osteogenesis imperfecta

Q97 : A 6 year old patient with extra cusp on maxillary central incisor is associated with all except______________?

A: Mohr’s syndrome B: Sturge-Weber Syndrome C: Rubinstein Taybi Syndrome D: Proteus Syndrome

Q98 : A patient with fibrous dysplasia can be treated by________________?

A: Surgical excision B: Removal of adjacent teeth C: Irradiation of the lesion D: Conservative surgery

Q99 : Fish Net pattern is pemphigus vulgaris is seen in which of the following tests?

A: Direct immunofluorescence B: Tzanck smear C: FNAC D: Histopathology

Q100 : Chocolate-coloured fluid is seen in the cystic space of_______________?

A: Dentigerous cyst B: Odontogenic deratocyst C: Unicystic ameloblastoma D: Papillary cystadenoma lymphomatosum

Free Oral Pathology MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

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