Free Pathology MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

Q1 : Carcinogens induce tumours, they are________________?

A: Chemicals B: Radiation C: Viruses D: All of the above

Q2 : Which of the following is not an action of epinephrine when administered intravenously in a high dose ?

A: Increased liver glycogenolysis B: Causes broachiolar constriction C: Evokes extrasystoles in the heart D: Produces restlessness and anxiety

Q3 : The characteristic cells of chronic inflammation are all except___________?

A: Plasma cells B: Macrophages C: Lymphocytes D: PMN’s

Q4 : Lipofuschin is an insoluble endogenous pigment, also known as___________?

A: Lipochrome B: Aging pigment C: All of the above D: All of the above

Q5 : Three days after the onset of myocardial infarction, which enzyme level has the best predictive value____________?

A: Serum CPK B: Serum LDH C: Serum SGOT D: Serum SGPT

Q6 : Which is true about Multiple myeloma ?

A: IgM spike increase B: Direct plasma cell deposition in glomerular capilaries leads to kidney damage C: IL 8 is a marker for bone lesions D: Invariably increase in alkaline phosphatase

Q7 : Intrinsic factor for absorption of Vit B12 secreted in ______________?

A: Duodenum B: Stomach C: Intestine D: Ileum

Q8 : Which of the following is commonly involved in multiple myeloma_______________?

A: Clavicle B: Vertebrae C: Pelvis D: Lungs

Q9 : Chicken-wire appearance of enlarged bone marrow spaces is seen in_______________?

A: Fetal alcohol syndrome B: Sickle cell anaemia C: Haemophilia A D: Beta thalassemia majon

Q10 : HOX gene is responsible for which malformation_____________?

A: Polysyndactyly B: Holoprosencephaly C: Mayer Rokitansky syndrome D: Gorlin syndrome

Q11 : Basal cell carcinoma occurs on_________________?

A: Skin and pilosebaceous adnexa B: Skin and mucosa C: Skin, lips and tongue D: All of the above

Q12 : In leucopenia, which cell type is predominantly involved ?

A: Erythrocytes B: Granulocytes C: Eosinophils D: Monocytes

Q13 : Both beta chains of haemoglobin are abnormal in_________________?

A: Heterozygous sickle cell trait B: Thalassemia major C: Homozygous sickle cell anemia D: Megaloblastic anemia

Q14 : Christmas disease is due to deficiency of________________?

A: Factor IX B: Factor X C: Factor VIII D: Factor V

Q15 : The first even in primary wound healing__________?

A: Epithelial changes B: Organization C: Formation of blood cloth D: Acute inflammatory response

Q16 : Inflammation is characterized by________________?

A: Transudation -> exudation -> oedena B: Oedema -> exudation C: Exudation -> transudation -> oedema D: Only by exudation -> oedema

Q17 : All of the following drugs are non depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agents except_______________?

A: D-tubocurarine B: Gallamine triethiodide C: Pancuronium bromide D: Succinylcholine

Q18 : Which of the following is common in all forms of shock ?

A: Sepsis B: Hypovolemia C: Vasoconstriction D: Impaired tissue prefusion

Q19 : The antidote for heparin is______________?

A: Penicillinase B: Protamine sulphate C: Pryosulphate D: Potassium sulphate

Q20 : The cells which do not undergo mitotic divisions___________?

A: Smooth muscle cells B: Endotheilial cells C: Bone marrow cells D: Neurons

Q21 : Disappearance of nuclear chromatin is called as__________?

A: Pyknosis B: Karyolysis C: Karyorhexie D: None

Q22 : Which of the following is a hemolytic anemia________________?

A: Sickle cell anemia B: Thalassemia C: Hereditary spherocytosis D: All of the above

Q23 : Which of the following is correctly matched_______________?

A: Coagulation necrosis Tuberculosis B: Caseation yellow fever C: Fat necrosis Pancreatitis D: Gumma infarction

Q24 : A patient reports with dyspnoea on slight exertion. He also has multiple petechial spots and spontaneous hemorrhage. His RBC count is less than one lakh/mm3 His hematocrit and hemoglobin is low. Most probable diagnosis is______________?

A: Pernicious anemia B: Thalassemia C: Aplastic anemia D: Sprue

Q25 : Synthesis of DNA occurs in which phase ____________________?

A: G1 B: S C: G2 D: M

Q26 : A infant with cleft lip, palate, polydactly, microcephaly with holoprosencephaly, ectodermal scalp defect is suffering from ?

A: Trisomy 21 B: Trisomy 18 C: Trisomy 13 D: Turner syndrome

Q27 : Ghon focus is associated with ______________?

A: Gonorrhea B: AIDS C: Syphilis D: Tuberculosis

Q28 : Gingiva are enlarged in leukemia because of____________________?

A: Hemophilia B: Hemolytic anaemia C: Aplastic anaemia D: Megaloblastic anemia

Q29 : The most common site of origin for venous thrombi leading to pulmonary embolism is_____________?

A: Ascending oaorta B: Portal vein C: Deep leg veins D: Right atrium

Q30 : Tha gene for Breast Cancer (BRCA) is present on chromosome___________?

A: 21 B: 17 C: 15 D: 9

Q31 : In sickle cell anemia there is substitution of_________________?

A: Valine for glutamic acid at the sixth position of beta chain B: Phenylalanine for glutamic acid C: Tyrosine for valine at the 6th position at beta chain D: All of the above

Q32 : Increased proliferation of cells is called_______________?

A: Hypertrophy B: Atrophy C: Hyperplasia D: Metaplasia

Q33 : Oncogenic viruses in human are_________________?

A: HPV B: EBV C: Hepatitis -B virus D: All of the above

Q34 : A child’s CSF was examined I contains slightly raised or normal PMN cells, raised lymphocytes, absence of mycotic growth, value of protein is normal or above normal, glucose level is normal. The most probable diagnosis is____________?

A: Pyogenic bacterial meningitis B: Viral meningitis C: Fungal meningitis D: Tuberculous meningitis

Q35 : Thrombocytosis is seen in_______________?

A: Osteopetrosis B: DIsseminated intravascular coagulation C: Haemolytic anaemia D: Thiazide therapy

Q36 : Component of tubercle bacilli which produce granuloma is_____________?

A: Surface glycolipids B: Sulfatide C: Hetero polysaccharide D: Sulfadase

Q37 : Factors inhibiting wound healing____________?

A: Infection B: Cortisol C: Foreign Bodies D: All of the above

Q38 : Syndrome associated with increased risk of leukemia is__________?

A: Plummer vinson syndrome B: Klinefelter syndrome C: Sturge weber syndrome D: Multiple hamartoma syndrome

Q39 : Factors influencing wound healing are the following_______________?

A: Nutrition B: Adequate blood supply C: Size and location of wound D: All of the above

Q40 : Aplastic anemia results from______________?

A: Cytotoxic drugs B: Whole body irradiation C: HIV infection D: All of the above

Q41 : Reliable screening test for hemophilia is_______________?

A: APTT B: BT C: PT D: CBP

Q42 : Which of the following symptomatic atheroscierotic disease is correct_____________?

A: Aorta – Aneurysm, thromboembolism B: Heart – MI, Ischemic heart disease C: Lower extremities – claudication gangrene D: All of the above

Q43 : Most tumours are ___________________?

A: Biclonal in origin B: Monoclonal in origin C: Multiclonal in origin D: None of the above

Q44 : The most reliable post mortem features of left sided cardiac failure is____________?

A: Systemic venous congestion B: Oedematous ankles C: Chronic venous congestion of lungs D: Enlargement of spleen and liver

Q45 : Following are functions of prostaglandins except__________?

A: Increase capillary permeability B: Uterine contraction C: Lower blood pressure D: Elevates blood pressure

Q46 : In hemorrhager lost plasma is replaced by______________?

A: Bone marrow B: Kidney C: Spleen D: Muscle

Q47 : The predisposing factor for squamous cell carcinoma __________________?

A: Solar keratosis B: Chronic ulcers C: Leukoplakia D: All of the above

Q48 : Cotton wool appearance is seen ____________________ ?

A: Pagets disease B: Osteomyelitis C: Fibrous dysplasia D: Achondroplasia

Q49 : Serum sickness syndrome is_____________?

A: A transplant immunity B: An anaphylactic shock C: Systemic arthus reaction D: None of the above

Q50 : Malignant neoplasms shows all the following features EXCEPT_____________?

A: Disorganized cell structure B: Encapulation C: Invasion of blood vessels D: Rapid, erratic growth

Q51 : Lymphatic leukemoid reaction is usually seen in the following EXCEPT________________?

A: Tuberculosis B: Pertussis C: Lobar pneumonia D: Viral infections

Q52 : The wasting syndrome associated in cancer is_____________?

A: Achalasia B: Cacchexia C: Atelexis D: Cacoguesia

Q53 : Ag-Ab (antigen-antibody) reaction due to the presence of antibody at the surface of cell is______________?

A: Type I hyp B: Type II hyp C: Type III hyp D: Type IV hyp

Q54 : The persistence of epithelial cells after wound healing give rise to_______________?

A: Implantation cyst B: Keloid C: Wound dehiscence D: Cicatrisation

Q55 : Incomplete fractures of the bone are called___________?

A: Comminuted fracture B: Compound fracture C: Simple fracture D: Green stick fracture

Q56 : Onion skin appearance is seen in_______________?

A: Ewing’s sarcoma B: Osteosarcomazx C: Osteoma D: Fibro sarcoma

Q57 : Increased iron binding capacity and decreased serum iron is seen in which anemia________________?

A: Iron deficiency B: Aplastic C: Sickle cell D: Chronic infections

Q58 : Increase in number of RBC is seen in ____________?

A: Neutropenia B: Leukemia C: Polycythemia D: Anaemia

Q59 : The increase in size of uterus during pregnancy is an example of ________________?

A: Hyperplasia B: Hypertrophy C: Both of the above D: None of the above

Q60 : Prostaglandins are synthesized from______________?

A: RNA template B: Rough endoplasmic reticulum C: Polyunsaturated fatty acids D: None of the above

Q61 : Coagulative necrosis is_______________?

A: Characteristic of focal bacterial infections B: Characteristic of hypoxic death C: Characteristic by loss of tissue architecture D: None of the above

Q62 : Anasarca means_____________?

A: Abnormal inflammatory process B: Severe generalized swelling C: Absence of proliferation of vessels following inflammation D: Presence of pus

Q63 : One of the following is not a malignant feature____________?

A: Aplasia B: Anaplasia C: Abnormal mitosis D: Pleomorphism

Q64 : Rodent ulcer is most commonly seen on________________?

A: Rodent ulcer is most commonly seen on________________? B: Face above alatragus line C: Anywhere on hairless skin D: All of the above

Q65 : Example of ganulomatous inflammation_____________?

A: Sarcoidosis B: Leprosy C: Tuberculosis D: All of the above

Q66 : Tumour which shows origin from more than one germ layers is known as________________?

A: Teratoma B: Plemorphic tumours C: Choristoma D: Hamartoma

Q67 : Severe generalized edema is called as_______________?

A: Myxoedema B: Pitting edema C: Anasarca D: Dependent edema

Q68 : By admin Diseases of Blood And Lymphnodes Medical Mcqs Pathology No Comments Syndrome associated with increased risk of leukemia is_____________?

A: Plummer Vinson syndrome B: Klinefelter syndrome C: Sturge weber syndrome D: Multiple hamartoma syndrome

Q69 : An acute inflammatory focus would attract___________?

A: Monocytes B: Plasma cells C: Neutrophils D: Basophils

Q70 : Down syndrome is caused by all except___________?

A: Trisomy of 21 chromosome B: Mosaicism of 21 chromosome C: Robersonian translocation of 21.21, 21.18 D: Deletion of 21

Q71 : Which is associated with defect in DNA repair___________?

A: Xeroderma pigmentosum B: Albinism C: Icthyosis D: Sickle cell anaemia

Q72 : The specific gravity of transudate is_____________?

A: Below 1.0.10 B: Below 1.012 C: Between 1.012 and 1.020 D: Above 1.020

Q73 : Nuclear cytoplasmic ratio in malignant cells is________________?

A: 1 : 6 B: 1 : 5 C: 1 : 1 D: 6 : 4

Q74 : Gingiva are enlarged in leukemia because of__________________?

A: Capillary dilation B: Erythrocyte engorgement C: Edema D: WBC infiltration

Q75 : NK cells are effective against viral infected cells only if the cell with infection___________?

A: Exprss MHC class I proteins B: Unable to express MHC class I proteins C: Express MHC class II proteins D: Unable to express MHC class II proteins

Q76 : Cold abscess formation is due to_____________?

A: Presence of acute inflammation B: Formation of caseous pus with signs of acute inflammation C: Formation of caseous pus without signs of acute inflammation D: Infected cyst

Q77 : The following chemical mediator is a product of arachidonic acid metabolite by cyclo oxygenase pathway____________?

A: LxA4 B: C: D:

Q78 : Heterozygous sickle cell anaemia gives protection against______________?

A: G6PD B: Malaria C: Thalassemia D: Dengue fever

Q79 : A 13 year old boy presents with a large mixed lytic and blastic mass in the metaphyseal region of the lower end of femur. The most likely diagnosis is___________?

A: Ewing’s sarcoma B: Osteosarcoma C: Chondrosarcoma D: Giant cell tumour

Q80 : Hodgkin’s lymphoma can be distinguished from non – Hodgkin’s lymphomas by_________________?

A: Reed – Sternberg cells B: Systemic manifestations C: Occurence in young adults D: All of the above

Q81 : The metabolic effects of sympathomimetics are mediated by__________________?

A: All beta-adrenergic receptors B: Dopaminergic receptors C: Beta 2 receptors D: Opioid receptors

Q82 : Neurologic abnormalities occur with_______________?

A: Foliate deficiency anemia B: Pernicious anemia C: Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia D: Both B and C

Q83 : Most common cause of pulmonary embolism ?

A: Thrombophebitis B: Endarteritis C: Atheroscleroses D: Lymphangitis

Q84 : Egg shell calcification of Hilar Lymphnode is associated with_____________?

A: Silicosis B: Asbestosis C: Byssinosis D: Anthracosis

Q85 : Exfoliative cytology is indicated in___________?

A: Heavily keratinized lesions of oral cavity B: Pro-cancerous lesions of oral cavity C: Cigarette smokers D: Mass screening of cervical cancer

Q86 : Earliest transient change following tissue injury_____________?

A: Neutrophilia B: Neutropenia C: Monocytoses D: Lymphocytoses

Q87 : Normocytic, Normochromic anemia is seen in______________?

A: Hemolytic anemia B: chronic disease C: Acute blood loss D: All of the above

Q88 : The activation of caspases is likely to lead to_________________?

A: Apoptotic cell death B: Blood coagulation C: Mitotic cell division D: G1 to S phase of cell cycle

Q89 : Physiologic programmed cell death is termed as_______________?

A: Apoptosis B: Lysis C: Autolysis D: Autopsy

Q90 : In acute inflammation, immediate transient permeability in cells is increased by__________?

A: Direct injury & necrosis B: Endothelial Gaps by histamine C: Leucocyte mediated endothelial injury D: Increased tissue oncotic pressure

Q91 : Tumour arising from secetory and glandular epithelium are__________________?

A: Adenomas B: Adenosarcomas C: Angiomas D: Both A and B

Q92 : The hormone dependent shedding of endometrium is an example of_______________?

A: Necrosis B: Autolysis C: Apoptosis D: None of the above

Q93 : Following is used to stain fungi______________?

A: PAS B: Fontania stain C: Ferrous trichrome D: Pearls prussian blue

Q94 : Somatic mutation of PTEN is seen in________________?

A: Retinoblastoma B: Osteosarcoma C: Carcinoma breast D: Endometrial Carcinoma

Q95 : The protein found in the amyloid deposits in senile systemic amyloidosis is_________________?

A: AL protein B: a2 microglobulin C: a-amyloid protein D: Transthyretin

Q96 : In hemephilic patient which of the following should not be given_______________?

A: Factor VIII concentrate B: Cryoprecipitate C: EACA D: Platelet factor

Q97 : VIRCHOW’s cells are seen in___________?

A: Lepromatous leprosy B: Tuberculoid leprosy C: Borderline lepromatous leprosy D: Intermediate leprosy

Q98 : Some micro organisms produce a diffuse spreading inflammatory reaction due to the elaboration of____________?

A: Coagulase B: Peroxidase C: Bradykinin D: Hyaluronidase

Q99 : Which of the following has least capacity for regeneration_________________?

A: Cardiac muscle B: Skeletal muscle C: Neurons D: All of the above

Q100 : Increased levels of haemoglobin A2 is characteristic of________________?

A: Sickle cell trait B: b-thalassaemia crait C: Glucose-6 phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency D: a-Thalassamia

Free Pathology MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

Time to prove what you know!

LAT Test

GAT Test

Contact Info

Free Pathology MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

Subscribe our Newsletter

LAT Test

GAT Test

Contact Info