Free Pathology MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

Q1 : Neoplasia of blood vessel is called______________?

A: Angioma B: Hematoma C: Lymphosarcoma D: Papilloma

Q2 : Incomplete fractures of the bone are called___________?

A: Comminuted fracture B: Compound fracture C: Simple fracture D: Green stick fracture

Q3 : The characteristic finding in chronic myeloid leukemia is______________?

A: Reduced score of alkaline phosphatase in granulocytes B: Reduced score of acid phosphatase in granulocytes C: Total lack of platelets D: Total lack of neutrophils

Q4 : The following are recognized causes of neutropenia Except_______________?

A: Corticosteroid therapy B: Typhoid fever C: Aplastic anemia D: Viral infection

Q5 : Sideroblastic anemia is caused due to______________?

A: Mercury B: Lead C: Arsenic D: Iron

Q6 : Pilocarpine_______________?

A: Lowers the intraocular pressure in glaucoma B: Cleaved by acetylcholinesterase C: Inhibits sweat and lacrimation D: Causes tachycardia

Q7 : Hemophilia A is caused due to deficiency of___________________?

A: Factor X B: Factor XI C: Factor IX D: Factor VIII

Q8 : Gingiva are enlarged in leukemia because of__________________?

A: Capillary dilation B: Erythrocyte engorgement C: Edema D: WBC infiltration

Q9 : Following is the most important factor in the management of shock_________________?

A: Blood pressure B: Cardiac output C: CVP to 8 cm of water D: Deficiency of effective circulating blood volume

Q10 : The metabolic effects of sympathomimetics are mediated by__________________?

A: All beta-adrenergic receptors B: Dopaminergic receptors C: Beta 2 receptors D: Opioid receptors

Q11 : Exfoliative cytology is indicated in___________?

A: Heavily keratinized lesions of oral cavity B: Pro-cancerous lesions of oral cavity C: Cigarette smokers D: Mass screening of cervical cancer

Q12 : Epstein Barr virus is associated with ___________________?

A: Nasopharyngeal carcinoma B: Burkitts lymphoma C: Infectious mononucleosis D: All of the above

Q13 : The cell with increased mitotic rate and resembling the undifferentiated mesenchymal cells of the same origin is______________?

A: Anaplastic B: Dysplastic C: Metaplastic D: Hyperplastic

Q14 : White infarcts occurs in one of the following organs_______________?

A: Ovary B: Lung C: Intestine D: Heart

Q15 : Osteomalacia is associated with_________________?

A: Decrease in osteoid volume B: Decrease in osteoid surface C: Increase in osteoid maturation time D: Increase in mineral apposition rate

Q16 : Apoptosis is_________________?

A: Single cell necrosis B: Intracytoplasmic accumulation C: Degenerative change D: Neoplastic change in the cell

Q17 : In acute inflammation, immediate transient permeability in cells is increased by__________?

A: Direct injury & necrosis B: Endothelial Gaps by histamine C: Leucocyte mediated endothelial injury D: Increased tissue oncotic pressure

Q18 : One of the following is not a malignant feature____________?

A: Aplasia B: Anaplasia C: Abnormal mitosis D: Pleomorphism

Q19 : Which of the following is correctly matched_______________?

A: Coagulation necrosis Tuberculosis B: Caseation yellow fever C: Fat necrosis Pancreatitis D: Gumma infarction

Q20 : The predisposing factor for squamous cell carcinoma __________________?

A: Solar keratosis B: Chronic ulcers C: Leukoplakia D: All of the above

Q21 : All of the following can be transmitted through blood tranfusion except ______________?

A: Malaria B: Leukemia C: Hepatitis D: AIDS

Q22 : Hyper segmented neutrophils are seen in_________________?

A: Megaloblastic anemia B: Iron deficiency anemia C: Thalassemia D: Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura

Q23 : The necrotic tissue and deposits of immune complexes, complement and plasma protein produce a smudy eosinophilic deposit is termed as_____________?

A: Coagulative necrosis B: Fibrinoid necrosis C: Caesous necrosis D: Caesous necrosis

Q24 : Beta 2 agonist causes_______________?

A: Mydriasis B: Contraction of urinary spinctors C: Vasoconstriction D: Bronchial muscle relaxation

Q25 : A patient has increased number of columnar cells in lower esophagus. He has which of the following change_______________?

A: Dysplasia B: Anaplasia C: Metaplasia D: Normal histology

Q26 : A infant with cleft lip, palate, polydactly, microcephaly with holoprosencephaly, ectodermal scalp defect is suffering from ?

A: Trisomy 21 B: Trisomy 18 C: Trisomy 13 D: Turner syndrome

Q27 : Cellular swelling and fatty change are example of__________________?

A: Reversible injury B: Irreversible injury C: Both A and B D: None of the above

Q28 : Apoptosis is suggestive of_______________?

A: Liquefaction degeneration B: Coagulative necrosis C: Neo angiogenesis D: Epithelial dysplasia

Q29 : Active hypermia is seen in_______________?

A: Muscles during exercise B: Inflammation C: Blushing D: All of the Above

Q30 : Lepra cells seen in leprosy are_____________?

A: Lymphocytes B: Plasma cells C: Vacuolated Histocytes D: Neutrophils

Q31 : The cells which do not undergo mitotic divisions___________?

A: Smooth muscle cells B: Endotheilial cells C: Bone marrow cells D: Neurons

Q32 : Which of the following statements is true?

A: Arterial thrombi produces ischemia and infarction where as cardiac and venous thrombi cause embolism B: Arterial thrombi to be white and non occlusive (mural) where as venous thrombi are red and occlusive C: Venous thrombi are soft, red and gelatinous where as arterial thrombi are firm and white D: All of the above

Q33 : Which of the following being is the most frequent site of thrombus ?

A: Veins of lower extremities B: Portal vein C: Pulmonary vein D: Hepatic vein

Q34 : The type of embolism seen in fractures of long bones_____________?

A: Thrombo embolism B: Air embolism C: Fat embolism D: Amniotic fluid embolism

Q35 : Burkitt’s lymphoma is associated with the proliferation of ______________?

A: T- cell B: B – cell C: Lymph vessels D: Lymph nodes

Q36 : Which of the following is NOT a constituent of Virchow’s traid ?

A: Damage to endothelium due to injury or inflammation B: Diminished rate of blood flow C: Increased coagulability of blood D: Increased venous blood pressure

Q37 : The activation of caspases is likely to lead to_________________?

A: Apoptotic cell death B: Blood coagulation C: Mitotic cell division D: G1 to S phase of cell cycle

Q38 : In megaloblastic anaemia the cells are___________________?

A: Macrocytic hyperchromic B: Macrocytic hypochromic C: Macrocytic normochromic D: None of the above

Q39 : Factors inhibiting wound healing____________?

A: Infection B: Cortisol C: Foreign Bodies D: All of the above

Q40 : In Troisiers sign the lymph nodes involved are_________________?

A: Right axillary nodes B: Left axillary nodes C: Right supraclavicular nodes D: Left supraclavicular nodes

Q41 : A simple bacterial test for mutagenic carcinogens is________________?

A: Anaplastic B: Dysplastic C: Metaplastic D: Hyperplastic

Q42 : Liquefation necrosis is commonly seen in________________?

A: Brain B: Lung C: Liver D: Spleen

Q43 : Which of the following is correct statement ?

A: Grading is the degree of macroscopic and microscopic differentiation of tumour B: Staging is the extent of spread of tumour C: TNM and AJC systems can be used for staging malignant tumours D: All of the above

Q44 : In granuloma, epithelial and giant cells are derived from_____________?

A: T cells B: B cells C: Plasma cells D: Monocyte

Q45 : Increase in number of RBC is seen in ____________?

A: Neutropenia B: Leukemia C: Polycythemia D: Anaemia

Q46 : Anaplasia is_______________?

A: Lack of functional differentiation B: Lack of structural differentiation C: Is a characteristic feature of malignancy D: All of the above

Q47 : Serum sickness syndrome is_____________?

A: A transplant immunity B: An anaphylactic shock C: Systemic arthus reaction D: None of the above

Q48 : All of the following vascular changes are observed in acute inflammation except_____________?

A: Vasodilation B: Stasis of blood C: Increased vascular permeability D: Decreased hydrostatic pressure

Q49 : A haemophilia person has married to a normal woman Then his___________?

A: Daughter are carrier B: Sons are infected C: Daughter are infeted D: All are normal

Q50 : Ghon focus is associated with ______________?

A: Gonorrhea B: AIDS C: Syphilis D: Tuberculosis

Q51 : The first even in primary wound healing__________?

A: Epithelial changes B: Organization C: Formation of blood cloth D: Acute inflammatory response

Q52 : In hypovolemic shock_____________?

A: The central venous pressure ins high B: The extremities are pale, cold and sweating C: There is always s site of bleeding D: Urine output is unaffected

Q53 : Down syndrome is caused by all except___________?

A: Trisomy of 21 chromosome B: Mosaicism of 21 chromosome C: Robersonian translocation of 21.21, 21.18 D: Deletion of 21

Q54 : Following are functions of prostaglandins except__________?

A: Increase capillary permeability B: Uterine contraction C: Lower blood pressure D: Elevates blood pressure

Q55 : A patient with amenorrhea, short stature, less public hair can be in all of the following except___________?

A: 47 XXY B: 46 XY C: 45 X D: 46 XXY

Q56 : Thrombocytosis is seen in_______________?

A: Osteopetrosis B: DIsseminated intravascular coagulation C: Haemolytic anaemia D: Thiazide therapy

Q57 : Correct sequence of cell cycle ?

A: Go – G1 – S – G2 – M B: Go – G1 – G2 – S – M C: Go – M – G2 – S – G1 D: Go – G1 – S – M – G2

Q58 : In sickle cell anaemia there is_____________?

A: 75 to 100% haemoglobins B: 10 to 20% haemoglobins C: 20 to 30% haemoglobins D: 50 to 60% haemoglobins

Q59 : The most common site of origin for venous thrombi leading to pulmonary embolism is_____________?

A: Ascending oaorta B: Portal vein C: Deep leg veins D: Right atrium

Q60 : Major site of atheroscierosis_______________?

A: Coronary artery B: Abdominal aorta C: Thoracic aorta D: Internal carotid artery

Q61 : VIRCHOW’s cells are seen in___________?

A: Lepromatous leprosy B: Tuberculoid leprosy C: Borderline lepromatous leprosy D: Intermediate leprosy

Q62 : In a thrombus, the dark lines of zahn are due to_______________?

A: Coagulated fibrin B: Aggregated proteins C: Aggregated platelets D: Aggregated R.B.C

Q63 : Physiologic programmed cell death is termed as_______________?

A: Apoptosis B: Lysis C: Autolysis D: Autopsy

Q64 : Most tumours are ___________________?

A: Biclonal in origin B: Monoclonal in origin C: Multiclonal in origin D: None of the above

Q65 : Which of the following cells are more abundant in chronic inflammation than in acute inflammation ?

A: Plasma cells B: Eosinophils C: Neutrophils D: Normoblats

Q66 : The predominant cells after 48 hours of inflammation are_____________?

A: Monocytes B: Macrophage C: Neutrophils D: A and B

Q67 : IN fanconi anemia there is a_______________?

A: Deficiency of copper B: Mutation of DNA repair gene C: No increased risk of Sq. cell carcinoma D: Purely nutritional disorder etiology

Q68 : Epitheloid cells are seen in all of the following except______________?

A: Tuberculosis B: Granulation tissue C: Syphilis D: Sarcoidosis

Q69 : Earliest transient change following tissue injury_____________?

A: Neutrophilia B: Neutropenia C: Monocytoses D: Lymphocytoses

Q70 : Deposition of bile pigment in the basal ganglia is called________________?

A: jaundice B: Kernicterus C: Haemosiderosis D: All of the above

Q71 : Example of ganulomatous inflammation_____________?

A: Sarcoidosis B: Leprosy C: Tuberculosis D: All of the above

Q72 : Schilling test is performed to find out______________?

A: Folic acid level B: B12 malabsroption C: Pancreatic enzyme deficiency D: C. Pancreatic enzyme deficiency

Q73 : Anaphylotoxins are___________?

A: C3a, C5a B: C3b, C5a C: C2, C3 D: C3b, C5b

Q74 : Ascites seen in alcoholic liver cirrhosis result form______________?

A: Decreased protein production by liver B: Due to increased portal hypertension C: Due to obstruction of bile duct D: All of the above

Q75 : Which is associated with defect in DNA repair___________?

A: Xeroderma pigmentosum B: Albinism C: Icthyosis D: Sickle cell anaemia

Q76 : Syndrome which is characterized by 2X chromosomes and 1Y chromosome is_____________?

A: Kleinfelters syndrome B: Down syndrome C: Turner syndrome D: Marfan syndrome

Q77 : Left side heart failure results in______________?

A: Oedema of lungs B: Oedema of spleen C: Oedema of legs D: Oedema of liver

Q78 : Saddle embolus causes sudden death by blocking___________?

A: Coronary arteries B: Cerebral arteries C: Pulmonary arteries D: Renal arteries

Q79 : Endotoxic shock is propagated____________?

A: Endothelial injury B: Peripheral vasodilation C: Increased vascular permeability D: Cytokine action

Q80 : The cells which have the capacity to multiply through out their life_____________?

A: Stable cells B: Permanent cells C: Labile cells D: None of the above

Q81 : Peripheral nerve regenerates at the rate of ________ mm per day?

A: 1 B: 2 C: 0.5 D: 5

Q82 : Immune response to tumour is mediated by_______________?

A: Cytotoxic T – lymphocytes B: Natural killer cells C: Humoral mechanism D: All of the above

Q83 : The increase in size of uterus during pregnancy is an example of ________________?

A: Hyperplasia B: Hypertrophy C: Both of the above D: None of the above

Q84 : The infarct of the following organs is invariably haemorrhagic_____________?

A: Kidney B: Lung C: Spleen D: Heart

Q85 : Christmas disease is due to deficiency of________________?

A: Factor IX B: Factor X C: Factor VIII D: Factor V

Q86 : Onion skin appearance is seen in_______________?

A: Ewing’s sarcoma B: Osteosarcomazx C: Osteoma D: Fibro sarcoma

Q87 : Nut meg liver occurs in_______________?

A: Jaundice B: Chronic venous congestion C: Cirrhosis D: Hepatocellular carcinoma

Q88 : Important components of collagen synthesis, wound strength and contraction include all of the following EXCEPT ?

A: Fibroblasts B: Myofibroblasts C: Vitamin C D: Vitamin D

Q89 : All are desirable in the union of the fracture site except____________?

A: Formation of fibrous joint or pseudoarthrosis B: Remodeling of bone C: Formation of blood clot D: Formation of procallus or osseous cells

Q90 : Nuclear cytoplasmic ratio in malignant cells is________________?

A: 1 : 6 B: 1 : 5 C: 1 : 1 D: 6 : 4

Q91 : Amyloid material can be best diagnosed by___________________?

A: Polarized microscopy B: Electron microscopy C: X-ray crytallography D: Scanning electron miscroscopy

Q92 : Granuloma is characterized by all of the following except______________?

A: A specific type of chronic inflammation B: Accumulation of modified macrophages C: Initiated by a number of infectious and non infectious agents D: A reaction of acute inflammation

Q93 : Earliest lesion in atherosclerosis is_____________?

A: Atheroma B: Fatty streak C: Fibrous plaque D: None of the above

Q94 : Tumour arising from secetory and glandular epithelium are__________________?

A: Adenomas B: Adenosarcomas C: Angiomas D: Both A and B

Q95 : Which of the following is not true for hemophilia A ________________?

A: Hemophilia A is due to deficiency of factor VIII B: In hemophilia A females are carriers C: Desmopressin is useful in the management of hemophilia A D: Levels of factor VIII less than 50% are associated with spontaneous hemorrhage

Q96 : Coagulative necrosis is_______________?

A: Characteristic of focal bacterial infections B: Characteristic of hypoxic death C: Characteristic by loss of tissue architecture D: None of the above

Q97 : Somatic mutation of PTEN is seen in________________?

A: Retinoblastoma B: Osteosarcoma C: Carcinoma breast D: Endometrial Carcinoma

Q98 : Hypoxic death leads to__________________?

A: Liquefactive necrosis B: Coagulative nacrosis C: Caseous necrosis D: Fat necrosis

Q99 : An acute inflammatory focus would attract___________?

A: Monocytes B: Plasma cells C: Neutrophils D: Basophils

Q100 : Incidence of most common malignant tumours in women is_____________?

A: Breast B: Lung C: Cervix D: Ovary

Free Pathology MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

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