Free Pathology MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

Q1 : In a thrombus, the dark lines of zahn are due to_______________?

A: Coagulated fibrin B: Aggregated proteins C: Aggregated platelets D: Aggregated R.B.C

Q2 : In which one of the following organs the venous emboli are most often iodged ?

A: Lungs B: Kidneys C: Intestines D: Heart

Q3 : Synthesis of DNA occurs in Which phase of cellAcycle________________?

A: Mitosis – M phase B: Gap – G2 phase C: Gap – G1 phase D: Synthesis – S phase

Q4 : Coagulative necrosis is_______________?

A: Characteristic of focal bacterial infections B: Characteristic of hypoxic death C: Characteristic by loss of tissue architecture D: None of the above

Q5 : Amyloidosis is commonly associated with_____________?

A: Chronic osteomyelitis B: Periostitis C: Acute osteomyelitis D: Multiple myeloma

Q6 : The type of acute myelogenous leukemia associated with a high incidence of disseminated intravascular coagulation in________________?

A: Acute erythroleukaemia B: Acute promyelocytic leukaemia C: Acute megakaryocytic leukaemia D: Acute myelomonocytic leukaemia

Q7 : Severe generalized edema is called as_______________?

A: Myxoedema B: Pitting edema C: Anasarca D: Dependent edema

Q8 : The vasoactive amine that causes vasodilatation released during inflammation is found in which of the cell______________?

A: Plasma cells B: Lymphocytes C: Monocytes D: Mast cells

Q9 : Hyper segmented neutrophils are seen in_________________?

A: Megaloblastic anemia B: Iron deficiency anemia C: Thalassemia D: Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura

Q10 : Serum sickness syndrome is_____________?

A: A transplant immunity B: An anaphylactic shock C: Systemic arthus reaction D: None of the above

Q11 : Tumour involving epiphysis of long bone is____________?

A: Osteogenic sarcoma B: Osteoclastoma C: Ewings sarcoma D: Chondro sarcoma

Q12 : Anaplasia is_______________?

A: Lack of functional differentiation B: Lack of structural differentiation C: Is a characteristic feature of malignancy D: All of the above

Q13 : Christmas disease is due to deficiency of________________?

A: Factor IX B: Factor X C: Factor VIII D: Factor V

Q14 : Which of the following is a hemolytic anemia________________?

A: Sickle cell anemia B: Thalassemia C: Hereditary spherocytosis D: All of the above

Q15 : The factor which gives strength in wound healing_____________?

A: Collagen B: Blood supply C: Growth factors D: Hormones

Q16 : Which cell releases vasoactive amine so as to increase vascular permeability ?

A: Leukocyte B: Marcophage C: Mast cell D: Fibroblast

Q17 : A patient reports with dyspnoea on slight exertion. He also has multiple petechial spots and spontaneous hemorrhage. His RBC count is less than one lakh/mm3 His hematocrit and hemoglobin is low. Most probable diagnosis is______________?

A: Pernicious anemia B: Thalassemia C: Aplastic anemia D: Sprue

Q18 : Which one of the following does not present antigens ?

A: NK cells (Netural killer cells) B: Dendritic cells C: Langerhan’s cells D: Macrophages

Q19 : Which of the following is commonly involved in multiple myeloma_______________?

A: Clavicle B: Vertebrae C: Pelvis D: Lungs

Q20 : Syndrome associated with increased risk of leukemia is__________?

A: Plummer vinson syndrome B: Klinefelter syndrome C: Sturge weber syndrome D: Multiple hamartoma syndrome

Q21 : The most common site of origin for venous thrombi leading to pulmonary embolism is_____________?

A: Ascending oaorta B: Portal vein C: Deep leg veins D: Right atrium

Q22 : Hypoxic death leads to__________________?

A: Liquefactive necrosis B: Coagulative nacrosis C: Caseous necrosis D: Fat necrosis

Q23 : Malignant tumour of epithelial origin is_______________?

A: Carcinoma B: Sarcomas C: Papilloma D: All of the above

Q24 : The process of phagocytosis was discovered by___________?

A: Celsus B: Elie Metchnikoff C: Virchow D: None of the above

Q25 : Which of the following is a nutritional deficiency anemia______________?

A: aplastic anemia B: sickle cell anemia C: megaloblastic anemia D: hemolytic anemia

Q26 : Which of the following cells are more abundant in chronic inflammation than in acute inflammation ?

A: Plasma cells B: Eosinophils C: Neutrophils D: Normoblats

Q27 : Some micro organisms produce a diffuse spreading inflammatory reaction due to the elaboration of____________?

A: Coagulase B: Peroxidase C: Bradykinin D: Hyaluronidase

Q28 : A haemophilia person has married to a normal woman Then his___________?

A: Daughter are carrier B: Sons are infected C: Daughter are infeted D: All are normal

Q29 : Malignant neoplasms shows all the following features EXCEPT_____________?

A: Disorganized cell structure B: Encapulation C: Invasion of blood vessels D: Rapid, erratic growth

Q30 : Active hypermia is seen in_______________?

A: Muscles during exercise B: Inflammation C: Blushing D: All of the Above

Q31 : Increased proliferation of cells is called_______________?

A: Hypertrophy B: Atrophy C: Hyperplasia D: Metaplasia

Q32 : Reed – Sternberg cells are seen in histopathological examination of_______________?

A: African jaw lymphoma B: Hodgkin’s disease C: Burkitt’s lymphoma D: Infectious mononucleosis

Q33 : Which of the following is correctly matched_______________?

A: Coagulation necrosis Tuberculosis B: Caseation yellow fever C: Fat necrosis Pancreatitis D: Gumma infarction

Q34 : In Hodgkin’s disease the lymphoa cells seen are__________________?

A: Eosinophilis B: Plasma cells C: Reed-sternberg cells D: Giant cells

Q35 : Prostate specific antigen is used as____________?

A: Tumor marker B: Proto oncogene C: Oncogene D: Bacterial antigen

Q36 : The first even in primary wound healing__________?

A: Epithelial changes B: Organization C: Formation of blood cloth D: Acute inflammatory response

Q37 : In left ventricular cardiac failure there is_____________?

A: Passive Congestion in lungs B: Passive congestion in liver C: Active hyperemia in lungs D: None of the above

Q38 : Which of the following has least capacity for regeneration_________________?

A: Cardiac muscle B: Skeletal muscle C: Neurons D: All of the above

Q39 : Usually metastatic lesions are osteolytic, but osteoblastic secondaries occur in cancer of_______________?

A: Thyroid B: Prostate C: Kidney D: Uterus

Q40 : All of the following statements are true regarding cervicofacial actinomycosis, EXCEPT_____________?

A: 110-20% of actinomycosis cases occur in cervicofacial region B: . The discharging pus contains visible sulphur granules C: Cultures on blood agar often produce a typical molar tooth morphology D: There is usually history of trauma such as tooth extraction or a blow to the jaw

Q41 : In hemephilic patient which of the following should not be given_______________?

A: Factor VIII concentrate B: Cryoprecipitate C: EACA D: Platelet factor

Q42 : Which of the following is not present in lungs ?

A: Clara cells B: Langerhans cells C: Brush cells D: Klutischky cells

Q43 : Hemophilia_______________?

A: Affects males and females equally B: Increased clotting time in all patients C: Nerve blocks can be given safely D: Is a congenital disorder

Q44 : All of the following drugs are non depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agents except_______________?

A: D-tubocurarine B: Gallamine triethiodide C: Pancuronium bromide D: Succinylcholine

Q45 : All of the following about prostaglandins and leukotriene are correct except________________?

A: Arachidonic acid is metabolized to form prostaglandins and leukotrienes B: COX-1 is inducible in many tissues C: COX is induced by cytokines at the site of inflammation D: Leukotrienes cause bronchoconstriction

Q46 : Which of the following procedures is used as a routine technique in karyotyping using light microscopy ?

A: G banding B: C banding C: Q banding D: Brd V-staining

Q47 : Enzymes responsible for suppuration are derived chiefly from_____________?

A: PMN’s B: Lymphocytes C: Monocytes D: Eosinophils

Q48 : HOX gene is responsible for which malformation_____________?

A: Polysyndactyly B: Holoprosencephaly C: Mayer Rokitansky syndrome D: Gorlin syndrome

Q49 : the lesions of bone which is expansile and eccentrically ballooned out is________________?

A: Ossifying fibroma B: Aneurysmal bone cyst C: Fibrous dysplasia D: None of the above

Q50 : Caseation necrosis is suggestive of________________?

A: Tuberculosis B: Sarcoidosis C: Leprosy D: Midline lethal granuloma

Q51 : The protein that carries iron from the gut to the body tissues is called________________?

A: Ferritin B: Haemosiderin C: Myoglobin D: Transferrin

Q52 : Chronic inflammation is characterized by__________?

A: Presence of macrophages B: Tissue C: Proliferation of fibroblasts and endothelial cells D: All of the above

Q53 : In iron deficiency anemia there is_________________?

A: Decrease in hemoglobin B: Increase in hemoglobin C: Increase in palatelets D: Decrease in platelets

Q54 : The commonest site of thrombosis is_______________?

A: Arteries B: Veins C: Capilaries D: Heart

Q55 : The correct nomenclature for Down’s syndrome with translocation of chromosome 14 to chromosome 21 is depicted as______________?

A: 47 X &, (+2) B: 47 X Y, -14 t(14;21) C: 46 X Y, -14 t(14;21) D: 47 X Y, t(14;21)

Q56 : The cell with increased mitotic rate and resembling the undifferentiated mesenchymal cells of the same origin is______________?

A: Anaplastic B: Dysplastic C: Metaplastic D: Hyperplastic

Q57 : IL-1 helps in_____________?

A: Stimulation of T-lymphocytes B: Inhibits of B-lymphocytes C: Inhibits the chemotaxis of neutrophils and macrophages D: Decreases firbroblast and bone resorption activity

Q58 : Lepra cells seen in leprosy are_____________?

A: Lymphocytes B: Plasma cells C: Vacuolated Histocytes D: Neutrophils

Q59 : Thrombosis due to hypercoagulability is seen in____________?

A: Women talking oral contraceptives B: Severe trauma or burns C: Cardiac failure D: All of the above

Q60 : Pulp chambers and roots canals in decidous teeth______________?

A: Wide and deep B: Shallow and narrow C: Wide and narrow D: Shallow and wide

Q61 : In sickle cell anemia there is substitution of_________________?

A: Valine for glutamic acid at the sixth position of beta chain B: Phenylalanine for glutamic acid C: Tyrosine for valine at the 6th position at beta chain D: All of the above

Q62 : Dytrophic calcification are calcifications seen in__________________?

A: Skin layers B: Salivary glands C: Normal tissues D: Dead tissue

Q63 : Major and frequent influence for thrombus formation is________________?

A: Alteration in blood flow B: Alteration in blood flow C: Endothelial damage D: Fatty streak

Q64 : Caissons disease is caused by______________?

A: Amniotic fluid embolism B: Hyper coagulability C: Air or gas embolism D: Tumour embolism

Q65 : Hydrolytic degeneration is characterised by__________________?

A: Caseation B: Coagulation C: Liquefaction D: Fibrinoid

Q66 : An infarct is most frequently is characterized by What type of necrosis ?

A: Fatty B: Caseous C: Gangrenous D: Coagulative

Q67 : The activation of caspases is likely to lead to_________________?

A: Apoptotic cell death B: Blood coagulation C: Mitotic cell division D: G1 to S phase of cell cycle

Q68 : Kviem’s test is diagnostic test for_________________?

A: Actinomycosis B: Diphtheria C: Tuberculosis D: Sarcoidosis

Q69 : Onion skin appearance is seen in_______________?

A: Ewing’s sarcoma B: Osteosarcomazx C: Osteoma D: Fibro sarcoma

Q70 : Which of the following symptomatic atheroscierotic disease is correct_____________?

A: Aorta – Aneurysm, thromboembolism B: Heart – MI, Ischemic heart disease C: Lower extremities – claudication gangrene D: All of the above

Q71 : Three days after the onset of myocardial infarction, which enzyme level has the best predictive value____________?

A: Serum CPK B: Serum LDH C: Serum SGOT D: Serum SGPT

Q72 : In acute inflammation, immediate transient permeability in cells is increased by__________?

A: Direct injury & necrosis B: Endothelial Gaps by histamine C: Leucocyte mediated endothelial injury D: Increased tissue oncotic pressure

Q73 : Bradykinin causes all the following except____________?

A: Smooth muscle contraction B: Dilatation of blood vessels C: Pain D: Opsonisation

Q74 : Lepra cells are seen in abundance in_______________?

A: Tuberculoid leprosy B: Lepromatous leprosy C: Histoid leprosy D: Intermediate leprosy

Q75 : Increased iron binding capacity and decreased serum iron is seen in which anemia________________?

A: Iron deficiency B: Aplastic C: Sickle cell D: Chronic infections

Q76 : Cotton wool appearance is seen ____________________ ?

A: Pagets disease B: Osteomyelitis C: Fibrous dysplasia D: Achondroplasia

Q77 : Saddle embolus causes sudden death by blocking___________?

A: Coronary arteries B: Cerebral arteries C: Pulmonary arteries D: Renal arteries

Q78 : Which of the following is common in all forms of shock ?

A: Sepsis B: Hypovolemia C: Vasoconstriction D: Impaired tissue prefusion

Q79 : Anaphylotoxins are___________?

A: C3a, C5a B: C3b, C5a C: C2, C3 D: C3b, C5b

Q80 : Down syndrome is caused by all except___________?

A: Trisomy of 21 chromosome B: Mosaicism of 21 chromosome C: Robersonian translocation of 21.21, 21.18 D: Deletion of 21

Q81 : Secondary amylodosis is seen most commonly in_______________?

A: Actinomycosis B: Tuberculosis C: Rabies D: Secondary Iues

Q82 : Following is used to stain fungi______________?

A: PAS B: Fontania stain C: Ferrous trichrome D: Pearls prussian blue

Q83 : All of the following are true for exudates, except__________?

A: It has a specific gravity of 1.018 B: It has a low fibrin content C: It has more than 3% proteins D: It is mucinous in consistency

Q84 : Large open wounds that are characterized by tissue loss and repaired by formation of granulation tissue in the floor of the wound is characteristic of______________?

A: Secondary healing B: Primary healing C: Cicatrisation D: Regeneration

Q85 : Which of the following symptomatic atheroscierotic disease is correct_____________?

A: Aorta – Aneurysm, thromboembolism B: Heart – MI, Ischemic heart disease C: Lower extremities – claudication gangrene D: All of the above

Q86 : The process by which red blood cell move out of vessels through widened inter endothelial junction is referred as_____________?

A: Pavementing B: Diapedesis C: Rouleax formation D: Chemotaxis migration

Q87 : Venous emboli are most often lodged in_____________?

A: Intestines B: Lungs C: Kidneys D: Heart

Q88 : The following chemical mediator is a product of arachidonic acid metabolite by cyclo oxygenase pathway____________?

A: LxA4 B: C: D:

Q89 : Reliable screening test for hemophilia is_______________?

A: APTT B: BT C: PT D: CBP

Q90 : Exfoliative cytology is indicated in___________?

A: Heavily keratinized lesions of oral cavity B: Pro-cancerous lesions of oral cavity C: Cigarette smokers D: Mass screening of cervical cancer

Q91 : The host tissue response in acute inflammation is all except______________?

A: Exudative B: Necrotizing C: Granulomatous D: Cytopathic

Q92 : An acute inflammation would attract____________?

A: Monocytes B: Plasma cells C: Neutrophils D: Eosinophils

Q93 : Nut meg liver occurs in_______________?

A: Jaundice B: Chronic venous congestion C: Cirrhosis D: Hepatocellular carcinoma

Q94 : All of the following statements are true regarding reversible cell injury, except______________?

A: Formation of amorphous densities in the mitochondrial matix B: Diminished generation of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) C: Formation of blebs in the plasma membrane D: Detachment of ribosomes from the granular endoplasmic reticulum

Q95 : Osteomalacia is associated with_________________?

A: Decrease in osteoid volume B: Decrease in osteoid surface C: Increase in osteoid maturation time D: Increase in mineral apposition rate

Q96 : A 13 year old boy presents with a large mixed lytic and blastic mass in the metaphyseal region of the lower end of femur. The most likely diagnosis is___________?

A: Ewing’s sarcoma B: Osteosarcoma C: Chondrosarcoma D: Giant cell tumour

Q97 : Chicken-wire appearance of enlarged bone marrow spaces is seen in_______________?

A: Fetal alcohol syndrome B: Sickle cell anaemia C: Haemophilia A D: Beta thalassemia majon

Q98 : Lipofuschin is an insoluble endogenous pigment, also known as___________?

A: Lipochrome B: Aging pigment C: All of the above D: All of the above

Q99 : Gamma gandy bodies are seen in_____________?

A: Liver B: Spleen C: Kidney D: Lung

Q100 : Early positive reaction in lepromin test is___________?

A: Fernandez reaction B: Mituda reaction C: Wasserman reaction D: None of the above

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