Free Pathology MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

Q1 : The necrotic tissue and deposits of immune complexes, complement and plasma protein produce a smudy eosinophilic deposit is termed as_____________?

A: Coagulative necrosis B: Fibrinoid necrosis C: Caesous necrosis D: Caesous necrosis

Q2 : Metastatic calcifications are seen in______________?

A: Hypoparathyroidism B: Vitamin D deficiency C: Hypercalcemia D: All of the above

Q3 : Caseation necrosis is suggestive of________________?

A: Tuberculosis B: Sarcoidosis C: Leprosy D: Midline lethal granuloma

Q4 : An acute inflammatory focus would attract___________?

A: Monocytes B: Plasma cells C: Neutrophils D: Basophils

Q5 : Hemophilia_______________?

A: Affects males and females equally B: Increased clotting time in all patients C: Nerve blocks can be given safely D: Is a congenital disorder

Q6 : Large open wounds that are characterized by tissue loss and repaired by formation of granulation tissue in the floor of the wound is characteristic of______________?

A: Secondary healing B: Primary healing C: Cicatrisation D: Regeneration

Q7 : Tumour arising from secetory and glandular epithelium are__________________?

A: Adenomas B: Adenosarcomas C: Angiomas D: Both A and B

Q8 : Peripheral nerve regenerates at the rate of ________ mm per day?

A: 1 B: 2 C: 0.5 D: 5

Q9 : In Hodgkin’s disease the lymphoa cells seen are__________________?

A: Eosinophilis B: Plasma cells C: Reed-sternberg cells D: Giant cells

Q10 : Sickle cell anemia precipitates when______________?

A: Oxygen tension goes down B: Increased viscosity of blood C: There is dehydration D: All of the above

Q11 : Enzymes responsible for suppuration are derived chiefly from_____________?

A: PMN’s B: Lymphocytes C: Monocytes D: Eosinophils

Q12 : Major site of atheroscierosis_______________?

A: Coronary artery B: Abdominal aorta C: Thoracic aorta D: Internal carotid artery

Q13 : Amyloidosis most commonly occurs in_________________?

A: Kidney B: Spleen C: Liver D: Heart

Q14 : Lepra cells are seen in abundance in_______________?

A: Tuberculoid leprosy B: Lepromatous leprosy C: Histoid leprosy D: Intermediate leprosy

Q15 : Malignant tumour of skeletal muscie is__________________?

A: Rhabdomyoma B: Rhabdomyosarcoma C: Leiomyoma D: Leiomyosarcoma

Q16 : Example of ganulomatous inflammation_____________?

A: Sarcoidosis B: Leprosy C: Tuberculosis D: All of the above

Q17 : The predisposing factor for squamous cell carcinoma __________________?

A: Solar keratosis B: Chronic ulcers C: Leukoplakia D: All of the above

Q18 : Fibrin degradation product help in detection of_______________?

A: haemophilia B: DIC C: Thrombocytopenic purpura D: Thrombasthenia

Q19 : The predominant cells after 48 hours of inflammation are_____________?

A: Monocytes B: Macrophage C: Neutrophils D: A and B

Q20 : Both Pala or red infarcts are seen in______________?

A: Lung B: Brain C: Kidney D: Spleen

Q21 : The specific gravity of transudate is_____________?

A: Below 1.0.10 B: Below 1.012 C: Between 1.012 and 1.020 D: Above 1.020

Q22 : Gingiva are enlarged in leukemia because of__________________?

A: Capillary dilation B: Erythrocyte engorgement C: Edema D: WBC infiltration

Q23 : A child’s CSF was examined I contains slightly raised or normal PMN cells, raised lymphocytes, absence of mycotic growth, value of protein is normal or above normal, glucose level is normal. The most probable diagnosis is____________?

A: Pyogenic bacterial meningitis B: Viral meningitis C: Fungal meningitis D: Tuberculous meningitis

Q24 : A haemophilia person has married to a normal woman Then his___________?

A: Daughter are carrier B: Sons are infected C: Daughter are infeted D: All are normal

Q25 : An excess of which of the following hormones may be associated with increased sensitivity to epinephrine ?

A: Testosterone B: Parathyroid C: Insulin D: Thyroid

Q26 : The most reliable post mortem features of left sided cardiac failure is____________?

A: Systemic venous congestion B: Oedematous ankles C: Chronic venous congestion of lungs D: Enlargement of spleen and liver

Q27 : Bradykinin causes all the following except____________?

A: Smooth muscle contraction B: Dilatation of blood vessels C: Pain D: Opsonisation

Q28 : Tigered effect of heart is seen in_______________?

A: Fatty change B: Hyaline change C: Amy D: Atrophy

Q29 : Heart failure cells are seen in_______________?

A: Heart B: Lungs C: Liver D: Kidney

Q30 : Hypovolemic shock develops after loss of______________?

A: 10% blood B: 20% blood C: 30% blood D: 40% blood

Q31 : Schilling test is performed to find out______________?

A: Folic acid level B: B12 malabsroption C: Pancreatic enzyme deficiency D: Coronary artery disease

Q32 : Which of the following procedures is used as a routine technique in karyotyping using light microscopy ?

A: G banding B: C banding C: Q banding D: Brd V-staining

Q33 : All of the following vascular changes are observed in acute inflammation except_____________?

A: Vasodilation B: Stasis of blood C: Increased vascular permeability D: Decreased hydrostatic pressure

Q34 : In megaloblastic anaemia the cells are___________________?

A: Macrocytic hyperchromic B: Macrocytic hypochromic C: Macrocytic normochromic D: None of the above

Q35 : Thrombocytopenia due to increased platelet destruction is seen in_________________?

A: Aplasti anemia B: Cancer chemotherapy C: Acute leukemia D: Systemic lupus erythematosus

Q36 : The cell with increased mitotic rate and resembling the undifferentiated mesenchymal cells of the same origin is______________?

A: Anaplastic B: Dysplastic C: Metaplastic D: Hyperplastic

Q37 : The drug which is used to treat laryngospasm is_______________?

A: Atropine B: Diazepam C: Neostigmine D: Succinylcholine

Q38 : Osteomalacia is associated with_________________?

A: Decrease in osteoid volume B: Decrease in osteoid surface C: Increase in osteoid maturation time D: Increase in mineral apposition rate

Q39 : Hyper segmented neutrophils are seen in_________________?

A: Megaloblastic anemia B: Iron deficiency anemia C: Thalassemia D: Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura

Q40 : Malignant tumour of epithelial origin is_______________?

A: Carcinoma B: Sarcomas C: Papilloma D: All of the above

Q41 : Apoptosis is_________________?

A: Single cell necrosis B: Intracytoplasmic accumulation C: Degenerative change D: Neoplastic change in the cell

Q42 : Which one of the following does not present antigens ?

A: NK cells (Netural killer cells) B: Dendritic cells C: Langerhan’s cells D: Macrophages

Q43 : Egg shell calcification of Hilar Lymphnode is associated with_____________?

A: Silicosis B: Asbestosis C: Byssinosis D: Anthracosis

Q44 : Change in structure and functions of a tissue is called______________?

A: Dysplasia B: Metaplasia C: Anaplasia D: Aplasia

Q45 : Following is the most important factor in the management of shock_________________?

A: Blood pressure B: Cardiac output C: CVP to 8 cm of water D: Deficiency of effective circulating blood volume

Q46 : Anaplasia is_______________?

A: Lack of functional differentiation B: Lack of structural differentiation C: Is a characteristic feature of malignancy D: All of the above

Q47 : Hodgkin’s lymphoma can be distinguished from non – Hodgkin’s lymphomas by_________________?

A: Reed – Sternberg cells B: Systemic manifestations C: Occurence in young adults D: All of the above

Q48 : The activation of caspases is likely to lead to_________________?

A: Apoptotic cell death B: Blood coagulation C: Mitotic cell division D: G1 to S phase of cell cycle

Q49 : Pilocarpine_______________?

A: Lowers the intraocular pressure in glaucoma B: Cleaved by acetylcholinesterase C: Inhibits sweat and lacrimation D: Causes tachycardia

Q50 : Anaphylotoxins are___________?

A: C3a, C5a B: C3b, C5a C: C2, C3 D: C3b, C5b

Q51 : All of the following about prostaglandins and leukotriene are correct except________________?

A: Arachidonic acid is metabolized to form prostaglandins and leukotrienes B: COX-1 is inducible in many tissues C: COX is induced by cytokines at the site of inflammation D: Leukotrienes cause bronchoconstriction

Q52 : An infarct is most frequently is characterized by What type of necrosis ?

A: Fatty B: Caseous C: Gangrenous D: Coagulative

Q53 : The factor which gives strength in wound healing_____________?

A: Collagen B: Blood supply C: Growth factors D: Hormones

Q54 : Which of the following statement is _____________?

A: Low density lipoproteins has maximum association with atherosclerosis B: High density lipoproteins have protective role in atherosclerosis C: Poly unsaturated fats lowers plasma cholesterol levels D: HDL contains the highest cholesterol content

Q55 : Epitheloid cells are seen in all of the following except______________?

A: Tuberculosis B: Granulation tissue C: Syphilis D: Sarcoidosis

Q56 : Lepra cells seen in leprosy are_____________?

A: Lymphocytes B: Plasma cells C: Vacuolated Histocytes D: Neutrophils

Q57 : All cells do not divide at the same rate. Events in which phase of the cell cycle determine when a cell is going to replicate ?

A: M phase B: G1 phase C: S phase D: G2 phase

Q58 : Edema occurs due to_____________?

A: Increased capilary permeability B: Decreased capilary permeability C: Decreased interstitial fluid D: Decreased blood flow

Q59 : Serum sickness syndrome is_____________?

A: A transplant immunity B: An anaphylactic shock C: Systemic arthus reaction D: None of the above

Q60 : All of the following drugs are non depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agents except_______________?

A: D-tubocurarine B: Gallamine triethiodide C: Pancuronium bromide D: Succinylcholine

Q61 : Exfoliative cytology is indicated in___________?

A: Heavily keratinized lesions of oral cavity B: Pro-cancerous lesions of oral cavity C: Cigarette smokers D: Mass screening of cervical cancer

Q62 : Pallor, spoon shaped nails, atrophic glossitis, with accompanied dysphagia is typical picture of ______________?

A: Plummer – Vinson syndrome B: Trotters syndrome C: Vincent stomatitis D: None of the above

Q63 : The vasoactive amine that causes vasodilatation released during inflammation is found in which of the cell______________?

A: Plasma cells B: Lymphocytes C: Monocytes D: Mast cells

Q64 : Bence jones proteins are associated with__________________?

A: Hodgkin’s lymphoma B: Multiple myeloma C: Burkitt’s lymphoma D: Infectious mononucleosis

Q65 : Not sequelae of cellular events in atheroscierotic infarction_____________?

A: Neutrophilic infiltration B: Astrocytes C: Ingress of macrophages D: Intense eosinophilia

Q66 : Stain used for demonstration of amyloid is______________?

A: Congo Red B: Masson’s toichrome C: Vonkosa D: Reticulin

Q67 : Gingiva are enlarged in leukemia because of____________________?

A: Hemophilia B: Hemolytic anaemia C: Aplastic anaemia D: Megaloblastic anemia

Q68 : The commonest site of thrombosis is_______________?

A: Arteries B: Veins C: Capilaries D: Heart

Q69 : The most common site of metastases of osteosarcoma is_____________?

A: Liver B: Spleen C: Lymph nodes D: Lung

Q70 : Basal cell carcinoma occurs on_________________?

A: Skin and pilosebaceous adnexa B: Skin and mucosa C: Skin, lips and tongue D: All of the above

Q71 : Most tumours are ___________________?

A: Biclonal in origin B: Monoclonal in origin C: Multiclonal in origin D: None of the above

Q72 : By admin Diseases of Blood And Lymphnodes Medical Mcqs Pathology No Comments Syndrome associated with increased risk of leukemia is_____________?

A: Plummer Vinson syndrome B: Klinefelter syndrome C: Sturge weber syndrome D: Multiple hamartoma syndrome

Q73 : All of the following causes excessive bleeding during tooth extraction except _______________?

A: Haemophilia – A B: Haemophilia – B C: Anti thrombin – III deficiency D: Von-willebrand disease

Q74 : All of the following statements are true regarding reversible cell injury, except______________?

A: Formation of amorphous densities in the mitochondrial matix B: Diminished generation of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) C: Formation of blebs in the plasma membrane D: Detachment of ribosomes from the granular endoplasmic reticulum

Q75 : Incidence of most common malignant tumours in women is_____________?

A: Breast B: Lung C: Cervix D: Ovary

Q76 : Pulp chambers and roots canals in decidous teeth______________?

A: Wide and deep B: Shallow and narrow C: Wide and narrow D: Shallow and wide

Q77 : HOX gene is responsible for which malformation_____________?

A: Polysyndactyly B: Holoprosencephaly C: Mayer Rokitansky syndrome D: Gorlin syndrome

Q78 : Torniquet test is function of________________?

A: Platelet function B: capillary fragility C: Intrinsic pathway D: Extrinic pathway

Q79 : Earliest transient change following tissue injury_____________?

A: Neutrophilia B: Neutropenia C: Monocytoses D: Lymphocytoses

Q80 : Tumour which shows origin from more than one germ layers is known as________________?

A: Teratoma B: Plemorphic tumours C: Choristoma D: Hamartoma

Q81 : In Troisiers sign the lymph nodes involved are_________________?

A: Right axillary nodes B: Left axillary nodes C: Right supraclavicular nodes D: Left supraclavicular nodes

Q82 : Which of the following is correct statement ?

A: Grading is the degree of macroscopic and microscopic differentiation of tumour B: Staging is the extent of spread of tumour C: TNM and AJC systems can be used for staging malignant tumours D: All of the above

Q83 : The type of embolism seen in fractures of long bones_____________?

A: Thrombo embolism B: Air embolism C: Fat embolism D: Amniotic fluid embolism

Q84 : Virchow Lepra cells are seen in___________?

A: Tuberculoid leprosy B: Ideterminate leprosy C: Borderline tuberculoid leprosy D: lepromatous leprosy

Q85 : the lesions of bone which is expansile and eccentrically ballooned out is________________?

A: Ossifying fibroma B: Aneurysmal bone cyst C: Fibrous dysplasia D: None of the above

Q86 : Cellular swelling and fatty change are example of__________________?

A: Reversible injury B: Irreversible injury C: Both A and B D: None of the above

Q87 : Kviem’s test is diagnostic test for_________________?

A: Actinomycosis B: Diphtheria C: Tuberculosis D: Sarcoidosis

Q88 : Increased levels of haemoglobin A2 is characteristic of________________?

A: Sickle cell trait B: b-thalassaemia crait C: Glucose-6 phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency D: a-Thalassamia

Q89 : Granuloma is characterized by all of the following except______________?

A: A specific type of chronic inflammation B: Accumulation of modified macrophages C: Initiated by a number of infectious and non infectious agents D: A reaction of acute inflammation

Q90 : Lymphocytosis is seen in______________?

A: Fungal infections B: Viral infections C: Bacterial infections D: Protozoal infections

Q91 : The wasting syndrome associated in cancer is_____________?

A: Achalasia B: Cacchexia C: Atelexis D: Cacoguesia

Q92 : In sickle cell anaemia there is_____________?

A: 75 to 100% haemoglobins B: 10 to 20% haemoglobins C: 20 to 30% haemoglobins D: 50 to 60% haemoglobins

Q93 : Normocytic, Normochromic anemia is seen in______________?

A: Hemolytic anemia B: chronic disease C: Acute blood loss D: All of the above

Q94 : Apoptosis is suggestive of_______________?

A: Liquefaction degeneration B: Coagulative necrosis C: Neo angiogenesis D: Epithelial dysplasia

Q95 : Most common cause of pulmonary embolism ?

A: Thrombophebitis B: Endarteritis C: Atheroscleroses D: Lymphangitis

Q96 : Which of the following is correctly matched with the forms of extravasation hemorrhages______________?

A: Ecchymosis – large extravasation of blood in to the skin and mucous membrane B: Purpura – small areas (1cm) of hemorrhage in to the skin and mucous membrane C: petechiae – small pin point hemorrhages D: All of the above

Q97 : Hypoxic death leads to__________________?

A: Liquefactive necrosis B: Coagulative nacrosis C: Caseous necrosis D: Fat necrosis

Q98 : Which of the following is not an action of epinephrine when administered intravenously in a high dose ?

A: Increased liver glycogenolysis B: Causes broachiolar constriction C: Evokes extrasystoles in the heart D: Produces restlessness and anxiety

Q99 : Which of the following is most common location of intracranial neurocysticercoses ?

A: Brain parenchyma B: Spinal card C: Basal cisternae D: Medulla oblongata

Q100 : A patient has increased number of columnar cells in lower esophagus. He has which of the following change_______________?

A: Dysplasia B: Anaplasia C: Metaplasia D: Normal histology

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