Free Pathology MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

Q1 : Thrombocytosis is seen in_______________?

A: Osteopetrosis B: DIsseminated intravascular coagulation C: Haemolytic anaemia D: Thiazide therapy

Q2 : The most reliable post mortem features of left sided cardiac failure is____________?

A: Systemic venous congestion B: Oedematous ankles C: Chronic venous congestion of lungs D: Enlargement of spleen and liver

Q3 : Anaplasia is_______________?

A: Lack of functional differentiation B: Lack of structural differentiation C: Is a characteristic feature of malignancy D: All of the above

Q4 : All of the following causes excessive bleeding during tooth extraction except _______________?

A: Haemophilia – A B: Haemophilia – B C: Anti thrombin – III deficiency D: Von-willebrand disease

Q5 : Following are functions of prostaglandins except__________?

A: Increase capillary permeability B: Uterine contraction C: Lower blood pressure D: Elevates blood pressure

Q6 : All of the following statements are true regarding reversible cell injury, except______________?

A: Formation of amorphous densities in the mitochondrial matix B: Diminished generation of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) C: Formation of blebs in the plasma membrane D: Detachment of ribosomes from the granular endoplasmic reticulum

Q7 : An infarct is most frequently is characterized by What type of necrosis ?

A: Fatty B: Caseous C: Gangrenous D: Coagulative

Q8 : Granulation tissue contains_____________?

A: Giant cells B: Fibroblasts C: Endothelial cells D: B & C

Q9 : Hemophilia_______________?

A: Affects males and females equally B: Increased clotting time in all patients C: Nerve blocks can be given safely D: Is a congenital disorder

Q10 : Malignant tumour of epithelial origin is_______________?

A: Carcinoma B: Sarcomas C: Papilloma D: All of the above

Q11 : Both beta chains of haemoglobin are abnormal in_________________?

A: Heterozygous sickle cell trait B: Thalassemia major C: Homozygous sickle cell anemia D: Megaloblastic anemia

Q12 : Hypoxic death leads to__________________?

A: Liquefactive necrosis B: Coagulative nacrosis C: Caseous necrosis D: Fat necrosis

Q13 : All of the following are typically associated with loss of 40% of the circulating blood volume except_______________?

A: A decrease in the blood pressure B: A decrease in the central venous pressure C: A decrease in the heart rate D:

Q14 : Which of the following is a nutritional deficiency anemia______________?

A: aplastic anemia B: sickle cell anemia C: megaloblastic anemia D: hemolytic anemia

Q15 : Not sequelae of cellular events in atheroscierotic infarction_____________?

A: Neutrophilic infiltration B: Astrocytes C: Ingress of macrophages D: Intense eosinophilia

Q16 : Most common cause of pulmonary embolism ?

A: Thrombophebitis B: Endarteritis C: Atheroscleroses D: Lymphangitis

Q17 : Ascites seen in alcoholic liver cirrhosis result form______________?

A: Decreased protein production by liver B: Due to increased portal hypertension C: Due to obstruction of bile duct D: All of the above

Q18 : Lymphatic leukemoid reaction is usually seen in the following EXCEPT________________?

A: Tuberculosis B: Pertussis C: Lobar pneumonia D: Viral infections

Q19 : Oncogenic viruses in human are_________________?

A: HPV B: EBV C: Hepatitis -B virus D: All of the above

Q20 : Which of the following is NOT true of dystrophic calcification ?

A: Occurs in damaged tissue B: Tuberculous lesions C: Atherosclerotic lesions D: Serum calcium levels are high

Q21 : Which of the following group of drugs are a neuromuscular blocking agents_______________?

A: choline, adrenaline and amphetamine B: Glycinium neostigamine and physostigamine C: Pancuronium, rocuronium D: Pirenzipine, propanolol and propantheline

Q22 : A haemophilia person has married to a normal woman Then his___________?

A: Daughter are carrier B: Sons are infected C: Daughter are infeted D: All are normal

Q23 : Difference in transudate & exudate is that the former has a______________?

A: Low protein B: Cloudy appearance C: Increased specific gravity D: High protein

Q24 : Pilocarpine_______________?

A: Lowers the intraocular pressure in glaucoma B: Cleaved by acetylcholinesterase C: Inhibits sweat and lacrimation D: Causes tachycardia

Q25 : Disappearance of nuclear chromatin is called as__________?

A: Pyknosis B: Karyolysis C: Karyorhexie D: None

Q26 : Early positive reaction in lepromin test is___________?

A: Fernandez reaction B: Mituda reaction C: Wasserman reaction D: None of the above

Q27 : Thrombosis due to hypercoagulability is seen in____________?

A: Women talking oral contraceptives B: Severe trauma or burns C: Cardiac failure D: All of the above

Q28 : Christmas disease is due to deficiency of________________?

A: Factor IX B: Factor X C: Factor VIII D: Factor V

Q29 : An acute inflammatory focus would attract___________?

A: Monocytes B: Plasma cells C: Neutrophils D: Basophils

Q30 : Secondary amylodosis is seen most commonly in_______________?

A: Actinomycosis B: Tuberculosis C: Rabies D: Secondary Iues

Q31 : Schilling test is performed to find out______________?

A: Folic acid level B: B12 malabsroption C: Pancreatic enzyme deficiency D: C. Pancreatic enzyme deficiency

Q32 : Burkitt’s lymphoma is associated with the proliferation of ______________?

A: T- cell B: B – cell C: Lymph vessels D: Lymph nodes

Q33 : An acute inflammation would attract____________?

A: Monocytes B: Plasma cells C: Neutrophils D: Eosinophils

Q34 : Gingiva are enlarged in leukemia because of____________________?

A: Hemophilia B: Hemolytic anaemia C: Aplastic anaemia D: Megaloblastic anemia

Q35 : A infant with cleft lip, palate, polydactly, microcephaly with holoprosencephaly, ectodermal scalp defect is suffering from ?

A: Trisomy 21 B: Trisomy 18 C: Trisomy 13 D: Turner syndrome

Q36 : A shift to left indicates an increase in number of______________?

A: immature neutrophils B: erythrocytes C: matures neutrophils D: Platelets

Q37 : All cells do not divide at the same rate. Events in which phase of the cell cycle determine when a cell is going to replicate ?

A: M phase B: G1 phase C: S phase D: G2 phase

Q38 : A reduction in the total leucocyte count is called_________________?

A: Leucocytosis B: Leucopenia C: Leucorrhoea D: Leukemia

Q39 : Tha gene for Breast Cancer (BRCA) is present on chromosome___________?

A: 21 B: 17 C: 15 D: 9

Q40 : Mural thrombi are thrombi in______________?

A: Heart chamber B: Valve cusp C: Vein D: Arteries

Q41 : The major factors predisposing to thrombogenesis include all of the following except_____________?

A: Endothelial injury B: Hyper coagulability of blood C: Altered blood flow D: Pattern of blood flow

Q42 : Which of the following statements is true?

A: Arterial thrombi produces ischemia and infarction where as cardiac and venous thrombi cause embolism B: Arterial thrombi to be white and non occlusive (mural) where as venous thrombi are red and occlusive C: Venous thrombi are soft, red and gelatinous where as arterial thrombi are firm and white D: All of the above

Q43 : Major and frequent influence for thrombus formation is________________?

A: Alteration in blood flow B: Alteration in blood flow C: Endothelial damage D: Fatty streak

Q44 : Endotoxic shock is propagated____________?

A: Endothelial injury B: Peripheral vasodilation C: Increased vascular permeability D: Cytokine action

Q45 : Which is true about Multiple myeloma ?

A: IgM spike increase B: Direct plasma cell deposition in glomerular capilaries leads to kidney damage C: IL 8 is a marker for bone lesions D: Invariably increase in alkaline phosphatase

Q46 : Intrinsic factor for absorption of Vit B12 secreted in ______________?

A: Duodenum B: Stomach C: Intestine D: Ileum

Q47 : The characteristic cells of chronic inflammation are all except___________?

A: Plasma cells B: Macrophages C: Lymphocytes D: PMN’s

Q48 : Hemophilia A is caused due to deficiency of___________________?

A: Factor X B: Factor XI C: Factor IX D: Factor VIII

Q49 : The hormone dependent shedding of endometrium is an example of_______________?

A: Necrosis B: Autolysis C: Apoptosis D: None of the above

Q50 : Increased iron binding capacity and decreased serum iron is seen in which anemia________________?

A: Iron deficiency B: Aplastic C: Sickle cell D: Chronic infections

Q51 : In iron deficiency anemia there is_________________?

A: Decrease in hemoglobin B: Increase in hemoglobin C: Increase in palatelets D: Decrease in platelets

Q52 : VIRCHOW’s cells are seen in___________?

A: Lepromatous leprosy B: Tuberculoid leprosy C: Borderline lepromatous leprosy D: Intermediate leprosy

Q53 : Which of the following statement about fibrinous exudate is FALSE ?

A: It is associated with many types of severe inflammation B: It has low protein content C: It has fibrin precipitates D: It induces connective tissue organization

Q54 : All of the following promotes wound healing except_________?

A: Protein B: Steroids C: Vitamin C D: Adequate oxygen supply

Q55 : Dytrophic calcification are calcifications seen in__________________?

A: Skin layers B: Salivary glands C: Normal tissues D: Dead tissue

Q56 : Following is used to stain fungi______________?

A: PAS B: Fontania stain C: Ferrous trichrome D: Pearls prussian blue

Q57 : DiGeorge’s syndrome is due to___________?

A: Congenital thymic aplasia B: Deficiency of complement factor C: Inborn error of metabolism D: Chromosomal anomaly

Q58 : Pernicious anaemia is associated with the deficiency of________________?

A: Folic acid B: Vitamin B1 C: Vitamin B6 D: Vitamin B12

Q59 : Which of the following procedures is used as a routine technique in karyotyping using light microscopy ?

A: G banding B: C banding C: Q banding D: Brd V-staining

Q60 : The following chemical mediator is a product of arachidonic acid metabolite by cyclo oxygenase pathway____________?

A: LxA4 B: C: D:

Q61 : The cell with increased mitotic rate and resembling the undifferentiated mesenchymal cells of the same origin is______________?

A: Anaplastic B: Dysplastic C: Metaplastic D: Hyperplastic

Q62 : Phagocytes kill bacteria through which mechanism_____________?

A: Membrane attack complex killing B: Oxidative and non-oxidative killing C: Zipper killing D: Chemotaxis

Q63 : Hypovolemic shock develops after loss of______________?

A: 10% blood B: 20% blood C: 30% blood D: 40% blood

Q64 : The necrotic tissue and deposits of immune complexes, complement and plasma protein produce a smudy eosinophilic deposit is termed as_____________?

A: Coagulative necrosis B: Fibrinoid necrosis C: Caesous necrosis D: Caesous necrosis

Q65 : Increased levels of haemoglobin A2 is characteristic of________________?

A: Sickle cell trait B: b-thalassaemia crait C: Glucose-6 phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency D: a-Thalassamia

Q66 : Edema occurs due to_____________?

A: Increased capilary permeability B: Decreased capilary permeability C: Decreased interstitial fluid D: Decreased blood flow

Q67 : Some micro organisms produce a diffuse spreading inflammatory reaction due to the elaboration of____________?

A: Coagulase B: Peroxidase C: Bradykinin D: Hyaluronidase

Q68 : Caseation necrosis is suggestive of________________?

A: Tuberculosis B: Sarcoidosis C: Leprosy D: Midline lethal granuloma

Q69 : Saddle embolus causes sudden death by blocking___________?

A: Coronary arteries B: Cerebral arteries C: Pulmonary arteries D: Renal arteries

Q70 : Barr body is associated with________?

A: Metaphase B: Interphase C: Anaphase D: Prophase

Q71 : Amyloid material can be best diagnosed by___________________?

A: Polarized microscopy B: Electron microscopy C: X-ray crytallography D: Scanning electron miscroscopy

Q72 : Erythroblastosis fetalis is a condition seen when there is________________?

A: Rh -ve mother and Rh -ve foetus B: Rh -ve mother and Rh +ve foetus C: Rh +ve mother and Rh -ve foetus D: Rh +ve mother and Rh +ve foetus

Q73 : Down syndrome is caused by all except___________?

A: Trisomy of 21 chromosome B: Mosaicism of 21 chromosome C: Robersonian translocation of 21.21, 21.18 D: Deletion of 21

Q74 : The process of phagocytosis was discovered by___________?

A: Celsus B: Elie Metchnikoff C: Virchow D: None of the above

Q75 : In sickle cell anaemia there is_____________?

A: 75 to 100% haemoglobins B: 10 to 20% haemoglobins C: 20 to 30% haemoglobins D: 50 to 60% haemoglobins

Q76 : Bone marrow stem cells differ from differ from differentiated progenitor stem cells in what respect ?

A: Provide differentiated terminal cells B: Reconstitution of Bone marrow C: Formation of the ovum D: Act as a repair system for the body

Q77 : Ghon focus is associated with ______________?

A: Gonorrhea B: AIDS C: Syphilis D: Tuberculosis

Q78 : All of the following drugs are non depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agents except_______________?

A: D-tubocurarine B: Gallamine triethiodide C: Pancuronium bromide D: Succinylcholine

Q79 : Bony union taking place with formation of medullary callus without periosteal callus formation is______________?

A: Primary union B: Secondary union C: Both of the above D: None of the above

Q80 : Egg shell calcification of Hilar Lymphnode is associated with_____________?

A: Silicosis B: Asbestosis C: Byssinosis D: Anthracosis

Q81 : Peripheral nerve regenerates at the rate of ________ mm per day?

A: 1 B: 2 C: 0.5 D: 5

Q82 : Factors inhibiting wound healing____________?

A: Infection B: Cortisol C: Foreign Bodies D: All of the above

Q83 : Which of the following is correctly matched with the forms of extravasation hemorrhages______________?

A: Ecchymosis – large extravasation of blood in to the skin and mucous membrane B: Purpura – small areas (1cm) of hemorrhage in to the skin and mucous membrane C: petechiae – small pin point hemorrhages D: All of the above

Q84 : In granuloma, epithelial and giant cells are derived from_____________?

A: T cells B: B cells C: Plasma cells D: Monocyte

Q85 : Leucopenia is characteristic of____________?

A: Appendicitis B: Enteric fever C: Meningitis D: Myocardial infarction

Q86 : Granuloma is characterized by all of the following except______________?

A: A specific type of chronic inflammation B: Accumulation of modified macrophages C: Initiated by a number of infectious and non infectious agents D: A reaction of acute inflammation

Q87 : Risk factor for atherosclerosis_______________?

A: Smoking B: Hypertension C: Diabetes D: All of the above

Q88 : Thrombocytosis is seen in_______________?

A: Osteopetrosis B: DIsseminated intravascular coagulation C: Haemolytic anaemia D: Thiazide therapy

Q89 : Highly infection stage of syphilis______________?

A: Primary B: Secondary C: Tetriary D: Congenital

Q90 : Which of the following is a hemolytic anemia________________?

A: Sickle cell anemia B: Thalassemia C: Hereditary spherocytosis D: All of the above

Q91 : Increased bleeding time is seen in all except______________?

A: Thrombocytopenia B: Von Willebrand disease C: Hemophilia D: Ehlers danlos syndrome

Q92 : Primary hemostasis is disturbed in______________?

A: Platelet disorder B: Lupus anticoagulant C: Hemophilia D: Liver disease

Q93 : Which of the following statement is _____________?

A: Low density lipoproteins has maximum association with atherosclerosis B: High density lipoproteins have protective role in atherosclerosis C: Poly unsaturated fats lowers plasma cholesterol levels D: HDL contains the highest cholesterol content

Q94 : In megaloblastic anaemia the cells are___________________?

A: Macrocytic hyperchromic B: Macrocytic hypochromic C: Macrocytic normochromic D: None of the above

Q95 : A patient reports with dyspnoea on slight exertion. He also has multiple petechial spots and spontaneous hemorrhage. His RBC count is less than one lakh/mm3 His hematocrit and hemoglobin is low. Most probable diagnosis is______________?

A: Pernicious anemia B: Thalassemia C: Aplastic anemia D: Sprue

Q96 : Shock is a circulatory disturbance characterized by________________?

A: Increased blood pressure B: Decreased volume of circulation blood C: Elevated body temperature D: Decreased volume of interstitial fluid

Q97 : Malignant tumour of skeletal muscie is__________________?

A: Rhabdomyoma B: Rhabdomyosarcoma C: Leiomyoma D: Leiomyosarcoma

Q98 : Epstein Barr virus is associated with ___________________?

A: Nasopharyngeal carcinoma B: Burkitts lymphoma C: Infectious mononucleosis D: All of the above

Q99 : Philadelphia chromosome is consistently found in_______________?

A: AML B: CLL C: CML D: All of the above

Q100 : In hypovolemic shock_____________?

A: The central venous pressure ins high B: The extremities are pale, cold and sweating C: There is always s site of bleeding D: Urine output is unaffected

Free Pathology MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

Time to prove what you know!

LAT Test

GAT Test

Contact Info

Free Pathology MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

Subscribe our Newsletter

LAT Test

GAT Test

Contact Info