Free Pharmacology MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

Q1 : Penicillin is effective against_____________?

A: Neisseria meningitis B: Neisseria gonorrhoeae C: Treponema Pallidum D: All of the above

Q2 : After I.V administration of which of the following anesthetic agent, there is rapid recovery and less headedness ?

A: Propofol B: Diazepam C: Droperidol D: Midazolam

Q3 : Which of the following is a 4th generation cephalosporin______________?

A: Ceftrioxone B: Cefaclor C: Cefepime D: Cefuroxime

Q4 : Toxic optic neuropathy can be caused by all of the following EXCEPT____________?

A: Ethambutol B: Ethylene glycol C: Ciprofloxacin D: Tetracycline

Q5 : Action of tannic acid is_______________?

A: Blood coagulant B: Astrigent C: Styptic D: All of the following

Q6 : Phenothiazines are used to____________?

A: Produce muscle relaxation B: Alter psychotic behaviour C: Suppress coughing D: Produce analgesia

Q7 : Which of the following is NOT a systemic effect of corticosteroid ?

A: Increase in IL-1 B: Increase in total amount of circulatory neutrophils C: Anti-inflammatory effect is increased D: Inhibit phospholipase A2

Q8 : American society of anesthesiologists physical status classification system, P2 is a is a patient who______________?

A: Is healthy B: With mild systemic disease C: With severe systemic disease D: None of the above

Q9 : All of the following statements about opioids is correct except_____________?

A: Pentazocine and buprinorphine B: Pentazocine shows withdrawal symptoms in opioid dependent patients C: Partial agonists are free from classic opioid adverse effects D: Ethomorphine is similar to pethidine chemically

Q10 : Magnesium and Aluminium are added in Antacid because_____________?

A: Mg Causes constipation, Al causes diarrhoea B: Mg Causes Diarrhoea, Al Causes Constipation C: Mg act as buffering agent and Al antagonize its action D: Both increase gastric motility

Q11 : Which antibiotic is effective against pseudomonas and indole +ve proteus ?

A: Methicillin B: Carbenicillin C: Lincomycin D: Oxacillin

Q12 : Metronidazole______________?

A: Has no side-effects B: Is used in management of ANUG C: Is mainly concentrated in saliva D: Is active against gram-positive aerobes

Q13 : Action of Nitroglycerin is______________?

A: Direct action on smooth muscle B: Slows SA node conductivity C: Blocks arrhythmia D: Increases perfusion to heart

Q14 : Which one of the following NSAIDs has adverse effects on liver ?

A: Acetaminophen B: Aspirin C: Ibuprofen D: Diclofenac Sodium

Q15 : Drugs showing zero order kinetics of elimination_____________?

A: Are more common than first order kinetics B: Decrease in concentration exponentially with time C: Have a half – life independent of dose D: Show a plot of drug concentration versus time that is linear

Q16 : Which one of the following is NOT an ergot alkaloids_____________?

A: Bromocriptine B: Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD) C: Ketanserin D: Methysergide

Q17 : Agents used by local application to control bleeding include all of the following except____________?

A: Trannic acid B: Gelatin foam C: Adrenaline D: Vitamin-K

Q18 : Which among the following Not a pharmacological action of opioids______________?

A: Cough suppression B: Anti-emesis C: Miosis D: Truncal rigidity

Q19 : B- blocker with additional a-blocking property is____________?

A: Propranolol B: Timolol C: Metoprolol D: Labetalol

Q20 : NSAID which undergoes enterohepatic circulation______________?

A: Phenylbutazone B: Piroxicam C: Aspirin D: Ibuprofen

Q21 : Side of action of muscle selanant is______________?

A: Myoneural junction B: Central C: Ascending reticular D: Red nucleus activating system

Q22 : : A patient on digoxin should not be given quindine because______________?

A: Displaces digoxine from its tissue binding sites B: Displaces digoxin from its protein binding sites C: Decrease the renal clearance of digoxin D: Decreases the plasma potassium level

Q23 : A patient with grandmal epilepsy would likely be under treatment with_______________?

A: Meprobamate B: Pentobarbital C: Trimethadione D: Phenytoin

Q24 : Aspirin is contraindicated in_______________?

A: MI B: Angina C: Peptic ulcer D: Hypertension

Q25 : Amitryptyline is a____________?

A: Antibiotic B: Sedative C: Tricyclic antidepressant D: Diuretic

Q26 : Which of the following can be given as a single dose antimalarial for P.vivax malaria______________?

A: Atovaquone + Proguanil B: Artemisinin C: Quinine + Tetracycline D: Pyrimethamine + Sulfadoxime Read More Details about this Mcq:

Q27 : Relative contraindications for the administration of Ketamine hydrochioride include all of the following EXCEPT ?

A: Age < 5 years B: History of epilepsy C: Raised intracranial tension D: Recent anterior myocardial infarction

Q28 : The ratio of the median lethal dose of the median effective dose is the_____________?

A: Morbidity index B: Moratality index C: Anesthetic ratio D: Therapeutic index

Q29 : An anxiolytic, not interacting with GABA ergic system and used in generalized anxiety is______________?

A: Alprazolam B: Diazepam C: Buspiron D: Phenobarbital

Q30 : Which one of the following agents sensitises the myocardium to catechlomines____________?

A: Isoflurane B: Ether C: Halothane D: Proplofol

Q31 : Respiratory depression is seen with_____________?

A: Tranquilizers B: Non-barbiturates C: Synthetic narcotics D: Antidepressants

Q32 : Which one of the anti hypertensives is contraindicated in pregnancy ?

A: Hydralazine B: a-Methldopa C: Nifedipine D: Enlapril

Q33 : Disseminated candidiasis requires intensive therapy with_____________?

A: Nystatin B: Amphotericin C: Interferons D: Thiobendazole

Q34 : Filgrastin is used for treatment of_____________?

A: Anemia B: Neutropenia C: Malaria D: Filariasis

Q35 : Quindine is used to treat______________?

A: Hypertension B: Angina pectoris C: Atrial fibrillation D: Congestive heart failure

Q36 : Which of the following is a leukotriene antagonist ?

A: Montelukast B: Zileuton C: Nedocromil D: Misopristol

Q37 : Rapid onset of inhalational GA depends on____________?

A: Blood solubility B: Cerebral blood flow C: Partial pressure of GA D: All of the above

Q38 : Which of the following drugs is used in the morning sickness_____________?

A: Hyoscine B: Atropine C: Adrenalin D: Chlorpromazine

Q39 : Which of the following is not caused by Frusemide____________?

A: Hypokalemia B: Hyperuricemia C: Hypercalcemia D: Hyponatremia

Q40 : Beta2 adrenergic receptor stimulating drugs are used in_______________?

A: Bronchial asthma B: cardiac asthma C: Hypertension D: Angina pectrosis

Q41 : The drug Amifostine is used in subjects undergoing radiotherapy for cancer as it________________?

A: Scavanges free radicals B: Enhances the production of free radicals C: Promotes damage of DNA D: Prevents repair of damaged DNA

Q42 : Cephalosporin active against pseudomonas aeruginosa______________?

A: Cefoperazone B: Cefaclor C: Ceftriaxone D: Cefotaxime

Q43 : Prolonged use of aspirin leads to______________?

A: peptic ulcer B: Bleeding defects C: Carcinoma D: A & B

Q44 : The organ most resistant to GA is______________?

A: Spinal Cord B: Medulla oblonagata C: Medullary cortex D: Cerebrum

Q45 : Which of the following cardiac depressants is contraindicated in a patient with cardiac arrhythmia____________?

A: Lidocaine B: Quinidine C: Phenytoin D: Propranolol

Q46 : Which of the following is beta-lactam antibiotic ?

A: Sulphonamide B: Carbamide C: Cephalosporins D: Ofloxacin

Q47 : Which drug causes photosensitivity______________?

A: Tetracycline B: Aminoglycoside C: Penicillin D: Cephalosporin

Q48 : Birbiturates in pediatrics is_____________?

A: Contraindicated B: Low safety C: Can be used safely D: Not much use

Q49 : Which of the following is true for carbonic anhydrase inhibitor ?

A: It causes excertion of Na & Cl B: It is used as an adjunct in epilepsy C: It is very potent D: It causes metabolic alkalosis

Q50 : Best treatment of candidiasis of_____________?

A: Mycostatin B: Amphoterin C: Antibiotics D: None of the above

Q51 : Drug which causes gingival hyperplasia_____________?

A: Nifedipine B: Nifedipine C: Aspirin D: Both A & C

Q52 : All are macrolide antibiotics EXCEPT______________?

A: Erythromycin B: Roxithromycin C: Neomycin D: Calithromycin

Q53 : Which of the following is a mismatch ?

A: Naloxone-Tricyclic antidepressant B: Warfarin- Oral anticoagulant C: Herbicide and earth materials – allergies D: Acetaminophen – anti inflammatory

Q54 : Loading dose depends on_____________?

A: Volume of distribution B: Clearance C: Rate of administration D: Half life

Q55 : According to American society of Anesthetists, physical status scale Class III would be_____________?

A: A normal healthy individual B: A patient with mild systemic disease C: A patient with severe systemic disease that it not in capacitating D: None of the above

Q56 : Each of the following is correct for the treatment of Diarrhoea except_______________?

A: Kaolin has marginal therapeutic effect B: Opioids delay the passage of gut contents by decreasing peristalsis and increasing intestinal segmentation C: Loperamide had high abuse potential D: Diphenoxylate may cause respiratory depression on administration

Q57 : AIDS is a disease if the immune system primarily affecting_____________?

A: Granulocytes B: Immunoglobulins C: Opsonins D: T lymphocytes

Q58 : Which one of the following drugs is not contraindicated in bronchial asthma ?

A: Morphine B: Propanolol C: Stropine D: Nitroglycerine

Q59 : Which one of the following is Not true of angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor____________?

A: May cause hyperkalaemia in diabetic patients B: Contraindicated in pregnancy C: Contraindicated in diabetic nephropathy D: NSAIDs may impair its hypotensive effect

Q60 : Less gastrointestinal bleed is seen in the following NSAID_______________?

A: Meloxicam B: Naproxen C: C0X2 specific inhibitors D: Ibuprofen

Q61 : Elimination after 4 half lives in first order kinetics is____________?

A: 84% B: 93% C: 80.5% D: 4.75%

Q62 : Clotting time is most like to be prolonged by the administration of____________?

A: Vitamin K B: Barbiturates C: Acetominophen D: Acetyl salicylic acid

Q63 : A diabetic patient developed cellulitis due to Staphylococcus aureus, Which was found to be Methicillin resistant on the antibiotic sensitivity testing. All the following antibiotics will be appropriate except_____________?

A: Vancomycin B: Imipenem C: Teichoplanin D: Linezolid

Q64 : Roxithromycin is______________?

A: A long acting macrolide B: Short action quinolone C: Short acting macrolide D: Long acting polypeptide

Q65 : Which is not antiemetic ?

A: Domperidone B: Phenazocine C: Cyclizine D: Ondanestron

Q66 : Which of the following is a protective drug in the management of gastric and duodenal ulcers ?

A: H2 antihistamines B: NaHCO3 C: Famotidine D: Carbenoxolone

Q67 : IV ultrashort acting barbiturate_____________?

A: Meprobamate B: Pentobarbitone C: Thiopentone D: Phenobarbitone

Q68 : An aminoglycoside that is often combined with polymyxin and bacitracin for the treatment of topical infection is____________?

A: Gentamycin B: Tetracycline C: Aztreonam D: Neomycin

Q69 : Which of the following sympathominetic agents is the most bronchodilator_____________?

A: Amphetamine B: Nor epinephrine C: Isoproterenol D: Phenylephrine

Q70 : Aminocaproic acid is a drug of choice for treatment of:

A: Acute myocardial infarction B: Bleeding from fibrinolytic therapy C: Heart failure D: Multiple pulmonary emboli

Q71 : Which of the following drugs in likely to damage the eighth cranial nerve when administered for a long period of time ?

A: Ethambutol B: Isoniazid C: Rifampicin D: Streptomycin

Q72 : When a drug creates an effect that is unpredictable and unique it is termed as____________?

A: Side effect B: Toxicity effect C: Idiosyncratic effect D: Drug on Drug effect

Q73 : Morphine a powerful opioid analgesic drug should be avoided in all the following conditions except____________?

A: Left ventricular failure B: Bronchial asthma C: Constipation D: A & C

Q74 : Aspirin is contraindicated in______________?

A: Peptic ulcer B: Person suffering form chicken pox or small pox C: Hemorrhage D: All of the above

Q75 : The dentist who first used Nitrous oxide for the abolition of pain due to dental extraction was_____________?

A: Harpes David B: Harvey william C: Horace wells D: Hunter John

Q76 : Which of the following is not true about ACE inhibitors ?

A: Used in asthma B: Increase quality of life C: Postural hypotension is seen D: Na level decrease

Q77 : The beneficial effect of drug neostigmine in the treatment of Myasthenia gravis is due to the action____________?

A: It is produces more acetylcholine B: It inhibits the action of cholinesterase C: It produces more acetycholine receptors D: It increases the action of cholinesterase

Q78 : Drug efficacy refers to_________________?

A: Range of disease in which the drug beneficial B: Maximal intensity of response that can be produced by the drug C: The therapeutic does range of the drug D: The therapeutic index of the drug

Q79 : Ketamine is a________________?

A: Short general anesthetic agent B: Local anesthetic agent C: Antidepressive agent D: Hypnotic agent

Q80 : Which one of the following drugs has been shown to offer protection from gastric aspiration syndrome in a patient with symptoms of reflex ?

A: Ondansetron B: Metoclopramide C: Sodium citrate D: Atropine

Q81 : All of the following decrease skeletal muscle tone by CNS effects except____________?

A: D-tubocurarin B: Diazepam C: Beclofen D: Mephensin

Q82 : Which among the following is Not used for surface anesthesia ?

A: Lignocaine B: Procaine C: Tetracaine D: Procaine

Q83 : The Ethyl alcohol (Ethanol) is more effective when mixed with water and used as_____________?

A: 10 to 20 percent B: 20 to 30 percent C: 40 to 50 percent D: 60 to 70 percent

Q84 : The choice of treatment in anaphylactic shock is_______________?

A: Corticosteroids B: Adrenaline C: Glucose 1.V D: Saline 1.V

Q85 : A side effect of an antithyroid drug is______________?

A: Hypothyroidism B: Obesity C: Hypotension D: Tremors

Q86 : A dentist who first used ether as a general antithetic was_____________?

A: Martin B: Morton C: Morrison D: Murray

Q87 : Alpha blocker used as anti hypertensive agent_____________?

A: Alpha blocker used as anti hypertensive agent_____________? B: Prazosin C: Clonidine D: Propranolol

Q88 : The most common type of epilepsy in children is________________?

A: Grand mal epilepsy B: Infantile spasm C: Petit mal D: None of the above

Q89 : Following inhibits Cytochrome P450_____________?

A: Cimetidine B: Famotidine C: Ranitidine D: All of the above

Q90 : With prolonged use in seizure states, which of the following drugs can cause coarsening of facial features, hirsutism, gingival hyperplasia and osteomalacia?

A: Valproic acid. B: Carbamazepine. C: Ethosuximide. D: Phenytoin

Q91 : Which one of the following drugs is most commonly employed in an attack of angina pectoris ?

A: Sodium nitrate B: Epinephrine C: Nitroglycerina D: Isosorbide dinitrate

Q92 : Cardiac Toxicity is a common side effect seen with: _________?

A: Bleomycin B: Doxorubicin C: Captopril D: Prazosin

Q93 : Which of the following is not a contraindication in the therapy with opioids_____________?

A: Use in head injury patient B: use in impaired pulmonary function C: Use of agonist with mixed agonist-antagonist D: Use in severe constant pain

Q94 : During administration of NSAIDs in children, the most important of dose administration is______________?

A: . Weight of the child B: Age of child C: Nature of the drug D: Chronicity of pain

Q95 : Long acting beta – 2 agonist ?

A: Albuterol B: Salmeterol C: Pirlbuterol D: Orciprenaline

Q96 : Thyroid storm can be treated by all the following drugs EXCEPT______________?

A: Propylthiouracil B: Dexamethasone C: Propranolol D: Aspirin

Q97 : Adrenaline can be given in all of the following situations except_______________?

A: Asthma B: Myocardial infarction C: Shock D: Anaphylaxis

Q98 : Which of the following antibiotics is most frequently associated with pseudomembranous colitis ?

A: Ampicillin B: Penicillin C: Clindamycin D: Cephalosporin

Q99 : Only Aspirin can:

A: Reduce fever. B: Irreversible inhibit its target enzyme. C: Prevent episodes of gouty arthritis with long term use. D: Reduce the risk of colon cancer.

Q100 : An antiepileptic drug used in petitmal epilepsy is______________?

A: Phenobarbitonse B: Dilantoin sodium C: Diazepam D: Ethosuximide

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