Free Pharmacology MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

Q1 : An untoward effect of that is common to all phenothiazines is______________?

A: A marked increase in blood pressure B: Rigidity and tremor at rest, particularly with prolonged use C: Suppression of prolacin D: Nausea

Q2 : Following inhibits Cytochrome P450_____________?

A: Cimetidine B: Famotidine C: Ranitidine D: All of the above

Q3 : Which of the following drugs is used in the morning sickness_____________?

A: Hyoscine B: Atropine C: Adrenalin D: Chlorpromazine

Q4 : Nitrous oxide is carried in the blood stream by_____________?

A: Haemoglobin B: White blood cells C: Red Blood cells D: Serum

Q5 : Amitryptyline is a____________?

A: Antibiotic B: Sedative C: Tricyclic antidepressant D: Diuretic

Q6 : About heparin true is_____________?

A: Mixture of sulphated polypeptide B: Known to cause idiopathic thrombocytosis C: Half-life is 90 min D: Decrease action of prothrombin III

Q7 : Progestin compound that does not alter lipid profile is______________?

A: Medroxyprogesterone B: Norethindrone C: Gestodene D: Levonorgestrel

Q8 : Drugs exhibiting first pass metabolism are all EXCEPT one______________?

A: Nitroglycerine B: Morphine C: Propranolol D: Salicylates

Q9 : Thyroid storm can be treated by all the following drugs EXCEPT______________?

A: Propylthiouracil B: Dexamethasone C: Propranolol D: Aspirin

Q10 : All of the following are topically used sulphonamides except____________?

A: Suphacetamide B: Sulphadiazine C: Silversulphadiazine D: Mafenide

Q11 : Tannic acid is used in the following conditions except_____________?

A: Bleeding gums B: Alkaloidal poisoning C: Toothache D: Bleeding piles

Q12 : Clotting time is most like to be prolonged by the administration of____________?

A: Vitamin K B: Barbiturates C: Acetominophen D: Acetyl salicylic acid

Q13 : Cardiac arrhythmias are most commonly seen during administration of____________?

A: Thiopental B: Halothane C: Ethyl Ether D: Nitrous oxide

Q14 : Which of the following statements regarding nitroglycerin is true ?

A: The effect is more pronounced in venous B: High membrane penetrability C: Poorly suited for oral administration D: All of the above

Q15 : All of the following are predominant arteriolar dilators except____________?

A: Sodium Nitro prusside B: Hydrallazine C: Nifedipine D: Nitrates

Q16 : Which of the following drug does not show renal toxicity_____________?

A: Gentamycin B: Streptomycin C: Methoxyprenaline D: Isoflurane

Q17 : Which of the following drugs when used for prolonged period in the maintenance treatment of tonic-clonic seizures can lead to increased metabolism of warfarin like drugs?

A: Phenobarbital. B: Meprobamate C: Chlordiazepoxide D: Triazolam

Q18 : One of the obious consequences of alchol ( ethenol), ingestion in many individual is facial flushing and increased heart rate triggered off by alcohol getting metabolized to______________?

A: Formaldehyde B: Acetaldehyde C: Propanaldehyde D: Butanaldehyde

Q19 : Ibuprofen is contraindicated in_______________?

A: patients having fever B: patients having asthma C: patients having amoebic dysentery D: Patient having bronchitis

Q20 : The administration of penicillin G along with probenicid result in_____________?

A: Increased excretion of probenacid in the feaces and perspiration B: Increased excretion of probenacid in urine C: Increased metabolis of penciling G D: Decreased renal excretion of penciling G

Q21 : NSAID’s have adverse effect on________________?

A: Bone B: Kidney C: Liver D: Stomach

Q22 : Serum sickness is caused by all the following drugs except_____________?

A: Aspirin B: Pencillins C: Sulfonamides D: Chloroquin

Q23 : When allergic manifestations occur pursuant to use of antimicrobial agents, what of the following is seen____________?

A: Skin eruptions B: Angioneurotic edema C: Sialorrhea D: Both A & B

Q24 : Penicillin is effective against_____________?

A: Neisseria meningitis B: Neisseria gonorrhoeae C: Treponema Pallidum D: All of the above

Q25 : The drug which has an antabusive effect when alcohol is ingested is______________?

A: Penicillin G B: Clindamycin C: Metronidazole D: Doxycycline

Q26 : All of the following statements about pain are correct except_____________?

A: Analgesia is associated with μ and k receptors B: Dysphoria is associated with S receptors C: NSAIDS benefit by preventing prostaglandin synthesis D: Naloxane is a non-competitive antagonist and irreversibly opposes the opioids

Q27 : Tetracyclines act by__________________?

A: Inhibiting the binding of aminoacyl tRNA to the ribosomal complex B: Inhibiting peptidyl transferase C: Inactivating elongation factors D: Causing misreading of mRNA

Q28 : Prolonged use of aspirin causes_______________?

A: Hypoprothrombinemia B: Hyperprothrombinemia C: Hyprphosphatasia D: Hypercalcemia

Q29 : Drug which is used to control status epilepticus is______________?

A: Diazepam B: Sodium nitroprusside C: Glyceryl trinitrite D: Pheno barbital

Q30 : After I.V administration of which of the following anesthetic agent, there is rapid recovery and less headedness ?

A: Propofol B: Diazepam C: Droperidol D: Midazolam

Q31 : Which one of the following muscle relaxant has the maximum duration of action ?

A: Atracurium B: Vecuronium C: Rocuronium D: Doxacurium

Q32 : Disseminated candidiasis requires intensive therapy with_____________?

A: Nystatin B: Amphotericin C: Interferons D: Thiobendazole

Q33 : NSAID which undergoes enterohepatic circulation______________?

A: Phenylbutazone B: Piroxicam C: Aspirin D: Ibuprofen

Q34 : Which drugs had high first pass effect_____________?

A: Amiodarone B: Phenytoin C: Verapamil D: Disorpyamide

Q35 : Morphine a powerful opioid analgesic drug should be avoided in all the following conditions except____________?

A: Left ventricular failure B: Bronchial asthma C: Constipation D: A & C

Q36 : Which of the following drug is given for treating hypertensive crisis_______________?

A: NIfedipine B: Isosobide dinitrate C: Verapamil D: Digoxin

Q37 : Which produces dissociative anaesthesia_____________?

A: Propanidid B: Theiopentone sodium C: Theiopentone sodium D: Ketamine

Q38 : The incidence of allergy to penicillin among various population ranges from______________?

A: 1% to 10% B: 10% to 20% C: 20% to 30 D: 30% to 40%

Q39 : Aspirine cause_____________?

A: Increase BT B: Increase CT C: Increase PTT D: Increase APTT

Q40 : A biological experiment in which one compares the effects of two preparations by means of common biological response is known a_____________?

A: Biodegradable B: Bio-experiment C: Bio-assay D: Bio-statement

Q41 : A patient, without prior medication, breathes a gas mixture consisting of 50 percent nitrous oxide and 50 percent oxygen by volume. Which of the following effects would be expected_____________?

A: Analgesia B: Excitation C: Surgical anesthesia D: Respiratory arrest

Q42 : Therapeutic uses of calcium salts include the following except_________________?

A: Osteoporosis B: Disorders of coagulation C: Laryngospasm D: Extreme hyper-Kalemia

Q43 : A child is brought with drowsiness, decreased deep tendon reflexes and seizures. On examination the child has a blue line on gums. There is history of constipation. Which will be most appropriate drug that should be used in this child ?

A: EDTA B: DMSA C: BAL D: Penicillamine

Q44 : Concurrent administration of tetracyclines is most likely to impair the action of_____________?

A: Lincomycin B: Chloramphenicol C: Erythromycin D: Penicillin

Q45 : B-lactam antibiotics are_____________?

A: Penicillin B: Imipenem C: Cephalosporins D: All of the above

Q46 : Sildenafil is inhibitor of_______________?

A: cAMP B: cGMP C: PDE-5 D: PGI2

Q47 : Teratogenicity is_______________?

A: Carcinoma forming tendency B: Fetal malformation C: Intolerance to a drug D: Drug dependence

Q48 : The drug Amifostine is used in subjects undergoing radiotherapy for cancer as it________________?

A: Scavanges free radicals B: Enhances the production of free radicals C: Promotes damage of DNA D: Prevents repair of damaged DNA

Q49 : Which of the following cannot be used as a surface local anaesthetics ?

A: Procaine B: Tetracaine C: Lidocaine D: Benzocaine

Q50 : AIDS is a disease if the immune system primarily affecting_____________?

A: Granulocytes B: Immunoglobulins C: Opsonins D: T lymphocytes

Q51 : Drug efficacy refers to_________________?

A: Range of disease in which the drug beneficial B: Maximal intensity of response that can be produced by the drug C: The therapeutic does range of the drug D: The therapeutic index of the drug

Q52 : The organ most resistant to GA is______________?

A: Spinal Cord B: Medulla oblonagata C: Medullary cortex D: Cerebrum

Q53 : One of the following is not penicillinase susceptible______________?

A: Amoxicillin B: Penicillin G C: Piperacillin D: Cloxacillin

Q54 : Which of the following is a non steroidal anti inflammatory agent with a tendency to produce blood dyscrasias ?

A: Ibuprofen B: Indomethacin C: Aspirin D: B & C

Q55 : The maximum antiseptic action is seen with which of the following concedntrations of ethanol_____________?

A: 50% B: 65% C: 70% D: 95%

Q56 : Which one of the following NSAIDs has adverse effects on liver ?

A: Acetaminophen B: Aspirin C: Ibuprofen D: Diclofenac Sodium

Q57 : What is the advantage of sublingual route of administration of drugs_____________?

A: prevents or bypasses first pass effects B: Easy to administer C: Lipid soluble D: Can be spitted out with signs of toxicity

Q58 : Allergic reactions depends on all except____________?

A: previous exposure to the drug B: Dosage of the drug received C: Pharmacological action of the drug D: Antigen antibody reaction

Q59 : Which of the following is a muscle relaxant_________________?

A: Scoline B: Pentazocine C: Hyoscin D: Phenylephrine

Q60 : Immune mediated qualitative drug intolerance is called______________?

A: Super sensitivity B: Idiosyncrasy C: Hyper sensitivity D: Hyper acidity

Q61 : When given together, the ability of two drugs to produce a response greater than either administered alone is termed as_____________?

A: Cumulation B: Induction C: Synergism D: Antagonism

Q62 : Potassium permanganate is used for_______________?

A: Gargling B: Dinisfect water in wells C: Irrigating cavities D: Cleaning surgical instruments

Q63 : Which of the following is NOT a systemic effect of corticosteroid ?

A: Increase in IL-1 B: Increase in total amount of circulatory neutrophils C: Anti-inflammatory effect is increased D: Inhibit phospholipase A2

Q64 : Cyclosporin is used an______________?

A: Anticancer drug B: Antibiotic C: Antiarrythmic D: Immunosuppresant

Q65 : Respiratory depression is seen with_____________?

A: Tranquilizers B: Non-barbiturates C: Synthetic narcotics D: Antidepressants

Q66 : Tick the drug type for which microsomal oxidation is the most prominent:

A: Lipid soluble B: Water soluble C: Low molecular weight D: High molecular weight

Q67 : Aspirin acts on which part of brain ?

A: Substantia gelatinosa B: Limbic system C: Medulla D: Cortex

Q68 : When a drug creates an effect that is unpredictable and unique it is termed as____________?

A: Side effect B: Toxicity effect C: Idiosyncratic effect D: Drug on Drug effect

Q69 : One of the following is not an antiemetic_____________?

A: Chlorpromazine B: Digitoxin C: Metaclopromide D: Scopolamine

Q70 : Intramuscular route is precluded during the medication of________________?

A: Anti-hypertensives B: Anti-diabetics C: Anticoagulants D: Anti-fibrinolytics

Q71 : Allergic reactions depends on all except____________?

A: previous exposure to the drug B: Dosage of the drug received C: Pharmacological action of the drug D: Antigen antibody reaction

Q72 : Lidocaine produces its antiarrhythmic effects by_____________?

A: Increasing A-V conduction B: Decreasing cardiac excitability C: Increasing cardiac conduction velocity D: Increasing spontaneous pacemaker activity

Q73 : Topical Antifungal agent in candidiasis is______________?

A: Clotrimazole B: Clotrimoxazole C: Ornidazole D: Propronolol

Q74 : Which of the following drug induces parkinsonism ?

A: Chlorpheniramine B: Chlorpromazine C: Chloroquine D: Chlorhexidine

Q75 : Which of the following can be given safely to a patient of congestive heart failure________________?

A: Aspirin B: . Paracetamol C: Diclofenac sodium D: Ibuprofen

Q76 : While performing a procedure, a resident doctor injures herself with a suture needle that has been used to stitch a patient with HIV infection for 11 years. He has been complaint with therapy for several years and has recently changed tablets because of alteration in his appearance. His last CD4 count was 360 cells/mm. The doctor is offered post exposure prophylaxis. Which regimen should she take ?

A: Ziduvidine and Lamivudine B: Ziduvidine and Lamivudine and Indivair C: Ziduvidine and Lamivudine and Stavudine D: Ziduvidine and Lamivudine and Abacavir

Q77 : Which is a prodrug ?

A: Enalapril B: clonidine C: Salmeterol D: Acetazolamide

Q78 : Omeprazol is used in the treatment of____________?

A: Peptic Ulcer B: Amoebiasis C: Malaria D:

Q79 : Which of the following is not uridopenicillin ?

A: Piperacillin B: Mezlocillin C: Azlocillin D: Flucloxacillin

Q80 : Blood spills in hospitals are cleaned by_______________?

A: Absolute alchohol B: Quaternary ammonium compound C: Sodium hypochlorite D: Iodine compound

Q81 : Which of the following statements concerning potassium channel openers is true?

A: These agents decrease transmembrane calcium current associated in a smooth muscle with long-lasting relaxation B: These agents has a moderate reflex and vascular dilative action caused by the stimulation of sensitive nerve endings C: Beneficial effects of these agents are related primarily to their hemodynamic effects – decreased heart rate, blood pressure, and contractility – which decrease myocardial oxygen requirements at rest and during exercise D: These agents increase the permeability of K channels, probably ATP-dependent K channels, that results in stabilizing the membrane potential of excitable cells near the resting potential

Q82 : Which of the following anti-epileptic agents causes the reversible side-effect of gingival hyperplasia ?

A: Ethosuximide B: Phenobarbitone C: Sodium valporate D: None of the above

Q83 : Xerostomia is treated with_____________?

A: Neostigmine B: Ephedrine C: Scopalamine D: Atropine

Q84 : Cephalosporin active against pseudomonas aeruginosa______________?

A: Cefoperazone B: Cefaclor C: Ceftriaxone D: Cefotaxime

Q85 : Metronidazole______________?

A: Has no side-effects B: Is used in management of ANUG C: Is mainly concentrated in saliva D: Is active against gram-positive aerobes

Q86 : Centrineuraxial (spinaland epidural) anaesthesia is not contraindicated in____________?

A: Platalets <80,000 B: Patient on aspirin C: Patient on oral anticoagulants D: Raised intracranial pressure

Q87 : IV ultrashort acting barbiturate_____________?

A: Meprobamate B: Pentobarbitone C: Thiopentone D: Phenobarbitone

Q88 : ovidone iodine is the choice of mouthrinse in cases associated AIDS because______________?

A: It is a topical antimicrobial B: It is a topical anesthestic C: Its ability to aid in blood coagulation D: . All of the above

Q89 : Quinine is obtained from CINCHONA________________?

A: Root B: Bark C: Leaves D: Seed capsule

Q90 : Nitrous oxide is______________?

A: A good analgesic but a poor anesthetic B: A good anesthetic but a poor analgesic C: A good analgesic and a good anesthetic D: A poor analgesic and a poor anesthetic

Q91 : Following analgesic combination should be avoided ?

A: Codeine B: Paracetamol and Dextropropoxyphene C: Ibuprofen and Paracetamol D: Ibuprofen and DIclofenac

Q92 : All of the given drugs may be useful in acute exacerbation of bronchial asthma EXCEPT_____________?

A: Cromolyn sodium B: Hydrocortisone C: Salbutamol D: Ipratropium

Q93 : Which drug may be administered even when the patient is on alcoholic beverages ?

A: . Animal charcoal B: Glibenclamide C: Chloral hydrate D: Cefixime

Q94 : Isosorbide 5 – mononitrate is preferred because____________?

A: Less tolerance develops B: Sublingual absorption is better C: Longer duration of action D:

Q95 : All of the following drugs are components of the MOPP cancer Chemotherapy regimen EXCEPT______________?

A: Procarbazine B: Vincristine C: Mechlorethamine D: Methotrexate

Q96 : Therapetic index indicates____________?

A: Drug toxicty B: Drug potency C: Drug safety D: Drug’s Lethal effect

Q97 : Narcotic overdose can be antagonized by______________?

A: Diphenhydramine B: Atropine C: Naloxane D: Nalorphine

Q98 : All of the following are tocolytic except_______________?

A: Isoxsuprine B: Natrexam C: Atosiban D: Ritodrine

Q99 : The intramuscular administration of 0.6 mg of atropine sulphate to a 50 kg adult may produce all of the following effects except________________?

A: Bradycardia B: Decreased salivation C: Decreased sweating D: Mydriasis

Q100 : Acute hemorrhage cystitis is a common toxic effect seen with: _________?

A: Vincristine. B: Tamoxifen. C: Doxorubicin. D: Cyclophosphamide

Free Pharmacology MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

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