Free Pathology MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

Q1 : Hypoxic death leads to__________________?

A: Liquefactive necrosis B: Coagulative nacrosis C: Caseous necrosis D: Fat necrosis

Q2 : The wasting syndrome associated in cancer is_____________?

A: Achalasia B: Cacchexia C: Atelexis D: Cacoguesia

Q3 : Pyknosis is characterized by_________________?

A: Nuclear basophilia B: Nuclear shrinkage C: Nucleus disintegration D: Nucleolus disintegration

Q4 : The predominant cells after 48 hours of inflammation are_____________?

A: Monocytes B: Macrophage C: Neutrophils D: A and B

Q5 : Which of the following predisposes to thrombogenesis ?

A: Endothelial injury B: Stasis of blood C: Turbulence of blood D: All of the above

Q6 : Apoptosis is_________________?

A: Single cell necrosis B: Intracytoplasmic accumulation C: Degenerative change D: Neoplastic change in the cell

Q7 : A simple bacterial test for mutagenic carcinogens is________________?

A: Ames test B: Redox text C: Bacteriophage D: Gene splicing

Q8 : Incidence of most common malignant tumours in women is_____________?

A: Breast B: Lung C: Cervix D: Ovary

Q9 : Exfoliative cytology is indicated in___________?

A: Heavily keratinized lesions of oral cavity B: Pro-cancerous lesions of oral cavity C: Cigarette smokers D: Mass screening of cervical cancer

Q10 : Increased levels of haemoglobin A2 is characteristic of________________?

A: Sickle cell trait B: b-thalassaemia crait C: Glucose-6 phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency D: a-Thalassamia

Q11 : All of the following causes excessive bleeding during tooth extraction except _______________?

A: Haemophilia – A B: Haemophilia – B C: Anti thrombin – III deficiency D: Von-willebrand disease

Q12 : Aplastic anemia results from______________?

A: Cytotoxic drugs B: Whole body irradiation C: HIV infection D: All of the above

Q13 : Bony union taking place with formation of medullary callus without periosteal callus formation is______________?

A: Primary union B: Secondary union C: Both of the above D: None of the above

Q14 : Intrinsic factor for absorption of Vit B12 secreted in ______________?

A: Duodenum B: Stomach C: Intestine D: Ileum

Q15 : Caseation necrosis is suggestive of________________?

A: Tuberculosis B: Sarcoidosis C: Leprosy D: Midline lethal granuloma

Q16 : Thrombocytosis is seen in_______________?

A: Osteopetrosis B: DIsseminated intravascular coagulation C: Haemolytic anaemia D: Thiazide therapy

Q17 : Increased iron binding capacity and decreased serum iron is seen in which anemia________________?

A: Iron deficiency B: Aplastic C: Sickle cell D: Chronic infections

Q18 : Shock is a circulatory disturbance characterized by________________?

A: Increased blood pressure B: Decreased volume of circulation blood C: Elevated body temperature D: Decreased volume of interstitial fluid

Q19 : An acute inflammation would attract____________?

A: Monocytes B: Plasma cells C: Neutrophils D: Eosinophils

Q20 : An acute inflammatory focus would attract___________?

A: Monocytes B: Plasma cells C: Neutrophils D: Basophils

Q21 : Factors influencing wound healing are the following_______________?

A: Nutrition B: Adequate blood supply C: Size and location of wound D: All of the above

Q22 : Severe generalized edema is called as_______________?

A: Myxoedema B: Pitting edema C: Anasarca D: Dependent edema

Q23 : Anaplasia is_______________?

A: Lack of functional differentiation B: Lack of structural differentiation C: Is a characteristic feature of malignancy D: All of the above

Q24 : The process of formation of solid mass in circulation from the constituents of normal flowing blood is called_____________?

A: Clot formation B: Thrombosis C: Embolism D: Infarction

Q25 : In Hodgkin’s disease the lymphoa cells seen are__________________?

A: Eosinophilis B: Plasma cells C: Reed-sternberg cells D: Giant cells

Q26 : The factor which gives strength in wound healing_____________?

A: Collagen B: Blood supply C: Growth factors D: Hormones

Q27 : One of the following is not a malignant feature____________?

A: Aplasia B: Anaplasia C: Abnormal mitosis D: Pleomorphism

Q28 : The major factors predisposing to thrombogenesis include all of the following except_____________?

A: Endothelial injury B: Hyper coagulability of blood C: Altered blood flow D: Pattern of blood flow

Q29 : Caissons disease is caused by______________?

A: Amniotic fluid embolism B: Hyper coagulability C: Air or gas embolism D: Tumour embolism

Q30 : Thrombosis due to hypercoagulability is seen in____________?

A: Women talking oral contraceptives B: Severe trauma or burns C: Cardiac failure D: All of the above

Q31 : All of the following vascular changes are observed in acute inflammation except_____________?

A: Vasodilation B: Stasis of blood C: Increased vascular permeability D: Decreased hydrostatic pressure

Q32 : The antidote for heparin is______________?

A: Penicillinase B: Protamine sulphate C: Pryosulphate D: Potassium sulphate

Q33 : Amyloidosis most commonly occurs in_________________?

A: Kidney B: Spleen C: Liver D: Heart

Q34 : Bence jones proteins are associated with__________________?

A: Hodgkin’s lymphoma B: Multiple myeloma C: Burkitt’s lymphoma D: Infectious mononucleosis

Q35 : Reed – Sternberg cells are seen in histopathological examination of_______________?

A: African jaw lymphoma B: Hodgkin’s disease C: Burkitt’s lymphoma D: Infectious mononucleosis

Q36 : Which is true about Multiple myeloma ?

A: IgM spike increase B: Direct plasma cell deposition in glomerular capilaries leads to kidney damage C: IL 8 is a marker for bone lesions D: Invariably increase in alkaline phosphatase

Q37 : Which of the following has least capacity for regeneration_________________?

A: Cardiac muscle B: Skeletal muscle C: Neurons D: All of the above

Q38 : Earliest lesion in atherosclerosis is_____________?

A: Atheroma B: Fatty streak C: Fibrous plaque D: None of the above

Q39 : In hemorrhager lost plasma is replaced by______________?

A: Bone marrow B: Kidney C: Spleen D: Muscle

Q40 : All of the following types of collagen except one are present in cartliage__________?

A: 2 B: 4 C: 6 D: 9

Q41 : Beta 2 agonist causes_______________?

A: Mydriasis B: Contraction of urinary spinctors C: Vasoconstriction D: Bronchial muscle relaxation

Q42 : Malignant tumour of skeletal muscie is__________________?

A: Rhabdomyoma B: Rhabdomyosarcoma C: Leiomyoma D: Leiomyosarcoma

Q43 : Syndrome associated with increased risk of leukemia is__________?

A: Plummer vinson syndrome B: Klinefelter syndrome C: Sturge weber syndrome D: Multiple hamartoma syndrome

Q44 : Carcinogens induce tumours, they are________________?

A: Chemicals B: Radiation C: Viruses D: All of the above

Q45 : Egg shell calcification of Hilar Lymphnode is associated with_____________?

A: Silicosis B: Asbestosis C: Byssinosis D: Anthracosis

Q46 : Lepra cells are seen in abundance in_______________?

A: Tuberculoid leprosy B: Lepromatous leprosy C: Histoid leprosy D: Intermediate leprosy

Q47 : Which of the following is not an action of epinephrine when administered intravenously in a high dose ?

A: Increased liver glycogenolysis B: Causes broachiolar constriction C: Evokes extrasystoles in the heart D: Produces restlessness and anxiety

Q48 : Chicken-wire appearance of enlarged bone marrow spaces is seen in_______________?

A: Fetal alcohol syndrome B: Sickle cell anaemia C: Haemophilia A D: Beta thalassemia majon

Q49 : In Troisiers sign the lymph nodes involved are_________________?

A: Right axillary nodes B: Left axillary nodes C: Right supraclavicular nodes D: Left supraclavicular nodes

Q50 : Barr body is associated with________?

A: Metaphase B: Interphase C: Anaphase D: Prophase

Q51 : Tumour arising from secetory and glandular epithelium are__________________?

A: Adenomas B: Adenosarcomas C: Angiomas D: Both A and B

Q52 : Normocytic, Normochromic anemia is seen in______________?

A: Hemolytic anemia B: chronic disease C: Acute blood loss D: All of the above

Q53 : Synthesis of DNA occurs in which phase ____________________?

A: G1 B: S C: G2 D: M

Q54 : In hemephilic patient which of the following should not be given_______________?

A: Factor VIII concentrate B: Cryoprecipitate C: EACA D: Platelet factor

Q55 : Which of the following is correct ?

A: Pyknosis – shrinkage of nucleus B: Karyolysis – Dissolution of nucleus C: Karyorrhexis – fragmentation of nucleus D: All of the above

Q56 : The cells which have the capacity to multiply through out their life_____________?

A: Stable cells B: Permanent cells C: Labile cells D: None of the above

Q57 : Rodent ulcer is most commonly seen on________________?

A: Rodent ulcer is most commonly seen on________________? B: Face above alatragus line C: Anywhere on hairless skin D: All of the above

Q58 : Physiologic programmed cell death is termed as_______________?

A: Apoptosis B: Lysis C: Autolysis D: Autopsy

Q59 : A shift to left indicates an increase in number of______________?

A: immature neutrophils B: erythrocytes C: matures neutrophils D: Platelets

Q60 : A simple bacterial test for mutagenic carcinogens is________________?

A: Anaplastic B: Dysplastic C: Metaplastic D: Hyperplastic

Q61 : All of the following can be transmitted through blood tranfusion except ______________?

A: Malaria B: Leukemia C: Hepatitis D: AIDS

Q62 : Chronic inflammation is characterized by__________?

A: Presence of macrophages B: Tissue C: Proliferation of fibroblasts and endothelial cells D: All of the above

Q63 : Target cells are seen in peripheral blood in_______________?

A: Thalassemia B: Pernicious anemia C: Aplastic anemia D: Sickle cell anemia

Q64 : In hypovolemic shock_____________?

A: The central venous pressure ins high B: The extremities are pale, cold and sweating C: There is always s site of bleeding D: Urine output is unaffected

Q65 : Auto immune hymolytic anemia is seen in_______________?

A: AML B: CML C: CLL D: ALL

Q66 : Coagulative necrosis is_______________?

A: Characteristic of focal bacterial infections B: Characteristic of hypoxic death C: Characteristic by loss of tissue architecture D: None of the above

Q67 : Diabetic gangrene is caused by____________?

A: Vasospasm B: Peripheral neuritis C: Atheroslerosis D: None of the above

Q68 : The host tissue response in acute inflammation is all except______________?

A: Exudative B: Necrotizing C: Granulomatous D: Cytopathic

Q69 : IN fanconi anemia there is a_______________?

A: Deficiency of copper B: Mutation of DNA repair gene C: No increased risk of Sq. cell carcinoma D: Purely nutritional disorder etiology

Q70 : Which of the following statements is true?

A: Arterial thrombi produces ischemia and infarction where as cardiac and venous thrombi cause embolism B: Arterial thrombi to be white and non occlusive (mural) where as venous thrombi are red and occlusive C: Venous thrombi are soft, red and gelatinous where as arterial thrombi are firm and white D: All of the above

Q71 : Malignant tumour of epithelial origin is_______________?

A: Carcinoma B: Sarcomas C: Papilloma D: All of the above

Q72 : Tha gene for Breast Cancer (BRCA) is present on chromosome___________?

A: 21 B: 17 C: 15 D: 9

Q73 : The characteristic feature of macrophage_____________?

A: High capacity to divide B: Limited capacity to divide C: Long life span as compared to lymphocytes D: Both B and C

Q74 : Edema occurs due to_____________?

A: Increased capilary permeability B: Decreased capilary permeability C: Decreased interstitial fluid D: Decreased blood flow

Q75 : Which of the following is NOT a constituent of Virchow’s traid ?

A: Damage to endothelium due to injury or inflammation B: Diminished rate of blood flow C: Increased coagulability of blood D: Increased venous blood pressure

Q76 : Burkitt’s lymphoma is associated with the proliferation of ______________?

A: T- cell B: B – cell C: Lymph vessels D: Lymph nodes

Q77 : The persistence of epithelial cells after wound healing give rise to_______________?

A: Implantation cyst B: Keloid C: Wound dehiscence D: Cicatrisation

Q78 : The predisposing factor for squamous cell carcinoma __________________?

A: Solar keratosis B: Chronic ulcers C: Leukoplakia D: All of the above

Q79 : the lesions of bone which is expansile and eccentrically ballooned out is________________?

A: Ossifying fibroma B: Aneurysmal bone cyst C: Fibrous dysplasia D: None of the above

Q80 : Hemophilia A is caused due to deficiency of___________________?

A: Factor X B: Factor XI C: Factor IX D: Factor VIII

Q81 : True statement about primary amyloidosis _________________?

A: It is more common in heart, skin and skeletal tissue B: In 70% of cases don’t have any associated disease C: In 50% of cases have some form of plasma cell dyscrasias such as multiple myeloma D: All of the above

Q82 : A haemophilia person has married to a normal woman Then his___________?

A: Daughter are carrier B: Sons are infected C: Daughter are infeted D: All are normal

Q83 : A 20 year male complains of recurrent attacks of sore tthroat since 2 years. The total leukocyte count was 1000/ul. A differential count revealed severe neutropenia. The diagnosis is________________?

A: Subleukemic leukemia B: Infectious mononucleosis C: Agraulocytosis D: Leukoerythroblastic anemia

Q84 : Hydrolytic degeneration is characterised by__________________?

A: Caseation B: Coagulation C: Liquefaction D: Fibrinoid

Q85 : Synthesis of DNA occurs in Which phase of cellAcycle________________?

A: Mitosis – M phase B: Gap – G2 phase C: Gap – G1 phase D: Synthesis – S phase

Q86 : The drug which is used to treat laryngospasm is_______________?

A: Atropine B: Diazepam C: Neostigmine D: Succinylcholine

Q87 : A 3-year old child presented with progressive anaemia, jaundice & failure to thrive. O/E: pallor, splenomegaly are seen Peripheral smear showed normoblasts and small round intensely stained red cells. The likely diagnosis is________________?

A: Here ditary spherocytosis B: Thalassaemia C: Sickle cell anaemia D: Vitamin B12 deficiency anaemia

Q88 : A patient with amenorrhea, short stature, less public hair can be in all of the following except___________?

A: 47 XXY B: 46 XY C: 45 X D: 46 XXY

Q89 : In granuloma, epithelial and giant cells are derived from_____________?

A: T cells B: B cells C: Plasma cells D: Monocyte

Q90 : Syndrome which is characterized by 2X chromosomes and 1Y chromosome is_____________?

A: Kleinfelters syndrome B: Down syndrome C: Turner syndrome D: Marfan syndrome

Q91 : Difference in transudate & exudate is that the former has a______________?

A: Low protein B: Cloudy appearance C: Increased specific gravity D: High protein

Q92 : Tumour arising from secetory and glandular epithelium are__________________?

A: Adenomas B: Adenosarcomas C: Angiomas D: Both A and B

Q93 : Leucopenia is characteristic of____________?

A: Appendicitis B: Enteric fever C: Meningitis D: Myocardial infarction

Q94 : All of the following are typically associated with loss of 40% of the circulating blood volume except_______________?

A: A decrease in the blood pressure B: A decrease in the central venous pressure C: A decrease in the heart rate D:

Q95 : Pilocarpine_______________?

A: Lowers the intraocular pressure in glaucoma B: Cleaved by acetylcholinesterase C: Inhibits sweat and lacrimation D: Causes tachycardia

Q96 : Ghon focus is associated with ______________?

A: Gonorrhea B: AIDS C: Syphilis D: Tuberculosis

Q97 : Lymphatic leukemoid reaction is usually seen in the following EXCEPT________________?

A: Tuberculosis B: Pertussis C: Lobar pneumonia D: Viral infections

Q98 : The first even in primary wound healing__________?

A: Epithelial changes B: Organization C: Formation of blood cloth D: Acute inflammatory response

Q99 : Edema is due to_______________?

A: Increased albumin in blood and decreased globin B: Decreased albumin conc. in blood C: Increased osmotic pressure D: None of the above

Q100 : The vasoactive amine that causes vasodilatation released during inflammation is found in which of the cell______________?

A: Plasma cells B: Lymphocytes C: Monocytes D: Mast cells

Free Pathology MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

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