Free Pharmacology MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

Q1 : All the following drugs reduced the gastric acid secretion EXCEPT____________?

A: Ranitidine B: Sucralfate C: Misoprostal D: Pantoprazole

Q2 : Cyclosporin is used an______________?

A: Anticancer drug B: Antibiotic C: Antiarrythmic D: Immunosuppresant

Q3 : For Arsenic poisoning Antidote is_____________?

A: Penicillamine B: E.D.T.A C: Desferrixamine D: B.A.L

Q4 : A paralyzing dose of succinylcholine initially elicits______________?

A: CNS stimulation B: Muscle fasciculation C: CNS depression D: Decreased salivation

Q5 : Which of the following anti-epileptic agents causes the reversible side-effect of gingival hyperplasia ?

A: Ethosuximide B: Phenobarbitone C: Sodium valporate D: None of the above

Q6 : Which drug causes photosensitivity______________?

A: Tetracycline B: Aminoglycoside C: Penicillin D: Cephalosporin

Q7 : When given together, the ability of two drugs to produce a response greater than either administered alone is termed as_____________?

A: Cumulation B: Induction C: Synergism D: Antagonism

Q8 : Which antibiotic is effective against pseudomonas and indole +ve proteus ?

A: Methicillin B: Carbenicillin C: Lincomycin D: Oxacillin

Q9 : Which of the following is NOT a systemic effect of corticosteroid ?

A: Increase in IL-1 B: Increase in total amount of circulatory neutrophils C: Anti-inflammatory effect is increased D: Inhibit phospholipase A2

Q10 : All of the following causes increase in heart rate except________________?

A: Halothane B: Isoflurane C: Sevoflurane D: Desflurane

Q11 : Which of the following is a non steroidal anti inflammatory agent with a tendency to produce blood dyscrasias ?

A: Ibuprofen B: Indomethacin C: Aspirin D: B & C

Q12 : Nitrous oxide is______________?

A: A good analgesic but a poor anesthetic B: A good anesthetic but a poor analgesic C: A good analgesic and a good anesthetic D: A poor analgesic and a poor anesthetic

Q13 : Secretory immunoglobulin is_____________?

A: IgG B: IgA C: IgM D: IgE

Q14 : Which of the following opioids is not given intrathecally ?

A: Remifentanil B: Morphine C: Sufentanil D: Fentanyl

Q15 : In the second stage of anesthesia the pupil is_______________?

A: Constricted B: Partially dilated C: Normal in size D: Totally dilated

Q16 : Which of the following is a nonsteroldad anti inflammatory agent with a tendency to produce blood dyscriasis

A: Indomathecin (indocin) B: Ibuprofen (Motrin) C: Ketoroloc D: Aceteminophen

Q17 : Teratogenicity is_______________?

A: Carcinoma forming tendency B: Fetal malformation C: Intolerance to a drug D: Drug dependence

Q18 : An aminoglycoside that is often combined with polymyxin and bacitracin for the treatment of topical infection is____________?

A: Gentamycin B: Tetracycline C: Aztreonam D: Neomycin

Q19 : Which of the following drugs is currently widely used in treating opioid dependent individuals?

A: codeine B: Methadone C: Alphaprodine D: Pentazocine

Q20 : Drug efficacy refers to_________________?

A: Range of disease in which the drug beneficial B: Maximal intensity of response that can be produced by the drug C: The therapeutic does range of the drug D: The therapeutic index of the drug

Q21 : Not true about penicillin G is______________?

A: Destroyed by gastric acid B: Very active against sensitive gram positive cocci C: Used for treatment of meningococcal meningitis D: More concentrated in prostatic secretions and intraocular fluids

Q22 : H antagonists are effective in the therapy of all the following except______________?

A: Common cold B: Systemic anaphylaxis C: Motion sickness D: Parkinsonism

Q23 : Respiratory depression is seen with_____________?

A: Tranquilizers B: Non-barbiturates C: Synthetic narcotics D: Antidepressants

Q24 : Which of the following drug does not show renal toxicity_____________?

A: Gentamycin B: Streptomycin C: Methoxyprenaline D: Isoflurane

Q25 : Which of the following is not caused by Frusemide____________?

A: Hypokalemia B: Hyperuricemia C: Hypercalcemia D: Hyponatremia

Q26 : Thiopentone action is terminated by______________?

A: Excretion B: Metabolism C: Redistribution D: Recycling

Q27 : In which of the following stage general anesthesia surgery is done_______________?

A: Stage I B: Stage II C: Stage III plane 2 D: Stage III plane 3

Q28 : B- blocker with additional a-blocking property is____________?

A: Propranolol B: Timolol C: Metoprolol D: Labetalol

Q29 : Zero order kinetics is seen with_______________?

A: Phenytoin B: Phenabarbtion C: Erythromycin D: Digoxin

Q30 : Majority of drugs are transported across the membrane by____________?

A: Passive diffusion B: Active transport C: Facilitated trasnsport D: Filtration

Q31 : Which of the following drugs in likely to damage the eighth cranial nerve when administered for a long period of time ?

A: Ethambutol B: Isoniazid C: Rifampicin D: Streptomycin

Q32 : Beta blockers are contraindicated in___________?

A: Angina pectoris B: Cardiac arrhythmia C: Cardiac failure D: Myocardial infarction

Q33 : Naturally occurring local anaesthetic________________?

A: Cocaine B: Procaine C: Lignocaine D: None of the above

Q34 : All of the following are inhalational anesthetic agents except_____________?

A: Halothane B: Ketamine C: Enflurane D: Isoflurane

Q35 : Best treatment of candidiasis of_____________?

A: Mycostatin B: Amphoterin C: Antibiotics D: None of the above

Q36 : Toxic optic neuropathy can be caused by all of the following EXCEPT_______________?

A: Ethambutol B: Ethylene glycol C: Ciprofloxacin D: Tetracycline

Q37 : A patient is talking terfenadine for cold and comes for tooth extraction. What tablet you have given which makes him suffer from cardiac arrhythmia______________?

A: Erythromycin B: Doxycycline C: Penicillin D: Streptomycin

Q38 : Elimination after 4 half lives in first order kinetics is____________?

A: 84% B: 93% C: 80.5% D: 4.75%

Q39 : The statement Not true of Selective Cox – 2 inhibitor is________________?

A: The analgesic and anti-inflammatory effects identical to that of Non-selective NSAID B: They do not offer the cardio protective effect C: Safe in patients with renal insufficiency D: Fewer incidence of gastrointestinal side effect

Q40 : Drug that does not cause sedation________________?

A: Buspirone B: Nitrazepam C: Zopiclone D: Diazepam

Q41 : Magnesium and Aluminium are added in Antacid because_____________?

A: Mg Causes constipation, Al causes diarrhoea B: Mg Causes Diarrhoea, Al Causes Constipation C: Mg act as buffering agent and Al antagonize its action D: Both increase gastric motility

Q42 : Which of the following cardiac depressants is contraindicated in a patient with cardiac arrhythmia____________?

A: Lidocaine B: Quinidine C: Phenytoin D: Propranolol

Q43 : Which factor of the following contributes to short duration of anesthetic action of single dose thiopental_____________?

A: Rapid biotransformation B: Rapid accumulation in body fat C: High lipid solubility D: Ability to enter and leave brain tissue every rapidly

Q44 : Problems associated with nitrous oxide anaesthesia is_____________?

A: Behavioral problem B: Sensitizes the heart to adrenaline C: Prolonged difficult induction D: Tachycardia and or arrhythmias

Q45 : Which of the following is a mismatch ?

A: Naloxone-Tricyclic antidepressant B: Warfarin- Oral anticoagulant C: Herbicide and earth materials – allergies D: Acetaminophen – anti inflammatory

Q46 : Mention the drug causing gynecomastia hirsuitism, menstrual disturbance on long-term use______________?

A: Hydrochlorthiazide B: Amiloride C: Spironolactone D: Acetazolamide

Q47 : The most preferred acute emetic for emesis induced by anticancer drugs is______________?

A: Ondensetron B: Metaclopromide C: Chlorpromazine D: Dicyclomine

Q48 : Quinine is obtained from CINCHONA________________?

A: Root B: Bark C: Leaves D: Seed capsule

Q49 : Bronchospasm can be precipitated by______________?

A: Adrenaline B: propranolol C: Atropine D: Salbutamol

Q50 : Thyroid storm can be treated by all the following drugs EXCEPT______________?

A: Propylthiouracil B: Dexamethasone C: Propranolol D: Aspirin

Q51 : A patient suffering from syphilis is given pencillin He may develop_____________?

A: Cholestatic Jaundice B: Grey Syndrome C: Fanconi Syndrome D: Jarish – Herxheimer reaction

Q52 : Clotting time is most like to be prolonged by the administration of____________?

A: Vitamin K B: Barbiturates C: Acetominophen D: Acetyl salicylic acid

Q53 : Tick the drug type for which microsomal oxidation is the most prominent:

A: Lipid soluble B: Water soluble C: Low molecular weight D: High molecular weight

Q54 : Which of the following is not a potassium sparing diuretic______________?

A: Spironolactone B: Bumetainde C: Triamtrence D: Amelioride

Q55 : All the following increases drug metabolism by activating cytochrome enzyme, EXCEPT___________?

A: Tetracycline B: Cimetidine C: Rifampicin D: Phenobarbitone

Q56 : The oral microblal fiora of a patient on prolonged broad spectrume antibiotic therapy is predominantly____________?

A: Anaerobic B: Gram positive organism C: Gram negative organisms D: Yeast and fungi

Q57 : Aspirine cause_____________?

A: Increase BT B: Increase CT C: Increase PTT D: Increase APTT

Q58 : About articaine, all are true except_____________?

A: Plasma half-life is 90 min B: Is amide which is metabolized in liver C: Mandibular infiltration is more effective than nerve block in mandibular molar teeth D: More breaks down causes more toxicity

Q59 : Antagonist of morphine is_______________?

A: Naloxone B: Nalosphine C: Nalpuphine D: Methadine

Q60 : Which is a prodrug ?

A: Enalapril B: clonidine C: Salmeterol D: Acetazolamide

Q61 : The maximum antiseptic action is seen with which of the following concedntrations of ethanol_____________?

A: 50% B: 65% C: 70% D: 95%

Q62 : Drug which is used to control status epilepticus is______________?

A: Diazepam B: Sodium nitroprusside C: Glyceryl trinitrite D: Pheno barbital

Q63 : The incidence of allergy to penicillin among various population ranges from______________?

A: 1% to 10% B: 10% to 20% C: 20% to 30 D: 30% to 40%

Q64 : With prolonged use in seizure states, which of the following drugs can cause coarsening of facial features, hirsutism, gingival hyperplasia and osteomalacia?

A: Valproic acid. B: Carbamazepine. C: Ethosuximide. D: Phenytoin

Q65 : Centrineuraxial (spinaland epidural) anaesthesia is not contraindicated in____________?

A: Platalets <80,000 B: Patient on aspirin C: Patient on oral anticoagulants D: Raised intracranial pressure

Q66 : Aspirine is useful in all the following conditions EXCEPT_____________?

A: Fever B: Post myocardial infarction C: Venous thrombosis D: Gout

Q67 : Less gastrointestinal bleed is seen in the following NSAID_______________?

A: Meloxicam B: Naproxen C: C0X2 specific inhibitors D: Ibuprofen

Q68 : Hypokalemia is seen in therapy with____________?

A: Digitalis B: Ibuprufen C: Corticosteroids D: Diazepam

Q69 : BEnzodiazepines are true in___________________?

A: Produce distortion in sleep more than other sedatives B: More safe than other sedatives when take in larger amounts C: After metabolism of other drugs in liver D: All have metabolically active substrates

Q70 : Which among the following may be used as a sedatives hypnotic ?

A: Zolmitriptan B: Zileuton C: Zolpiden D: Zalcitabine

Q71 : All NSAIDs block cycloxygenase and____________?

A: Prostaglandin synthesis B: Ectoglandin synthesis C: Preglandin synthesis D: Costaglandin synthesis

Q72 : Morphine is a_____________?

A: Sedative B: Alkaloid C: Diuretic D: Both A & B

Q73 : Drug chemically related to penicillins is_____________?

A: Tetracycline B: Sulphonamide C: Cephalosporin D: Lincemycin

Q74 : AIDS is a disease if the immune system primarily affecting_____________?

A: Granulocytes B: Immunoglobulins C: Opsonins D: T lymphocytes

Q75 : Dermatologic manifestation of drug allergy are managed by_____________?

A: Lorazepam B: Pirenzepine C: Ranitidine D: Chlorpheniramine

Q76 : Gastric irritation is minimum with one of the following non-steroidal anti inflammatory drugs_____________?

A: Piroxicam B: Tenoxicam C: Meloxicam D: Indomethacin

Q77 : DOPA and 5-Hydroxytryptophan are clinically important because_____________?

A: They cross blood Brain Barriers B: They are acidic precursors of Brain amines C: They act as neuromodulators D: They are metabolites of various neurogenic amines

Q78 : A young man of 24 years is suffering from Generalized Anxiety Disorder; which drug may be preferred for his problem?

A: Zolpidem B: Buspiron. C: Midazolam D: Phenobarbital

Q79 : Allergic reactions depends on all except____________?

A: previous exposure to the drug B: Dosage of the drug received C: Pharmacological action of the drug D: Antigen antibody reaction

Q80 : Heroin, an addict drug contains______________?

A: ASA B: Acetyl morphine C: Pentazocine D: Propoxyphene

Q81 : Prolonged use of aspirin causes_______________?

A: Hypoprothrombinemia B: Hyperprothrombinemia C: Hyprphosphatasia D: Hypercalcemia

Q82 : Isosorbide 5 – mononitrate is preferred because____________?

A: Less tolerance develops B: Sublingual absorption is better C: Longer duration of action D:

Q83 : An attack of migraine can be easily terminated by___________?

A: Acetylcholine B: Ergotamine C: Morphine D: Ibuprofen

Q84 : The dentist who first used Nitrous oxide for the abolition of pain due to dental extraction was_____________?

A: Harpes David B: Harvey william C: Horace wells D: Hunter John

Q85 : Imatinib acts on______________?

A: Alpha TNF receptors B: IL-2 receptors C: Tyrosin Kinase receptors D: Inhibits Phosphodiesterase

Q86 : Tannic acid is used in the following conditions except_____________?

A: Bleeding gums B: Alkaloidal poisoning C: Toothache D: Bleeding piles

Q87 : The drug combination which produces Neuroleptanalgesia is______________?

A: Daroperidol + Fentanyl B: Deroperidol + Ketamine C: Droperiodl + Ether D: Droperiodl + Thiopental sodium + Nitrous oxide

Q88 : Drug injury may be caused by therapeutic drugs or______________?

A: Carcinogens B: Allergens C: Nontherapeutic agents D: All of the above

Q89 : Which is not antiemetic ?

A: Domperidone B: Phenazocine C: Cyclizine D: Ondanestron

Q90 : A 50 year old female with end stage renal disease (ESRD) develops pulmonary tuberculosis. Which one of the following drugs should be used in a reduced dose ?

A: Rifampicin B: Isoniazide C: Pyrazamide D: Ethambutol

Q91 : Which of the following is beta-lactam antibiotic ?

A: Sulphonamide B: Carbamide C: Cephalosporins D: Ofloxacin

Q92 : Which among the following Not a pharmacological action of opioids______________?

A: Cough suppression B: Anti-emesis C: Miosis D: Truncal rigidity

Q93 : ovidone iodine is the choice of mouthrinse in cases associated AIDS because______________?

A: It is a topical antimicrobial B: It is a topical anesthestic C: Its ability to aid in blood coagulation D: . All of the above

Q94 : Concurrent administration of tetracyclines is most likely to impair the action of_____________?

A: Lincomycin B: Chloramphenicol C: Erythromycin D: Penicillin

Q95 : Digitalis induced automaticity is enhanced by______________?

A: High K+ levels B: High Ca2+ levels C: High Na+ levels D: Low K+ levels

Q96 : Agents used by local application to control bleeding include all of the following except____________?

A: Trannic acid B: Gelatin foam C: Adrenaline D: Vitamin-K

Q97 : Which of the following inhalational agents is the induction agent of choice in children______________?

A: Methoxyflurane B: Sevoflurane C: Desflurane D: Isoflurane

Q98 : Only Aspirin can:

A: Reduce fever. B: Irreversible inhibit its target enzyme. C: Prevent episodes of gouty arthritis with long term use. D: Reduce the risk of colon cancer.

Q99 : Drugs showing zero order kinetics of elimination_____________?

A: Are more common than first order kinetics B: Decrease in concentration exponentially with time C: Have a half – life independent of dose D: Show a plot of drug concentration versus time that is linear

Q100 : Which of the following is true for carbonic anhydrase inhibitor ?

A: It causes excertion of Na & Cl B: It is used as an adjunct in epilepsy C: It is very potent D: It causes metabolic alkalosis

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