Free Pharmacology MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

Q1 : Which of the following is true for carbonic anhydrase inhibitor ?

A: It causes excertion of Na & Cl B: It is used as an adjunct in epilepsy C: It is very potent D: It causes metabolic alkalosis

Q2 : All of the following antibacterial agents acts by inhibiting cell wall systhesis except________________?

A: Carbapenems B: Monobactams C: Cephamycins D: Nitrofurantoins

Q3 : Best and most effective drug to control convulsions in toxicity cases is______________?

A: Phenobarbitone B: Phenytoin C: Diazepam D: Carbemezipine

Q4 : All of the following are inhalational anesthetic agents except_____________?

A: Halothane B: Ketamine C: Enflurane D: Isoflurane

Q5 : Toxic optic neuropathy can be caused by all of the following EXCEPT_______________?

A: Ethambutol B: Ethylene glycol C: Ciprofloxacin D: Tetracycline

Q6 : While performing a procedure, a resident doctor injures herself with a suture needle that has been used to stitch a patient with HIV infection for 11 years. He has been complaint with therapy for several years and has recently changed tablets because of alteration in his appearance. His last CD4 count was 360 cells/mm. The doctor is offered post exposure prophylaxis. Which regimen should she take ?

A: Ziduvidine and Lamivudine B: Ziduvidine and Lamivudine and Indivair C: Ziduvidine and Lamivudine and Stavudine D: Ziduvidine and Lamivudine and Abacavir

Q7 : Nitrous oxide is______________?

A: A good analgesic but a poor anesthetic B: A good anesthetic but a poor analgesic C: A good analgesic and a good anesthetic D: A poor analgesic and a poor anesthetic

Q8 : Diuretics cause loss of_______________?

A: Sodium B: Calcium C: Potassium D: Iron

Q9 : Bradycardia is most commonly treated with which of the following drugs_____________?

A: Epinephrine B: Atropine C: A diuretic D: A potent vasadilatior

Q10 : Neusea and vomiting that are associated with administration of opioid analgesic is the result of stimulation of the_____________?

A: Limbic system B: Emetic system C: Chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) D: Opioid receptors in G.I.T

Q11 : The most preferred acute emetic for emesis induced by anticancer drugs is______________?

A: Ondensetron B: Metaclopromide C: Chlorpromazine D: Dicyclomine

Q12 : Which of the following statements about Azoles is false ?

A: They are fungistatic B: They are hepatotoxic C: Resistance to the drug is common D: They affect the metabolism of drugs such as cyclosporine necessitating an increasing in dosage

Q13 : Zero order kinetics is seen with_______________?

A: Phenytoin B: Phenabarbtion C: Erythromycin D: Digoxin

Q14 : When allergic manifestations occur pursuant to use of antimicrobial agents, what of the following is seen____________?

A: Skin eruptions B: Angioneurotic edema C: Sialorrhea D: Both A & B

Q15 : Aspirine cause_____________?

A: Increase BT B: Increase CT C: Increase PTT D: Increase APTT

Q16 : Agents used by local application to control bleeding include all of the following except____________?

A: Trannic acid B: Gelatin foam C: Adrenaline D: Vitamin-K

Q17 : Birbiturates in pediatrics is_____________?

A: Contraindicated B: Low safety C: Can be used safely D: Not much use

Q18 : About heparin true is_____________?

A: Mixture of sulphated polypeptide B: Known to cause idiopathic thrombocytosis C: Half-life is 90 min D: Decrease action of prothrombin III

Q19 : Drugs used in cysticercosis_______________?

A: Prazequantal B: Metronidazole C: Niclosamide D: Pyrantel

Q20 : Which of the following is NOT a systemic effect of corticosteroid ?

A: Increase in IL-1 B: Increase in total amount of circulatory neutrophils C: Anti-inflammatory effect is increased D: Inhibit phospholipase A2

Q21 : Which of the following antibiotics is most frequently associated with pseudomembranous colitis ?

A: Ampicillin B: Penicillin C: Clindamycin D: Cephalosporin

Q22 : A patient is talking terfenadine for cold and comes for tooth extraction. What tablet you have given which makes him suffer from cardiac arrhythmia______________?

A: Erythromycin B: Doxycycline C: Penicillin D: Streptomycin

Q23 : The mechanism of action of chloramphenicol is inhibition of synthesis of_____________?

A: Cell wall B: Cell membrane C: Protein D: DNA

Q24 : Which among the following anti-histamines, is Least likely to cause sedation_____________?

A: Promethazine B: Diphenhydramine C: Hydroxyzine D: Loratidine

Q25 : An aminoglycoside that is often combined with polymyxin and bacitracin for the treatment of topical infection is____________?

A: Gentamycin B: Tetracycline C: Aztreonam D: Neomycin

Q26 : The drug combination which produces Neuroleptanalgesia is______________?

A: Daroperidol + Fentanyl B: Deroperidol + Ketamine C: Droperiodl + Ether D: Droperiodl + Thiopental sodium + Nitrous oxide

Q27 : Verril’s sign is seen in_________________?

A: Diazepam administration B: Digitalis toxicity C: Paget’s disease D: Unconscious states

Q28 : Shortest acting opioid analgesic is______________?

A: Morphine B: Fentanyl C: Remifentanil D: Sufentanil

Q29 : All of the following drugs cause dryness of mouth except_______________?

A: Atropine B: Chlorpheniramine C: Imipramine D: Neostigmine

Q30 : Which of the following is not uridopenicillin ?

A: Piperacillin B: Mezlocillin C: Azlocillin D: Flucloxacillin

Q31 : Disseminated candidiasis requires intensive therapy with_____________?

A: Nystatin B: Amphotericin C: Interferons D: Thiobendazole

Q32 : All of the following statements about opioids is correct except_____________?

A: Pentazocine and buprinorphine B: Pentazocine shows withdrawal symptoms in opioid dependent patients C: Partial agonists are free from classic opioid adverse effects D: Ethomorphine is similar to pethidine chemically

Q33 : Hypokalemia is seen in therapy with____________?

A: Digitalis B: Ibuprufen C: Corticosteroids D: Diazepam

Q34 : Omeprazol is used in the treatment of____________?

A: Peptic Ulcer B: Amoebiasis C: Malaria D:

Q35 : Naturally occurring local anaesthetic________________?

A: Cocaine B: Procaine C: Lignocaine D: None of the above

Q36 : Which of the following drugs in likely to damage the eighth cranial nerve when administered for a long period of time ?

A: Ethambutol B: Isoniazid C: Rifampicin D: Streptomycin

Q37 : Phenytoin is associated with_____________?

A: Folic acid deficiency B: Alzhiemer’s disease C: Cushing’s syndrome D: Vitamin C deficiency

Q38 : Beta blockers are contraindicated in___________?

A: Angina pectoris B: Cardiac arrhythmia C: Cardiac failure D: Myocardial infarction

Q39 : The muscle relaxant effect of succinylcholine lasts for______________?

A: 1 min B: 2 min C: 3-5 min D: 10 min

Q40 : Which of the following cannot be used as a surface local anaesthetics ?

A: Procaine B: Tetracaine C: Lidocaine D: Benzocaine

Q41 : BEnzodiazepines are true in___________________?

A: Produce distortion in sleep more than other sedatives B: More safe than other sedatives when take in larger amounts C: After metabolism of other drugs in liver D: All have metabolically active substrates

Q42 : Allergic reactions depends on all except____________?

A: previous exposure to the drug B: Dosage of the drug received C: Pharmacological action of the drug D: Antigen antibody reaction

Q43 : For Arsenic poisoning Antidote is_____________?

A: Penicillamine B: E.D.T.A C: Desferrixamine D: B.A.L

Q44 : : A patient on digoxin should not be given quindine because______________?

A: Displaces digoxine from its tissue binding sites B: Displaces digoxin from its protein binding sites C: Decrease the renal clearance of digoxin D: Decreases the plasma potassium level

Q45 : Which of the following drug is given for treating hypertensive crisis_______________?

A: NIfedipine B: Isosobide dinitrate C: Verapamil D: Digoxin

Q46 : A side effect of an antithyroid drug is______________?

A: Hypothyroidism B: Obesity C: Hypotension D: Tremors

Q47 : All of the following drugs are useful in treatment of hypertension except______________?

A: Ephedrine B: Reserpine C: Methyldopa D: Thiazole diuretics

Q48 : H antagonists are effective in the therapy of all the following except______________?

A: Common cold B: Systemic anaphylaxis C: Motion sickness D: Parkinsonism

Q49 : Dermatologic manifestation of drug allergy are managed by_____________?

A: Lorazepam B: Pirenzepine C: Ranitidine D: Chlorpheniramine

Q50 : All the following about antiemetic drugs are correct except_______________?

A: Domperidone blocks the D2 receptors in CTZ and upper gut B: Domperidone causes Dystonia C: Ondastran acts on selective 5 -HT3 receptors D: Ondastran may cause vomiting by effecting the cytotoxic antige receptors

Q51 : Amyl nitrate is most commonly administered _________________?

A: Intravenously B: By inhatation C: Sub lingually D: Orally

Q52 : A 50 year old female with end stage renal disease (ESRD) develops pulmonary tuberculosis. Which one of the following drugs should be used in a reduced dose ?

A: Rifampicin B: Isoniazide C: Pyrazamide D: Ethambutol

Q53 : When a drug creates an effect that is unpredictable and unique it is termed as____________?

A: Side effect B: Toxicity effect C: Idiosyncratic effect D: Drug on Drug effect

Q54 : Which one of the following NSAIDs has adverse effects on liver ?

A: Acetaminophen B: Aspirin C: Ibuprofen D: Diclofenac Sodium

Q55 : Mention the drug causing gynecomastia hirsuitism, menstrual disturbance on long-term use______________?

A: Hydrochlorthiazide B: Amiloride C: Spironolactone D: Acetazolamide

Q56 : IV ultrashort acting barbiturate_____________?

A: Meprobamate B: Pentobarbitone C: Thiopentone D: Phenobarbitone

Q57 : American society of anesthesiologists physical status classification system, P2 is a is a patient who______________?

A: Is healthy B: With mild systemic disease C: With severe systemic disease D: None of the above

Q58 : Which of the following is beta-lactam antibiotic ?

A: Sulphonamide B: Carbamide C: Cephalosporins D: Ofloxacin

Q59 : Digitalis induced automaticity is enhanced by______________?

A: High K+ levels B: High Ca2+ levels C: High Na+ levels D: Low K+ levels

Q60 : Which is not antiemetic ?

A: Domperidone B: Phenazocine C: Cyclizine D: Ondanestron

Q61 : Salicylate overdose in children causes_______________?

A: Crystalluria B: Rye’s syndrome C: Kernicterus D: None of the above

Q62 : The vulnerable period of pregnancy for the causation of foetal malformation is_____________?

A: 1 – 18 days B: 19 – 55 days C: 56 – 85 days D: II trimester

Q63 : Alpha blocker used as anti hypertensive agent_____________?

A: Alpha blocker used as anti hypertensive agent_____________? B: Prazosin C: Clonidine D: Propranolol

Q64 : All of the following drugs are components of the MOPP cancer Chemotherapy regimen EXCEPT______________?

A: Procarbazine B: Vincristine C: Mechlorethamine D: Methotrexate

Q65 : One of the following is not penicillinase susceptible______________?

A: Amoxicillin B: Penicillin G C: Piperacillin D: Cloxacillin

Q66 : All of the following causes increase in heart rate except________________?

A: Halothane B: Isoflurane C: Sevoflurane D: Desflurane

Q67 : Which one is not converted to an active metabolite ?

A: Quinapril B: Fosinopril C: Benzopril D: Lisinopril

Q68 : A prodrug is____________?

A: The proto type member of a class of drugs B: The oldest member of a class of drugs C: An inactive drug that is transformed in the body to an active metabolite D: A drug that is stored in body tissues and is then gradually released in the direction

Q69 : Combination of ampicillin and gentamicin is an example of_____________?

A: Indifference B: Synergy C: Antagonism D: Bacterial symbiosis

Q70 : Which of the following is an ACE inhibitor ?

A: Saralosin B: Diltiazem C: Coptopril D: Spirino lactone

Q71 : Plasma concentration of drug at time 0 is 96g/mL. if t1/2 is 2 hours concentration is plasma at 10 hours will be___________?

A: 48 B: 24 C: 12 D: 3

Q72 : 1st past metabolism effect can be observed with which route______________?

A: Oral B: Inhalation C: Rectal D: Parental

Q73 : Rapid onset of inhalational GA depends on____________?

A: Blood solubility B: Cerebral blood flow C: Partial pressure of GA D: All of the above

Q74 : I.V anesthesia is_________________?

A: Propofol B: Sevoflurane C: Flumazanil D: . Naloxane

Q75 : The drug which has an antabusive effect when alcohol is ingested is______________?

A: Penicillin G B: Clindamycin C: Metronidazole D: Doxycycline

Q76 : A patient with grand mal epilepsy would likely be under treatment with_____________?

A: Meprobamate B: Pentobarbital C: Trimethadione D: Phenytoin

Q77 : Which drug causes photosensitivity______________?

A: Tetracycline B: Aminoglycoside C: Penicillin D: Cephalosporin

Q78 : Which of the following is a protective drug in the management of gastric and duodenal ulcers ?

A: H2 antihistamines B: NaHCO3 C: Famotidine D: Carbenoxolone

Q79 : Which among the following is Not used for surface anesthesia ?

A: Lignocaine B: Procaine C: Tetracaine D: Procaine

Q80 : The rate of injection of intravenous Valium is_______________?

A: 1 ml / min B: 2.5 ml / min C: 1 mg / min D: 2.5 mg / min

Q81 : After I.V administration of which of the following anesthetic agent, there is rapid recovery and less headedness ?

A: Propofol B: Diazepam C: Droperidol D: Midazolam

Q82 : Aspirin is avoided in children with influenza infection because of association______________?

A: Reye’s syndrome B: Nausea C: Diarrhoea D: Acid-base imbalance

Q83 : The drug for choice for treatment of infection involving non-penicillinase producing staphylococcus is___________?

A: Ampicillin B: Erythromycin C: Penicilling G D: Methicillin sodium

Q84 : Tick the drug type for which microsomal oxidation is the most prominent:

A: Lipid soluble B: Water soluble C: Low molecular weight D: High molecular weight

Q85 : Which of the following can cause seizure ?

A: Tramadol B: Isoniazid C: Levocetrizine D: Tacrolimus

Q86 : Which of the following is a nonsteroldad anti inflammatory agent with a tendency to produce blood dyscriasis

A: Indomathecin (indocin) B: Ibuprofen (Motrin) C: Ketoroloc D: Aceteminophen

Q87 : All NSAIDs block cycloxygenase and____________?

A: Prostaglandin synthesis B: Ectoglandin synthesis C: Preglandin synthesis D: Costaglandin synthesis

Q88 : Which is a prodrug ?

A: Enalapril B: clonidine C: Salmeterol D: Acetazolamide

Q89 : The most prominent toxic effect associated with acetominophen use is______________?

A: Respiratory alkalosis B: Haemorrhage C: Hepatic necrosis D: Gastric Ulceration

Q90 : Cyclosporin is used an______________?

A: Anticancer drug B: Antibiotic C: Antiarrythmic D: Immunosuppresant

Q91 : Drugs exhibiting first pass metabolism are all EXCEPT one______________?

A: Nitroglycerine B: Morphine C: Propranolol D: Salicylates

Q92 : The incidence of allergy to penicillin among various population ranges from______________?

A: 1% to 10% B: 10% to 20% C: 20% to 30 D: 30% to 40%

Q93 : Prolonged use of aspirin causes_______________?

A: Hypoprothrombinemia B: Hyperprothrombinemia C: Hyprphosphatasia D: Hypercalcemia

Q94 : Which of the following second generation anti-histaminics is used topically______________?

A: Acrivastine B: Terfenadine C: Lovocabastine D: Cetrizine

Q95 : Which of the following statements concerning potassium channel openers is true?

A: These agents decrease transmembrane calcium current associated in a smooth muscle with long-lasting relaxation B: These agents has a moderate reflex and vascular dilative action caused by the stimulation of sensitive nerve endings C: Beneficial effects of these agents are related primarily to their hemodynamic effects – decreased heart rate, blood pressure, and contractility – which decrease myocardial oxygen requirements at rest and during exercise D: These agents increase the permeability of K channels, probably ATP-dependent K channels, that results in stabilizing the membrane potential of excitable cells near the resting potential

Q96 : Morphine a powerful opioid analgesic drug should be avoided in all the following conditions except____________?

A: Left ventricular failure B: Bronchial asthma C: Constipation D: A & C

Q97 : Which one of the following drugs is most commonly employed in an attack of angina pectoris ?

A: Sodium nitrate B: Epinephrine C: Nitroglycerina D: Isosorbide dinitrate

Q98 : Thiopentone action is terminated by______________?

A: Excretion B: Metabolism C: Redistribution D: Recycling

Q99 : Drug which crosses placental barrier is____________?

A: phenytoin B: Diazepam C: Corticosteroids D: All of the above

Q100 : Which of the following drugs causes extra pyramidal symptoms_____________?

A: Antibiotics B: Salicylates C: Barbiturates D: Phenothiazines

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