Free Pathology MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

Q1 : Apoptosis is_________________?

A: Single cell necrosis B: Intracytoplasmic accumulation C: Degenerative change D: Neoplastic change in the cell

Q2 : The metabolic effects of sympathomimetics are mediated by__________________?

A: All beta-adrenergic receptors B: Dopaminergic receptors C: Beta 2 receptors D: Opioid receptors

Q3 : Increased iron binding capacity and decreased serum iron is seen in which anemia________________?

A: Iron deficiency B: Aplastic C: Sickle cell D: Chronic infections

Q4 : Which of the following cells are more abundant in chronic inflammation than in acute inflammation ?

A: Plasma cells B: Eosinophils C: Neutrophils D: Normoblats

Q5 : In a thrombus, the dark lines of zahn are due to_______________?

A: Coagulated fibrin B: Aggregated proteins C: Aggregated platelets D: Aggregated R.B.C

Q6 : Severe generalized edema is called as_______________?

A: Myxoedema B: Pitting edema C: Anasarca D: Dependent edema

Q7 : The most characteristic feature of a neoplasm as opposed to inflammatory over growth is______________?

A: Abnormal mitosis B: Size of the lesion C: Progressive growth after removal of causative stimuli D: Tendency to grow rapidly

Q8 : The cells which have the capacity to multiply through out their life_____________?

A: Stable cells B: Permanent cells C: Labile cells D: None of the above

Q9 : Factors influencing wound healing are the following_______________?

A: Nutrition B: Adequate blood supply C: Size and location of wound D: All of the above

Q10 : Heterozygous sickle cell anaemia gives protection against______________?

A: G6PD B: Malaria C: Thalassemia D: Dengue fever

Q11 : Christmas disease is due to deficiency of________________?

A: Factor IX B: Factor X C: Factor VIII D: Factor V

Q12 : Difference in transudate & exudate is that the former has a______________?

A: Low protein B: Cloudy appearance C: Increased specific gravity D: High protein

Q13 : Secondary amylodosis is seen most commonly in_______________?

A: Actinomycosis B: Tuberculosis C: Rabies D: Secondary Iues

Q14 : The wasting syndrome associated in cancer is_____________?

A: Achalasia B: Cacchexia C: Atelexis D: Cacoguesia

Q15 : Left side heart failure results in______________?

A: Oedema of lungs B: Oedema of spleen C: Oedema of legs D: Oedema of liver

Q16 : The process of formation of solid mass in circulation from the constituents of normal flowing blood is called_____________?

A: Clot formation B: Thrombosis C: Embolism D: Infarction

Q17 : Torniquet test is function of________________?

A: Platelet function B: capillary fragility C: Intrinsic pathway D: Extrinic pathway

Q18 : Active hypermia is seen in_______________?

A: Muscles during exercise B: Inflammation C: Blushing D: All of the Above

Q19 : In hemephilic patient which of the following should not be given_______________?

A: Factor VIII concentrate B: Cryoprecipitate C: EACA D: Platelet factor

Q20 : Edema occurs due to_____________?

A: Increased capilary permeability B: Decreased capilary permeability C: Decreased interstitial fluid D: Decreased blood flow

Q21 : Large open wounds that are characterized by tissue loss and repaired by formation of granulation tissue in the floor of the wound is characteristic of______________?

A: Secondary healing B: Primary healing C: Cicatrisation D: Regeneration

Q22 : Hemophilia_______________?

A: Affects males and females equally B: Increased clotting time in all patients C: Nerve blocks can be given safely D: Is a congenital disorder

Q23 : One of the following is not a malignant feature____________?

A: Aplasia B: Anaplasia C: Abnormal mitosis D: Pleomorphism

Q24 : Hodgkin’s lymphoma can be distinguished from non – Hodgkin’s lymphomas by_________________?

A: Reed – Sternberg cells B: Systemic manifestations C: Occurence in young adults D: All of the above

Q25 : The host tissue response in acute inflammation is all except______________?

A: Exudative B: Necrotizing C: Granulomatous D: Cytopathic

Q26 : The hormone dependent shedding of endometrium is an example of_______________?

A: Necrosis B: Autolysis C: Apoptosis D: None of the above

Q27 : Anaphylotoxins are___________?

A: C3a, C5a B: C3b, C5a C: C2, C3 D: C3b, C5b

Q28 : All of the following differs antemortum thrombus from a postmortem intravascular costs except_____________?

A: Chicken fat appearance B: Lines of zahn C: Dry and friable D: Firm adherence to endothelium where as absent in postmorten clots

Q29 : In iron deficiency anemia there is_________________?

A: Decrease in hemoglobin B: Increase in hemoglobin C: Increase in palatelets D: Decrease in platelets

Q30 : The characteristic finding in chronic myeloid leukemia is______________?

A: Reduced score of alkaline phosphatase in granulocytes B: Reduced score of acid phosphatase in granulocytes C: Total lack of platelets D: Total lack of neutrophils

Q31 : Tha gene for Breast Cancer (BRCA) is present on chromosome___________?

A: 21 B: 17 C: 15 D: 9

Q32 : Daily loss of iron per day in a healthy adult male is_______________?

A: 0.06 mg B: 0.6 mg C: 60 mg D: 600 mg

Q33 : All of the following can be transmitted through blood tranfusion except ______________?

A: Malaria B: Leukemia C: Hepatitis D: AIDS

Q34 : Enzymes responsible for suppuration are derived chiefly from_____________?

A: PMN’s B: Lymphocytes C: Monocytes D: Eosinophils

Q35 : Which of the following group of drugs are a neuromuscular blocking agents_______________?

A: choline, adrenaline and amphetamine B: Glycinium neostigamine and physostigamine C: Pancuronium, rocuronium D: Pirenzipine, propanolol and propantheline

Q36 : In which one of the following organs the venous emboli are most often iodged ?

A: Lungs B: Kidneys C: Intestines D: Heart

Q37 : Tumour arising from secetory and glandular epithelium are__________________?

A: Adenomas B: Adenosarcomas C: Angiomas D: Both A and B

Q38 : In Hodgkin’s disease the lymphoa cells seen are__________________?

A: Eosinophilis B: Plasma cells C: Reed-sternberg cells D: Giant cells

Q39 : A patient reports with dyspnoea on slight exertion. He also has multiple petechial spots and spontaneous hemorrhage. His RBC count is less than one lakh/mm3 His hematocrit and hemoglobin is low. Most probable diagnosis is______________?

A: Pernicious anemia B: Thalassemia C: Aplastic anemia D: Sprue

Q40 : Which of the following is correctly matched_______________?

A: Coagulation necrosis Tuberculosis B: Caseation yellow fever C: Fat necrosis Pancreatitis D: Gumma infarction

Q41 : Heart failure cells are____________?

A: Fibrocytes in myocardium B: Aschoji’s giant cells C: Heamosiderin laden macrophages in alveoli D: Hypertrophic myocardial fibres

Q42 : The protein found in the amyloid deposits in senile systemic amyloidosis is_________________?

A: AL protein B: a2 microglobulin C: a-amyloid protein D: Transthyretin

Q43 : Syndrome associated with increased risk of leukemia is__________?

A: Plummer vinson syndrome B: Klinefelter syndrome C: Sturge weber syndrome D: Multiple hamartoma syndrome

Q44 : Hypoxic death leads to__________________?

A: Liquefactive necrosis B: Coagulative nacrosis C: Caseous necrosis D: Fat necrosis

Q45 : An infarct is most frequently is characterized by What type of necrosis ?

A: Fatty B: Caseous C: Gangrenous D: Coagulative

Q46 : DiGeorge’s syndrome is due to___________?

A: Congenital thymic aplasia B: Deficiency of complement factor C: Inborn error of metabolism D: Chromosomal anomaly

Q47 : Malignant neoplasms shows all the following features EXCEPT_____________?

A: Disorganized cell structure B: Encapulation C: Invasion of blood vessels D: Rapid, erratic growth

Q48 : Tumour involving epiphysis of long bone is____________?

A: Osteogenic sarcoma B: Osteoclastoma C: Ewings sarcoma D: Chondro sarcoma

Q49 : A patient has increased number of columnar cells in lower esophagus. He has which of the following change_______________?

A: Dysplasia B: Anaplasia C: Metaplasia D: Normal histology

Q50 : Incidence of most common malignant tumours in women is_____________?

A: Breast B: Lung C: Cervix D: Ovary

Q51 : In Troisiers sign the lymph nodes involved are_________________?

A: Right axillary nodes B: Left axillary nodes C: Right supraclavicular nodes D: Left supraclavicular nodes

Q52 : Why fetal cells continue to divide but terminally differentiated adult cells do not divide ?

A: There are many cyclin inhibitors which prevent cell to enter into S phase in adult B: Phosphatase absent in fetal cells C: Proteinase is absent in fetus D: Absence of CD kinase

Q53 : Beta 2 agonist causes_______________?

A: Mydriasis B: Contraction of urinary spinctors C: Vasoconstriction D: Bronchial muscle relaxation

Q54 : A infant with cleft lip, palate, polydactly, microcephaly with holoprosencephaly, ectodermal scalp defect is suffering from ?

A: Trisomy 21 B: Trisomy 18 C: Trisomy 13 D: Turner syndrome

Q55 : Following are functions of prostaglandins except__________?

A: Increase capillary permeability B: Uterine contraction C: Lower blood pressure D: Elevates blood pressure

Q56 : Which of the following is NOT true of dystrophic calcification ?

A: Occurs in damaged tissue B: Tuberculous lesions C: Atherosclerotic lesions D: Serum calcium levels are high

Q57 : The most reliable post mortem features of left sided cardiac failure is____________?

A: Systemic venous congestion B: Oedematous ankles C: Chronic venous congestion of lungs D: Enlargement of spleen and liver

Q58 : Tumour which shows origin from more than one germ layers is known as________________?

A: Teratoma B: Plemorphic tumours C: Choristoma D: Hamartoma

Q59 : Wounds which are clean uninfected and surgically incised, with edge of wounds approxiamated by sutures heal by____________?

A: Primary intention B: Secondary intention C: Cicatrisation D: All of the above

Q60 : Maltory’s degeneration seen in alcoholic liver disease is a form of___________________?

A: Hyaline degeneartion B: Amyloid degeneration C: Hydropic degeneration D: Fatty degeneration

Q61 : All of the following are typically associated with loss of 40% of the circulating blood volume except_______________?

A: A decrease in the blood pressure B: A decrease in the central venous pressure C: A decrease in the heart rate D:

Q62 : Aplastic anemia results from______________?

A: Cytotoxic drugs B: Whole body irradiation C: HIV infection D: All of the above

Q63 : Which of the following is NOT a constituent of Virchow’s traid ?

A: Damage to endothelium due to injury or inflammation B: Diminished rate of blood flow C: Increased coagulability of blood D: Increased venous blood pressure

Q64 : The cell with increased mitotic rate and resembling the undifferentiated mesenchymal cells of the same origin is______________?

A: Anaplastic B: Dysplastic C: Metaplastic D: Hyperplastic

Q65 : Which of the following has least capacity for regeneration_________________?

A: Cardiac muscle B: Skeletal muscle C: Neurons D: All of the above

Q66 : Which of the following is most common location of intracranial neurocysticercoses ?

A: Brain parenchyma B: Spinal card C: Basal cisternae D: Medulla oblongata

Q67 : Which of the following is correct statement ?

A: Grading is the degree of macroscopic and microscopic differentiation of tumour B: Staging is the extent of spread of tumour C: TNM and AJC systems can be used for staging malignant tumours D: All of the above

Q68 : Amyloid material can be best diagnosed by___________________?

A: Polarized microscopy B: Electron microscopy C: X-ray crytallography D: Scanning electron miscroscopy

Q69 : Following is used to stain fungi______________?

A: PAS B: Fontania stain C: Ferrous trichrome D: Pearls prussian blue

Q70 : A 20 year male complains of recurrent attacks of sore tthroat since 2 years. The total leukocyte count was 1000/ul. A differential count revealed severe neutropenia. The diagnosis is________________?

A: Subleukemic leukemia B: Infectious mononucleosis C: Agraulocytosis D: Leukoerythroblastic anemia

Q71 : Disappearance of nuclear chromatin is called as__________?

A: Pyknosis B: Karyolysis C: Karyorhexie D: None

Q72 : Phagocytes kill bacteria through which mechanism_____________?

A: Membrane attack complex killing B: Oxidative and non-oxidative killing C: Zipper killing D: Chemotaxis

Q73 : Earliest lesion in atherosclerosis is_____________?

A: Atheroma B: Fatty streak C: Fibrous plaque D: None of the above

Q74 : Gingiva are enlarged in leukemia because of__________________?

A: Capillary dilation B: Erythrocyte engorgement C: Edema D: WBC infiltration

Q75 : The characteristic feature of macrophage_____________?

A: High capacity to divide B: Limited capacity to divide C: Long life span as compared to lymphocytes D: Both B and C

Q76 : White infarcts occurs in one of the following organs_______________?

A: Ovary B: Lung C: Intestine D: Heart

Q77 : In megaloblastic anaemia the cells are___________________?

A: Macrocytic hyperchromic B: Macrocytic hypochromic C: Macrocytic normochromic D: None of the above

Q78 : In chronic, granulomatous inflammation, which of the following processes is most likely to predominate ?

A: Exudation B: Congestion C: Transudation D: Proliferation

Q79 : Synthesis of DNA occurs in Which phase of cellAcycle________________?

A: Mitosis – M phase B: Gap – G2 phase C: Gap – G1 phase D: Synthesis – S phase

Q80 : Which one of the following does not present antigens ?

A: NK cells (Netural killer cells) B: Dendritic cells C: Langerhan’s cells D: Macrophages

Q81 : In sickle cell anaemia there is_____________?

A: 75 to 100% haemoglobins B: 10 to 20% haemoglobins C: 20 to 30% haemoglobins D: 50 to 60% haemoglobins

Q82 : All of the following about prostaglandins and leukotriene are correct except________________?

A: Arachidonic acid is metabolized to form prostaglandins and leukotrienes B: COX-1 is inducible in many tissues C: COX is induced by cytokines at the site of inflammation D: Leukotrienes cause bronchoconstriction

Q83 : Caissons disease is caused by______________?

A: Amniotic fluid embolism B: Hyper coagulability C: Air or gas embolism D: Tumour embolism

Q84 : Peripheral nerve regenerates at the rate of ________ mm per day?

A: 1 B: 2 C: 0.5 D: 5

Q85 : Which of the following is correctly matched with the forms of extravasation hemorrhages______________?

A: Ecchymosis – large extravasation of blood in to the skin and mucous membrane B: Purpura – small areas (1cm) of hemorrhage in to the skin and mucous membrane C: petechiae – small pin point hemorrhages D: All of the above

Q86 : Leucopenia is characteristic of____________?

A: Appendicitis B: Enteric fever C: Meningitis D: Myocardial infarction

Q87 : IL-1 helps in_____________?

A: Stimulation of T-lymphocytes B: Inhibits of B-lymphocytes C: Inhibits the chemotaxis of neutrophils and macrophages D: Decreases firbroblast and bone resorption activity

Q88 : Primary amyloidosis occurs in _________________?

A: Multiple myeloma B: Tuberculosis C: Hodgkin’s diseaes D: Chronic osteomyelitis

Q89 : Gingiva are enlarged in leukemia because of____________________?

A: Hemophilia B: Hemolytic anaemia C: Aplastic anaemia D: Megaloblastic anemia

Q90 : Basal cell carcinoma occurs on_________________?

A: Skin and pilosebaceous adnexa B: Skin and mucosa C: Skin, lips and tongue D: All of the above

Q91 : Neoplasia of blood vessel is called______________?

A: Angioma B: Hematoma C: Lymphosarcoma D: Papilloma

Q92 : The activation of caspases is likely to lead to_________________?

A: Apoptotic cell death B: Blood coagulation C: Mitotic cell division D: G1 to S phase of cell cycle

Q93 : Virchow Lepra cells are seen in___________?

A: Tuberculoid leprosy B: Ideterminate leprosy C: Borderline tuberculoid leprosy D: lepromatous leprosy

Q94 : The protein that carries iron from the gut to the body tissues is called________________?

A: Ferritin B: Haemosiderin C: Myoglobin D: Transferrin

Q95 : Down syndrome is caused by all except___________?

A: Trisomy of 21 chromosome B: Mosaicism of 21 chromosome C: Robersonian translocation of 21.21, 21.18 D: Deletion of 21

Q96 : The cells which do not undergo mitotic divisions___________?

A: Smooth muscle cells B: Endotheilial cells C: Bone marrow cells D: Neurons

Q97 : Inflammation is characterized by________________?

A: Transudation -> exudation -> oedena B: Oedema -> exudation C: Exudation -> transudation -> oedema D: Only by exudation -> oedema

Q98 : In sickle cell anemia there is substitution of_________________?

A: Valine for glutamic acid at the sixth position of beta chain B: Phenylalanine for glutamic acid C: Tyrosine for valine at the 6th position at beta chain D: All of the above

Q99 : Lipofuschin is an insoluble endogenous pigment, also known as___________?

A: Lipochrome B: Aging pigment C: All of the above D: All of the above

Q100 : The increase in size of uterus during pregnancy is an example of ________________?

A: Hyperplasia B: Hypertrophy C: Both of the above D: None of the above

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