Free Oral Pathology MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

Q1 : Based on the degree to which apical displacement of the pulpal floor is seen, Cynodont is the name given to_____________?

A: Hypotaurodont B: Mesotaurodont C: Hypertaurodont D: Normal tooth

Q2 : Oral lesion associated with ulcerative colitis?

A: Lichen planus B: pyostomatitis vegentanus C: sarcoidosis D: Dermatitis herpetiformis

Q3 : Which of the following statement is FALSE?

A: A salivary duct obstruction can cause a unilateral swelling in the floor of the mouth that is largest before a meal and smallest after a meal B: The lesion termed a ranula is associated with the sublingual salivary gland C: The sublingual salivary gland is the most common site of salivary gland neoplasia D: A pleomorphic adenoma is the most common salivary gland neoplasm

Q4 : Immature bony trabeculae are found in_____________?

A: Fibrous dysplasia B: Paget’s disease C: Rickets D: Cleidocranial Dysplasia

Q5 : Pathologic calcification is seen in:__________?

A: Scleroderma B: Lichen planus C: Dystrophic epidermolysis bullosa D: Lupus erythematosus

Q6 : Which of the following drugs is not effective in case of Trigeminal Neuralgia ?

A: Carbamazipine B: acetaminophen C: phenytoin sodium D: phenytoin sodium

Q7 : A fluid filled elevated lesion of skin is called___________?

A: Bulla B: Macule C: Papule D: Nodule

Q8 : Periapical cyst is usually preceded by:__________?

A: Periapical granuloma B: Periodontal abscess C: Periapical abscess D: All of the above

Q9 : Which of the following is most common development cyst________________?

A: Nasopalatine cyst B: Naso-alveolar cyst C: Globulomaxillary cyst D: Median palatal cyst

Q10 : If a patient with Raynaud’s disease puts his hand in cold water, the hand appears_______________?

A: Red B: Yellow C: White D: Blue

Q11 : Tzancks smear test is used in the diagnosis of___________?

A: pemphigus B: ANUG C: Apthous disease D: Lichen planus

Q12 : White radiating lines can be observed in case of lesions of:___________?

A: Lichen planus B: Erythema multiforme C: Pemphigus D: Leukoplakia

Q13 : Target lesions are observed in case of:___________?

A: Erythema multiforme B: Lichenplanus C: Pemphigus vulgaris D: Psoriasis

Q14 : Which of the following has the potential of undergoing Spontaneous malignant transformation _____________?

A: Osteomalacia B: Albright’s syndrome C: Paget’s disease of bone D: Osteogenesis imperfecta

Q15 : Estein Pearls are________________?

A: Gingival cyst of newborn B: Gingival cyst of adult C: Enamel pearls D: Epithelial rests

Q16 : Which of the following is Fissural cyst is_______________?

A: Dentigerous cyst B: Primordial cyst C: Nasopalatine cyst D: Radicular cyst

Q17 : Oral diagnostic features of scleroderma include all of the following, except:__________?

A: A hard and a rigid tongue B: Widening of the oral aperture C: Pseudo ankylosis of the T.M joint D: Difficulty in swallowing

Q18 : Dental cyst:_______________?

A: Occurs from the reduced enamel epithelium B: Occurs from the reduced enamel epithelium C: Is frequently seen with a missing tooth on the X-ray D: Cystic lining of stratified squamous epithelium

Q19 : Cyst arising from dental lamina:___________________?

A: Radicular cyst B: Paradental cyst C: Eruption cyst D: Glandular odontogenic cyst

Q20 : Sjorgen’s syndrome includes all except____________?

A: Xerostomia B: Keratoconjunctivitis C: Arthritis D: Lymphoma

Q21 : Naso Labial cyst is thought to arise from_______________?

A: Remnants of cell rests of serrae B: Remnants of cell rests of mallasez C: Remnants of cell rests of embryonic lacrimalduct D: Maxillary sinus lining epithelium

Q22 : Bohn’s nodules are______________?

A: Cystic swellings in neonates B: Cysts associated with soft palate C: Cysts of gingiva in growing children D: Warts on the tongue

Q23 : Absence of pulp chambers is seen in_______________?

A: Craniofacial dysostosis B: Dentinogenesis imperfecta C: Amelogenesis imperfecta D: None of the above

Q24 : Most used selective medium for streptococcus mutans is:____________?

A: Mac conkey medium B: Mitus salivarius bacitracin agar C: Nutrient agar D: Tellurite medium

Q25 : Clear cells are commonly seen in which of the following lesions?

A: Pleomorphic B: Warthins tumor C: Mucoepidermoid D: Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor

Q26 : Osteomyelitis begins as an inflammation of:__________?

A: Cortical bone B: Periosteum C: Medullary bone D: periosteum and inner cortex

Q27 : Histological clefts in lichen planus are____________?

A: Civatte bodies B: Wickham’s Striae C: Max – Joseph spaces D: Auspitz’s sign

Q28 : Gardner syndrome does not include______________?

A: Osteomas B: Epidermoid cysts C: Osteosarcoma D: Impacted permanent teeth

Q29 : In Xerostomia the salivary pH is_______________?

A: Unaffected B: Low C: High D: Increased in morning & decrease in day

Q30 : The earliest radiographic sign of osteomyelitis is___________?

A: Solitary or multiple small radiolucent areas B: Increased granular radioopacity C: Blurring of trabecular outlines D: Formation of sequestrum appearing as radiopaque patches

Q31 : Pindborg tumor arises from:_________?

A: Basal layer of cells B: Stratum intermedium C: Stratum corneum D: Both B & D

Q32 : A deep pit lined by enamel seen in the lingual surface of Maxillary lateral incipor is most likely to be_______________?

A: Dens in dente B: Enamel Hypoplasia C: Talon’s cusp D: Enamel Pearl

Q33 : A patient with multiple impacted supernumerary teeth and can bring his shoulders together is suffering from______________?

A: Klinefelter’s syndrome B: Trisomy 21 C: Down’s syndrome D: Cleidocranial dysostosis

Q34 : A cyst occurs under the tongue, caused by obstruction of a salivary gland. Such a cyst is called_______________?

A: Mucocele B: Ranula C: Dermoid cyst D: Dentigerous cyst

Q35 : Which of the following diseases of the skin is the most likely to be associated with partial anodontia?

A: erythema multiformae B: hereditary actodermal dysplasia C: Keratosis follicularils D: lichen planus

Q36 : Erosive lichen planus resembles which of the following:

A: Monilial gingivitis B: Desquamative gingivitis C: Herpetic gingivitis D: Acute ulcerative gingivitis

Q37 : Parotid fatty change is sign of_____________?

A: Aging B: Alcoholism C: Malnutrition D: None of the above

Q38 : In Cicatrial pemphigoid, which antigen is bound by IgG on the epidermal side of the salt split skin technique:___________?

A: XVII collagen B: Epiligrin C: Laminin 5 D: BP antigen 1 & 2

Q39 : The most common organism involved in a periapical abscess is:__________?

A: Strep. Pyogens B: Strep. viridans C: β hemolytic stretococci D: Non hemolytic stretococci

Q40 : Adenomatoid odontogenic tumour is characterized histologically by:___________?

A: Polyhedral epithelial cells B: Tubular / duct like cells C: Stellate shaped cells D: Stratified squamous epithelial cells

Q41 : Cyst arising from rests of malassez is:___________?

A: Dental cyst B: Dentigerous cyst C: Radicular cyst D: Karato cyst

Q42 : Streptococcus mutans produces an adhesive polymer from sucrose, known as:__________?

A: Levans B: Lectins C: Glucans D: Polyfructans

Q43 : A diffuse spreading inflammatory lesion is due to bacterial enzyme

A: Coagulase B: Hyaluronidase C: Peroxidase D: Bradykinin

Q44 : Lesions associated with vital tooth?

A: condensing osteitis B: cementoma C: Periapical abscess D: None of the above

Q45 : Taurodontism is usually seen in_________________?

A: Mesiodens B: Incisor with talon/cusp C: Mandibular first molar D: Maxillary premolars

Q46 : Robinson’s classification of ameloblastoma does not include:___________?

A: Multicentric B: Non-Functional C: Anatomically benign D: clinically persistent

Q47 : The granulomatous tissue that is responsible for destruction of articular surfaces of TMJ in rheumatoid arthritis is known as________________?

A: Pannus B: Pulse granuloma C: Pulse granuloma D: Immune granuloma

Q48 : Dentigerous cyst is likely to cause which neoplasia?

A: Ameloblastoma B: Adeno carcinoma C: Fibrosarcoma D: All of the above

Q49 : A child with Down’s syndrome has Moon facies, retarded mentally and which of the facial characteristic________________?

A: Maxillary prognathism B: Mandibular retrognathia C: Mandibular prognathism D: Maxillary hypoplasia

Q50 : Lichenoid reactions are mainly due to:____________?

A: intake of certain drugs B: betel nut chewing C: cigarette smoking D: intake of alcohol

Q51 : Immunoflourescence test is positive in:____________?

A: Psoriasis B: pemphigus vulgaris C: Lupus erythematosus D: Both B & C

Q52 : Which of the following Orofacial pain is not associated with vascular origin ?

A: Cluster headache B: Giant cell arteritis C: Anaesthesia dolorosa D: Chronic paroxysmal hemicrania

Q53 : Corticosteroids are useful in treatment of TMJ arthritis because they have_____________?

A: An analgesic effects B: An anti-inflammatory effect C: Inhibitory effect on synovial membrane D: Analgesic and anti-inflammatory effect

Q54 : Best way to differentiate a periapical cyst and a perapical granuloma is:__________?

A: Radiographically B: Histologically C: Clinically D: None of the above

Q55 : Warthins tumor is_____________?

A: An adenolymphoma of the parotid gland B: A pleomorphic adenoma of parotid gland C: Carcinoma of the parotid gland D: None of the above

Q56 : Precocious puberty is most characteristic of which of the following ?

A: Jaffe’s syndrome B: Monostotic fibrous dysplasia C: Abright’s syndrome D: Osteogenesi imperfecta

Q57 : Eruption cyst:______________?

A: Transforms into dentigerous cyst B: Regresses after eruption of the tooth C: Is found in the place of the missing tooth D: Is a type of dentigerous cyst

Q58 : Fish Net pattern is pemphigus vulgaris is seen in which of the following tests?

A: Direct immunofluorescence B: Tzanck smear C: FNAC D: Histopathology

Q59 : Serum alkaline phosphatase levels are increased in_______

A: Osteorthritis B: Dentinogenesis imperfecta C: Paget’s disease D: Rheumatoid arthitis

Q60 : Chemical mumps’ is synonymous with_____________?

A: Epidemic parotitis B: Iodine mumps C: Nutritional mumps D: Nonspecific mumps

Q61 : A 4 year old child with one tooth less than the normal dentition shows large tooth with two crowns and two root canals, the anamoly is______________?

A: Dilaceration B: Fusion C: Gemination D: Concrescence

Q62 : The most ideal expianation for recurrence of odontogenic keratocyst is:____________?

A: Increased mitotic activity of the epithelial lining B: Friability of the epithelial lining C: Presence of satellite cysts or daughter cysts D: Continued proliferation of rests of dental lamina

Q63 : Mucocutaneous lesions associated with neoplasia____________?

A: pemphigus vegentans B: Parapemphigus C: Paraneoplastic pemphigus D: familial benign pemphigus

Q64 : Which of the following are seen in ectodermal dysplasia?

A: Hyperpyrexia B: Protuberant lips and frontal bossing C: Defective or absence of sweat glands D: Any of the above

Q65 : Organism involved in cellulitis is:___________?

A: Strept. mutans B: Strept. pyogenes C: Pneumococci D: klebsiella

Q66 : A patient shows inability to close the right corner of the mouth is most probably suffering form_______________?

A: Myasthenia gravis B: Bell’s palsy C: TMJ dysfunction syndrome D: Multiple sclerosis

Q67 : Which of the following are a triad of the sign and symptoms of osteogenesis imperfecta________________?

A: blue sclera, sparse hair, anhydrosis B: enlarged hand, feet, maxilla, mandible C: enlarged hand, feet, maxilla, mandible D: blue sclera, arachnodactyly, brittle bones

Q68 : Ghost (shadow) cells are seen in:___________?

A: Amebloblastic fibroodontoma B: Calcifying odontogenic cyst C: Compound odontoma D: All of the above

Q69 : Radiographic finding in pindborg tumour is:___________?

A: Sun-burst appearance B: Onion – peel appearance C: Driven-snow appearance D: Cherry -blossom appearance

Q70 : A 6 year old patient with extra cusp on maxillary central incisor is associated with all except______________?

A: Mohr’s syndrome B: Sturge-Weber Syndrome C: Rubinstein Taybi Syndrome D: Proteus Syndrome

Q71 : A 4-year old child has a normal complemented of primary teeth but they are gray and exhibit extensive occlusal and incisal weaRadiographic examination indicates extensive deposits of secondary dentin in these teeth. Most likely this condition is______________?

A: Neonatal hypoplasia B: Amelogenesis imperfecta C: Cleidocranial dysplasia D: Dentinogenesis imperfecta

Q72 : All of the following are true about trigeminal neuralgia EXCEPT______________?

A: it is unilateral B: it is of throbbing nature C: it is triggered by touching cheeks, mucosa etc D: occurs in bouts

Q73 : Oral ocular and genital lesions are seen in:__________?

A: Erythema multiforma B: Steven Johnson syndrome C: SLE D: None of the above

Q74 : Developing Ameloblasts are effected by the ingestion of high fluoride content water resulting in______________?

A: Turners tooth B: Hutchinson’s teeth C: Mottled enamel D: Moon’s molars

Q75 : The caries of enamel surface leads to accentuation of:__________?

A: Incremental lines of retzius B: Perikymata C: Imbrication lines of pickerill D: Wickham’s striae

Q76 : Facial nerve paralysis is common with:___________?

A: Pleomorphic adenoma B: Epidermoid carcinoma C: Warthin’s stumour D: Lymphoepithelial carcinoma

Q77 : Which of the following is unlikely to cause enamel hypoplasia ?

A: Rickets B: Fluoride C: Congenital syphilis D: Cleidocranial dysostosis

Q78 : In lichen planus the basal cells which are shrunken with an eosinophilic cytoplasm and with a pyknotic and fragmented nuclei are called__________?

A: Tzanck cells B: Civatte bodies C: Donovan bodies D: Rushton bodies

Q79 : Which of the following structures are associated with bells palsy______________?

A: sub mandibular gland B: Seventh cranial nerve C: Temporomandibular joint D: Glosso pharyngeal nerve

Q80 : Chronic periostitis in children is known as__________?

A: Cherubism B: Garre’s osteomyelitis C: Histiocytosis X D: Tuberculous osteomyelitis

Q81 : A 40 year old woman has meloblastoma, the histomorphologic features will be:___________?

A: Peripheral palisading cellular strand with central loose stellate reticulum B: Peripheral palisading with central stromal retraction artefact C: Peripheral palisading cellular strand with peripheral loose stellate reticulum D: Central loose stellate reticulum shows marked nuclear atypia and numerous mitotic

Q82 : Which of the following is a true neoplasm of functional cementoblasts:

A: Periapical cemental dysplasia B: Familial cemental dysplasia C: Benign cementoblastoma D: Hypercementosis

Q83 : A multilocular cyst of the jaw is more likely:__________?

A: Dental cyst B: Dentigerous cyst C: Keratocyst D: Simple bone cyst

Q84 : Steven-Johnson syndrome involves:____________?

A: Type I hypersensitivity reactions B: Type II hypersensitivity reactions C: Type III hypersensitivity reactions D: Type IV hypersensitivity reactions

Q85 : The fascial spaces involved in ludwig’s angina are___________?

A: Unilateral – submandibular & sublingual spaces B: Bilateral – submandibular & sublingual spaces C: Unilateral – submandibular sublingual & submental spaces D: Bilateral – submandibular sublingual & submental spaces

Q86 : During a routine checkup a 70 year old male is found to have Serum Alkaline Phosphatase three time the upper limit of normal. Serum Calcium, Serum Phosphorous and liver function tests are normal. The most likely diagonsis is______________?

A: Primary hyperparathyroidism B: Paget’s disease of the bone C: Osteomalacia D: Metastatic bone disease

Q87 : Keratocyst has all of the following features except:___________?

A: It is more common in mandible B: May be filled with thin straw coloured fluid C: Low recurrence rate D: Expansion of bone clinically seen

Q88 : In which of the following disorders a circulating antibody directed to intercellular cementing substance of stratified squamous epithelium is observed:_________?

A: Lichen planus B: Verrucous vulgaris Verrucous vulgaris C: Verrucous vulgaris D: Pemphigus vulgari

Q89 : Which syndrome consists of flushing, warmness and perspiration over the cheek and pinna of the ear on the side following the ingestion of highly seasoned food ?

A: Fanconi’s B: Auriculotemporal C: Horner’s D: Cushin’s

Q90 : Ameloblastoma most frequently occurs in:___________?

A: Mandibular moral region B: Maxillary molar region C: Mandibular premolar region D: Maxillary premolar region

Q91 : A patient with ameloblastoma of the jaw can best be treated by:_____________?

A: Irradiation B: Excision C: Enucleation D: Surgical removal followed by cauterization

Q92 : Patient comes with pain pharyngeal region and is having carcinoma of nasopharynx. The diagnosis is _____________?

A: Horner’s syndrome B: Glossopharyngeal neuralgia C: Trotter’s syndrome D: Eagles syndrome

Q93 : Treatment for cementoma?

A: No treatment B: Pulpectomy C: Resection of jaw D: None of the above

Q94 : Intra Oral pleomorphic adenoma usually occurs in_______________?

A: Buccal mucosa B: Upper lip C: Floor of the mouth D: Palate

Q95 : Amelogenesis imperfecta is a disorder of_____________?

A: Ectoderm B: Mesoderm C: Endoderm D: Ecto and Mesoderm

Q96 : Bimanual palpation technique is carried out for____________________?

A: Submandibular gland B: Sublingual gland C: Ranula D: Cervical lymph nodes when they are enlarged due to inflammation

Q97 : True generalized microdontia is characterized by______________?

A: Small teeth with large jaw B: Small teeth with small jaws C: Smaller teeth than the normal D: Large teeth with small jaws

Q98 : Which of the following are characteristic feature of cherubism______________?

A: Premature exfoliation of primary teeth B: Hypoplastic defects C: Progressive painless symmetric D: A + C

Q99 : All of the following are inherited disorders of connective tissue EXCEPT:

A: Alport syndrome B: Ehlers-Danlos syndrome C: Marfan syndrome D: McArdle’s disease

Q100 : Dental anomaly of teeth associated with defective bone formation is seen in_______________?

A: amelogenesis imperfecta B: dentinogenesis imperfecta C: Odontodysplasia D: Osteitis deformans

Free Oral Pathology MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

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