Free Oral Pathology MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

Q1 : Severe pain which arise after injury to or sectioning of a peripheral sensory nerve is called as____________?

A: Temporal arteritis B: Neuralgia C: Neuritis D: Causalgia

Q2 : True about caries, all except:

A: Infectious and transmissible B: Not due to microorganisms C: Can develop in the absence of sucrose D: Microorganisms play the most essential role

Q3 : Standard treatment of ameloblastoma:

A: Segmental resection with 1 cm of normal bone B: Enbloc resectio C: Enucleation D: Enucleation with cauterization

Q4 : Delayed dentition with multiple supernumerary teeth is seen in________________?

A: Hypoparathyroidism B: Cleidocranial dysplasia C: Pierre Robin Syndrome D: Mongolism (Down’s Syndrome

Q5 : Which of the following are characteristic feature of cherubism______________?

A: Premature exfoliation of primary teeth B: Hypoplastic defects C: Progressive painless symmetric D: A + C

Q6 : COC is now called as:___________?

A: Odontogenic ghost cell tumor B: Dentinogenic ghost cell tumor C: Keratcysticodontogenic tumour D: A & C

Q7 : A permanent tooth with a local hypoplastic deformity in a crown is called_______________?

A: Turner’s tooth B: Taurodontism C: Enameloma D: Ghost teeth

Q8 : Grinspan syndrome is associated with:_________?

A: Hypertension, diabetes, lichen planus B: Oral, ocular, genital lesions C: Hypertension with oral lesions D: lemphigus, CHF, diabetes

Q9 : Which of the following parotid malignancy shows perineural spread_______________?

A: Pleomorphic adenoma B: Adenoid cystic carcinoma C: Warthin’s tumor D: Ductal papilloma

Q10 : L.E Cell phenomenon in peripheral blood is seen in:__________?

A: Rheumatic heart disease B: Infective endocarditis C: Ischemic heart disease D: Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

Q11 : Histological clefts in lichen planus are____________?

A: Civatte bodies B: Wickham’s Striae C: Max – Joseph spaces D: Auspitz’s sign

Q12 : The primary causative factor for myofacial pain dysfunction syndrome of the TMJ is_______________?

A: Infratemporal space infection B: Auriculotemporal neuritis C: Muscular overextension and over contraction D: Otitis media

Q13 : Bimanual palpation technique is carried out for____________________?

A: Submandibular gland B: Sublingual gland C: Ranula D: Cervical lymph nodes when they are enlarged due to inflammation

Q14 : Garre’s chronic non suppurative sclerosing osteomyelitis is characterized clinically by:____________?

A: Endosteal bone formation B: Periosteal bone formation C: Resorption of medullary bone D: Resorption of cortical bone

Q15 : Preauricular pain, grating sensation and partial trismus are the symptons of______________?

A: TMJ fibrous ankylosis B: TMJ bony ankylosis C: TMJ pain dysfurction symdnome D: Ear infection

Q16 : Pleomorphic adenoma arises from______________?

A: Myoepithelial cells B: Aciner cells C: Connective tissue D: Stem cells

Q17 : Scleroderma involves:__________?

A: Tightening of oral mucosa and periodontal involvement B: Multiple palmar keratosis C: Raynaud’s phenomenon D: All of the above

Q18 : Which of the following statement is false in relation to myofacial pain dysfunction syndrome ?

A: Maily affects young females B: is caused by muscle fatigue due to chronic oral habits are grinding and clenching C: Treatment involves construction of occlusal guard and stress free emotional condition D: The perioral musculature becomes hypotonic

Q19 : A 6 year old patient with extra cusp on maxillary central incisor is associated with all except______________?

A: Mohr’s syndrome B: Sturge-Weber Syndrome C: Rubinstein Taybi Syndrome D: Proteus Syndrome

Q20 : Easy fatigability of muscles seen in______________?

A: Epilepsy B: MPDS C: Myasthenia gravis D: Cerebral palsy

Q21 : Which of the following represents soluble polysaccharide found in dental plaque and is formed from the fructose moiety of sucrose?

A: Levan B: Dextran C: Amlyopecting D: Hyaluronic acid

Q22 : Multiple fractures are seen in______________?

A: Rickets B: Osteogenesis imperfecta C: Osteomyelitis D: Osteoma

Q23 : Acute osteomyelitis is most frequently caused by which of the following microorganisms?

A: Gonococcus B: Enterococcus C: Streptococcus D: Staphylococcus

Q24 : Salivary gland aplasia is seen in_________________?

A: Hemifacial microstomia B: LADD syndrome C: Mandibulo-facial dysostosis (Treacher Collins) D: All of the above

Q25 : Ectodermal dysplasia is:___________?

A: Autosomal recessive B: Autosomal dominant C: X-linked dominant D: X-linked recessive

Q26 : IN MPDS which muscle is most apt to exhibit tenderness________________?

A: Temporalis B: Buccinator C: Masseter D: Lateral pterygoid

Q27 : Compound odontoma shows on a radiograph as:____________?

A: Supernumerary teeth B: Radiolucent and radiopaque areas C: Masses of calcified areas D: Distinguishable tooth – like structures

Q28 : Which of the following is Fissural cyst is_______________?

A: Dentigerous cyst B: Primordial cyst C: Nasopalatine cyst D: Radicular cyst

Q29 : Which of the following is unlikely to cause enamel hypoplasia ?

A: Rickets B: Fluoride C: Congenital syphilis D: Cleidocranial dysostosis

Q30 : The latest drug of the choice in the management in trigeminal neuralgia is______________?

A: valproic acid B: carbamazepine C: Diphen hydantoin D: None of the above

Q31 : Venous malformation involving the leptomeninges of the cerebral cortex is salient feature of_____________?

A: Rendu-Osler-Weber disease B: Maffuci’s syndrome C: Angioosteohypertrophy syndrome D: Sturge weber syndrome

Q32 : Which of the following is a soft tissue cyst which do not produce any radiographic changes______________?

A: Nasolabial cyst B: Nasopalatine cyst C: Mid alveolar cyst D: Palatine cyst

Q33 : Periapical cyst is usually preceded by:__________?

A: Periapical granuloma B: Periodontal abscess C: Periapical abscess D: All of the above

Q34 : Koebner’s phenomenon is seen with_____________?

A: Erythema multiforme B: Pemphigoid C: Psoriasis D: Impetigo

Q35 : A 4 year old child with one tooth less than the normal dentition shows large tooth with two crowns and two root canals, the anamoly is______________?

A: Dilaceration B: Fusion C: Gemination D: Concrescence

Q36 : A 10-years-old child presents with anemia and recurrent fractures. The X-ray shows diffuse hyper density of bone The diagnosis is most likely to be______________?

A: Osteogenesis imperfecta B: Osteopetrosis C: Osteochondroma D: Hyperparathyroidism

Q37 : Bell’s Palsy is characterized by_____________?

A: Bilateral involvement of the side of the face B: Inability to whistle C: No loss of muscular control D: Closing of the eyes

Q38 : Gardner syndrome does not include______________?

A: Osteomas B: Epidermoid cysts C: Osteosarcoma D: Impacted permanent teeth

Q39 : All of the following lesions may be classified as Odontogenic Tumours EXCEPT:

A: Acanthomatous ameloblastoma B: Branchial cleft cyst C: Myxoma D: Simple ameloblastoma

Q40 : Which of the following drugs is not effective in case of Trigeminal Neuralgia ?

A: Carbamazipine B: acetaminophen C: phenytoin sodium D: phenytoin sodium

Q41 : Multiple odontogenic keratocyst are associated with:____________?

A: Gardner’s syndrome B: Gorlin-Goltz syndrome C: Goldenhar’s syndrome D: Grinspan syndrome

Q42 : Adeno lymphoma refers to_______________?

A: Adeno carcinoma B: Adeno cystic lymphoma C: Warthin’s tumour D: Pleomorphic adenoma

Q43 : Taurodontism is usually seen in_________________?

A: Mesiodens B: Incisor with talon/cusp C: Mandibular first molar D: Maxillary premolars

Q44 : Spindle cell carinoma is a variant of_____________?

A: Pleomorphic Adenoma B: Adenoid cystic carcinoma C: Basal cell carcinoma D: Squamous cell carcinoma

Q45 : Osteomyelitis begins as an inflammation of:__________?

A: Cortical bone B: Periosteum C: Medullary bone D: periosteum and inner cortex

Q46 : A 40 year old woman has meloblastoma, the histomorphologic features will be:___________?

A: Peripheral palisading cellular strand with central loose stellate reticulum B: Peripheral palisading with central stromal retraction artefact C: Peripheral palisading cellular strand with peripheral loose stellate reticulum D: Central loose stellate reticulum shows marked nuclear atypia and numerous mitotic

Q47 : Patient suffering form Eagle’s syndrome complains of__________________?

A: burning sensations in mouth B: excessive salivation C: Glossodynia D: Dysphagia

Q48 : Which of the following is most common development cyst________________?

A: Nasopalatine cyst B: Naso-alveolar cyst C: Globulomaxillary cyst D: Median palatal cyst

Q49 : Progression of dental caries caries on pit and fissure occurs from:

A: Apex of the pit and fissure B: Wide and of the pit and fissure C: Lateral surface of the pit and fissure D: Bottom of the pit and fissure

Q50 : Intra Oral pleomorphic adenoma usually occurs in_______________?

A: Buccal mucosa B: Upper lip C: Floor of the mouth D: Palate

Q51 : Patient comes with pain pharyngeal region and is having carcinoma of nasopharynx. The diagnosis is _____________?

A: Horner’s syndrome B: Glossopharyngeal neuralgia C: Trotter’s syndrome D: Eagles syndrome

Q52 : Oral lesions are not seen in:_________?

A: Psoriasis B: Pemphigoid C: Stevens Johnson syndrome D: Candidiasis

Q53 : Cysts associated with vital teeth are_______________?

A: Dentigerous cyst, Globulomaxillary cyst, lateral periodontal cyst, OKC B: Dentigerous cyst, Globulomaxillary cyst, radicular cyst C: Dentigerous cyst OKC, radicular cyst D: B’ & ‘C’

Q54 : Which of the following is more prone to osteomyelitis:__________?

A: Maxilla B: zygoma C: palatine bone D: mandible

Q55 : Best way to differentiate a periapical cyst and a perapical granuloma is:__________?

A: Radiographically B: Histologically C: Clinically D: None of the above

Q56 : Mask-like appearance of face with narrowing of aperture and rigidity of the mucosa is characteristic of______________?

A: Progressive systemic sclerosis B: Tetanus C: Multiple sclerosis D: Osteomalacia

Q57 : Odontogenic keratocyst has the following feature:____________?

A: Occurs due to infection periapically B: Is developmental in origin C: Can be treated by aspiration D: Has low recurrence rate

Q58 : Sjogren’s syndrome affects_____________?

A: Exocrine glands B: Paracrine glands C: Endocrine glands D: Autocrine glands

Q59 : Dental anomaly of teeth associated with defective bone formation is seen in_______________?

A: amelogenesis imperfecta B: dentinogenesis imperfecta C: Odontodysplasia D: Osteitis deformans

Q60 : The torus mandibularis most commonly seen in the region of______________?

A: Incisor region B: Canine region C: Molar region D: Premolar region

Q61 : Trigeminal neuralgia_______________?

A: Does not disturb the patient during sleep B: Can be treated with NSAID’s C: Always bilateral in distribution D: Is a hereditary condition

Q62 : Clavicle is absent is______________?

A: Osteogenesis imperfecta B: Cleidocranial dysostosis C: Fibrous dysplasia D: Osteopetrosis

Q63 : Which of the following are seen in ectodermal dysplasia?

A: Hyperpyrexia B: Protuberant lips and frontal bossing C: Defective or absence of sweat glands D: Any of the above

Q64 : The most common salivary gland malignant neoplasm in bones______________?

A: Plemorphic adenoma B: Adenoid cystic carcinoma C: Muceopidermoid carcinoma D: Adenolymphoma

Q65 : Which of the following structures are associated with bells palsy______________?

A: sub mandibular gland B: Seventh cranial nerve C: Temporomandibular joint D: Glosso pharyngeal nerve

Q66 : Chocolate-coloured fluid is seen in the cystic space of_______________?

A: Dentigerous cyst B: Odontogenic deratocyst C: Unicystic ameloblastoma D: Papillary cystadenoma lymphomatosum

Q67 : What is non characteristic of Eagle’s syndrome_______________?

A: Excessive lacrimation B: pain during mandibular movement C: Stabbing type pain orginate in the tonsillar regions D: When the jaws are closed the pain subsided

Q68 : Pathologic calcification is seen in:__________?

A: Scleroderma B: Lichen planus C: Dystrophic epidermolysis bullosa D: Lupus erythematosus

Q69 : Pindborg tumor arises from:_________?

A: Basal layer of cells B: Stratum intermedium C: Stratum corneum D: Both B & D

Q70 : A multilocular cyst of the jaw is more likely:__________?

A: Dental cyst B: Dentigerous cyst C: Keratocyst D: Simple bone cyst

Q71 : Burning Mouth Syndrome describes pain associated with_____________?

A: Oral lichen planus B: Oral submucous fibrosis C: Aphthous stomatitis D: No detectable oral disease

Q72 : A child with Down’s syndrome has Moon facies, retarded mentally and which of the facial characteristic________________?

A: Maxillary prognathism B: Mandibular retrognathia C: Mandibular prognathism D: Maxillary hypoplasia

Q73 : Lesions associated with vital tooth?

A: condensing osteitis B: cementoma C: Periapical abscess D: None of the above

Q74 : The most common odontogenic cyst is:____________?

A: Primordial cyst B: Dentigerous cyst C: Radicular cyst D: Mucocele

Q75 : Dentinal union of two embryologically developing teeth is referred as______________?

A: Gemination B: Twinning C: Concrescence D: Fusion

Q76 : Histopathologically reversal lines are seen in_____________?

A: Cherubism B: Fibrous dysplasia C: Paget’s disease of the bone D: Craniofacial dysplasia

Q77 : The term dilaceration refers to______________?

A: A deformity of a tooth consisting of a sharp bend bend in the root B: Abrasions on two surfaces of single tooth C: A root or tooth that is split into two D: A tooth that is fractured at two or more places

Q78 : The most common organism involved in a periapical abscess is:__________?

A: Strep. Pyogens B: Strep. viridans C: β hemolytic stretococci D: Non hemolytic stretococci

Q79 : Osteosarcoma characteristically may develop in some causes of______________?

A: Osteopetrosis B: Osteogenesis imperfecta C: Acromegaly D: Osteitis deformans

Q80 : Acinic cell carcinomas of the salivary gland arise most often in the_______________?

A: Parotid salivary gland B: Minor salivary glands C: Submandibular salivary gland D: Sublingual salivary gland

Q81 : Treacher collins syndrome is______________?

A: Maxillofacial Dysostosis B: Mandibulofacial Dysostosis C: Maxillomandibulofacial Dysostosis D: Condylar Dysostosis

Q82 : A 36 year old man with an asymptomatic swelling in the body of the mandible with radiographic features of radiolucency with radiopaque flecks in suffering from:

A: Odontogenic keratocyst B: Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor (CEOT) C: Ameloblastoma D: None of the above

Q83 : Fordyce granules mostly occurs in all of the following area EXCEPT________________?

A: Vermilion of the lip B: Posterior tonsillar pillar C: Alveolar ridge D: Palate

Q84 : Organism involved in cellulitis is:___________?

A: Strept. mutans B: Strept. pyogenes C: Pneumococci D: klebsiella

Q85 : A tooth with a 3 month history of pain, which was worse when hot liquid were in mouth. After extraction, the tooth was split open. The pulp chamber was completely filled with pus. A few remnants of pulp tissue were found in apical end. The condition is:__________?

A: Acute partial pulpits B: Acute total pulpits C: Suppurative pulpitis D: Strangulation of pulp

Q86 : Xerostomia, enlargment of salivary and lacrimal glands is seen in______________?

A: Sicca syndrome B: Sjogren’s syndrome C: Mickulicz’s disease D: None of the above

Q87 : Leafless fruit laden tree or cherry-blossom appearance on a sialogram indicates_____________?

A: Mucoepidermoid cell carcinoma B: Acinar cell carcinoma C: Sjogren’s syndrome D: Pleomorphic adenoma

Q88 : Complication of Rheumatoid arthritis of condyle is______________?

A: Fibrous ankylosis B: Subluxation C: Dislocation D: None of the above

Q89 : Developing Ameloblasts are effected by the ingestion of high fluoride content water resulting in______________?

A: Turners tooth B: Hutchinson’s teeth C: Mottled enamel D: Moon’s molars

Q90 : All of the following is the extraglandular manifestation of primary sjogren’s syndrome except________________?

A: Raynaud’s phenomena B: Arthritis C: Lymphadenopathy D: Lymphadenopathy

Q91 : Pain, muscle tenderness, clicking or popping noise in T.M joint and limitation of jaw motion are the four cardinal signs and symptoms of_____________?

A: Costen’s syndrome B: Traumatic arthritis of T.M J C: Ostearthritis D: Myofacial pain dysfunction syndrome

Q92 : Pemphigus is characterized by:____________?

A: Acanthosis B: Acantholysis C: Hyperorthokeratosis D: Hyperparakeratosis

Q93 : The gelatinous deposit adherent on the tooth surface is called as:__________?

A: Materia alba B: Plaque C: Calculus D: All of the above

Q94 : Orange peel and Ground glass radiographic appearance is observed in case of______________?

A: Pagets disease B: Weing’s sarcoma C: Osteosarcoma D: Fibrous dysplasia

Q95 : According to Veau’s classification of cleft lip & palate, isolated cleft palate falls under______________?

A: Group I B: Group II C: Group III D: Group IV

Q96 : Multiple osteomas, multiple polyposis, supernumerary teeth are found in _______ syndrome?

A: Reiter’s B: Peutz – jeghers C: Gardner’s D: Behcet’s

Q97 : A fluid filled elevated lesion of skin is called___________?

A: Bulla B: Macule C: Papule D: Nodule

Q98 : Wickham’s striae are seen in:__________?

A: Lichen planus B: Leukoplakia C: Leukoedema D: Erythema multiformae

Q99 : Lesion of facial nerve at level of stylomastoid foramen leads to____________?

A: Loss of taste sensation from Ant. 2/3 of tongue B: Paralysis of orbicularis oculi muscle C: Loss of innervation to stapedius D: Loss of lacrimal secretion

Q100 : In ectodermal dysplasia all of the following structures are affected except:___________?

A: Hair B: Nails C: Teeth D: Salivary glands

Free Oral Pathology MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

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