Free Pharmacology MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

Q1 : Immune mediated qualitative drug intolerance is called______________?

A: Super sensitivity B: Idiosyncrasy C: Hyper sensitivity D: Hyper acidity

Q2 : Tick the feature of the sublingual route:

A: Pretty fast absorption B: A drug is exposed to gastric secretion C: A drug is exposed more prominent liver metabolism D: A drug can be administrated in a variety of doses

Q3 : Which of the following is a first generation oral cephalosporin_____________?

A: Cephapirin B: Cefadroxil C: Cefaclor D: Cefixime

Q4 : Neuro adaptation to drug is same as______________?

A: Physical dependence B: Psychological dependence C: Addiction D: Habituation

Q5 : During administration of NSAIDs in children, the most important of dose administration is______________?

A: . Weight of the child B: Age of child C: Nature of the drug D: Chronicity of pain

Q6 : Peripheral neuritis is a complication of_______________?

A: Isoniazid B: Ethambutol C: Rifampicin D: Pirazinamide

Q7 : Which drugs had high first pass effect_____________?

A: Amiodarone B: Phenytoin C: Verapamil D: Disorpyamide

Q8 : Centrineuraxial (spinaland epidural) anaesthesia is not contraindicated in____________?

A: Platalets <80,000 B: Patient on aspirin C: Patient on oral anticoagulants D: Raised intracranial pressure

Q9 : About heparin true is_____________?

A: Mixture of sulphated polypeptide B: Known to cause idiopathic thrombocytosis C: Half-life is 90 min D: Decrease action of prothrombin III

Q10 : Drug chemically related to penicillins is_____________?

A: Tetracycline B: Sulphonamide C: Cephalosporin D: Lincemycin

Q11 : The drug combination which produces Neuroleptanalgesia is______________?

A: Daroperidol + Fentanyl B: Deroperidol + Ketamine C: Droperiodl + Ether D: Droperiodl + Thiopental sodium + Nitrous oxide

Q12 : All of the following decrease skeletal muscle tone by CNS effects except____________?

A: D-tubocurarin B: Diazepam C: Beclofen D: Mephensin

Q13 : NSAID’s have adverse effect on________________?

A: Bone B: Kidney C: Liver D: Stomach

Q14 : Narcotic overdose can be antagonized by______________?

A: Diphenhydramine B: Atropine C: Naloxane D: Nalorphine

Q15 : Quindine is used to treat______________?

A: Hypertension B: Angina pectoris C: Atrial fibrillation D: Congestive heart failure

Q16 : A patient taking which of the following drug should not eat cheese, etc_____________?

A: Tetracycline B: Amoxycillin C: Doxycycline D: Triamterene

Q17 : Salicylate administration is contraindicated in pregnancy because_______________?

A: It delay onset of labour B: Causes pulmonary hypertension of newborn C: Readily croses placental barrier D: All of these

Q18 : An antiepileptic drug used in petitmal epilepsy is______________?

A: Phenobarbitonse B: Dilantoin sodium C: Diazepam D: Ethosuximide

Q19 : Which of the following anti-epileptic agents causes the reversible side-effect of gingival hyperplasia ?

A: Ethosuximide B: Phenobarbitone C: Sodium valporate D: None of the above

Q20 : Complete drug elimination occurs after how many hours, if t½ is 4 hrs______________?

A: 12 hrs B: 20 hrs C: 25 hrs D: 30 hrs

Q21 : The drug Amifostine is used in subjects undergoing radiotherapy for cancer as it________________?

A: Scavanges free radicals B: Enhances the production of free radicals C: Promotes damage of DNA D: Prevents repair of damaged DNA

Q22 : A dentist who first used ether as a general antithetic was_____________?

A: Martin B: Morton C: Morrison D: Murray

Q23 : All of the following are tocolytic except_______________?

A: Isoxsuprine B: Natrexam C: Atosiban D: Ritodrine

Q24 : B-lactam antibiotics are_____________?

A: Penicillin B: Imipenem C: Cephalosporins D: All of the above

Q25 : Sildenafil is inhibitor of_______________?

A: cAMP B: cGMP C: PDE-5 D: PGI2

Q26 : B- blocker with additional a-blocking property is____________?

A: Propranolol B: Timolol C: Metoprolol D: Labetalol

Q27 : Which among the following is a cell cycle specific anti-neoplastic drug ?

A: Cyclophosphamide B: Doxorubicin C: Methotrexate D: Cisplatin

Q28 : All of the following drugs are useful in treatment of hypertension except______________?

A: Ephedrine B: Reserpine C: Methyldopa D: Thiazole diuretics

Q29 : Which of the following drug is used to counter act the gastric irritation produced by administration of NSAID_______________?

A: Roxatidine B: Pirenzipine C: Betaxolol D: Misoprostol

Q30 : One of the obious consequences of alchol ( ethenol), ingestion in many individual is facial flushing and increased heart rate triggered off by alcohol getting metabolized to______________?

A: Formaldehyde B: Acetaldehyde C: Propanaldehyde D: Butanaldehyde

Q31 : Potassium permanganate is used for_______________?

A: Gargling B: Dinisfect water in wells C: Irrigating cavities D: Cleaning surgical instruments

Q32 : Which one of the following is Not true of angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor____________?

A: May cause hyperkalaemia in diabetic patients B: Contraindicated in pregnancy C: Contraindicated in diabetic nephropathy D: NSAIDs may impair its hypotensive effect

Q33 : One of the following is not penicillinase susceptible______________?

A: Amoxicillin B: Penicillin G C: Piperacillin D: Cloxacillin

Q34 : Which of the following cannot be used as a surface local anaesthetics ?

A: Procaine B: Tetracaine C: Lidocaine D: Benzocaine

Q35 : All of the following statements about opioids is correct except_____________?

A: Pentazocine and buprinorphine B: Pentazocine shows withdrawal symptoms in opioid dependent patients C: Partial agonists are free from classic opioid adverse effects D: Ethomorphine is similar to pethidine chemically

Q36 : Adrenaline can be given in all of the following situations except_______________?

A: Asthma B: Myocardial infarction C: Shock D: Anaphylaxis

Q37 : Which of the following drugs cannot reduce the salivary secretions ?

A: Amitriptyline B: Disopyrmide C: Atenolol D: Neostigmine

Q38 : Relative contraindications for the administration of Ketamine hydrochioride include all of the following EXCEPT ?

A: Age < 5 years B: History of epilepsy C: Raised intracranial tension D: Recent anterior myocardial infarction

Q39 : Aspirin is contraindicated in_______________?

A: MI B: Angina C: Peptic ulcer D: Hypertension

Q40 : True about amoxycillin in comparison to ampicillin is_______________?

A: Higher oral biovailability B: Lower oral biovailability C: Equal oral biovailability D: Can be given Parenterally

Q41 : Which of the following drugs in likely to damage the eighth cranial nerve when administered for a long period of time ?

A: Ethambutol B: Isoniazid C: Rifampicin D: Streptomycin

Q42 : Morphine is contraindicated in all of the following except_______________?

A: Pulmonary oedema B: Emphysema C: Bronchial asthma D: Head injury

Q43 : Finasteride is a ?

A: 5 alpha reductase inhibitor B: PDE inhibitor C: Alpha blocker D: Androgen receptor blocker

Q44 : All of the following penetrate the CSF except________________?

A: Dextrose B: Dilantine C: Diazepam D: Dopamine

Q45 : A 50 year old female with end stage renal disease (ESRD) develops pulmonary tuberculosis. Which one of the following drugs should be used in a reduced dose ?

A: Rifampicin B: Isoniazide C: Pyrazamide D: Ethambutol

Q46 : Allergic reactions depends on all except____________?

A: previous exposure to the drug B: Dosage of the drug received C: Pharmacological action of the drug D: Antigen antibody reaction

Q47 : Which of the following second generation anti-histaminics is used topically______________?

A: Acrivastine B: Terfenadine C: Lovocabastine D: Cetrizine

Q48 : Povidine iodine is used for_____________?

A: Burns B: Tinea C: Non-specific vaginitis D: All of the above

Q49 : AIDS is a disease if the immune system primarily affecting_____________?

A: Granulocytes B: Immunoglobulins C: Opsonins D: T lymphocytes

Q50 : All are symptoms of opiate withdrawls except______________?

A: Diarrhea B: Lacrimation C: Mydriasis D: Excessive speech

Q51 : Drug that does not cause sedation________________?

A: Buspirone B: Nitrazepam C: Zopiclone D: Diazepam

Q52 : Acute Barbiturate poisoning results in_______________?

A: Renal failure B: Liver failure C: Respiratory failure D: Convulsions

Q53 : Tannic acid is used in the following conditions except_____________?

A: Bleeding gums B: Alkaloidal poisoning C: Toothache D: Bleeding piles

Q54 : The drug for choice for treatment of infection involving non-penicillinase producing staphylococcus is______________?

A: Ampicillin B: Erythromycin C: Penicilling G D: Methicillin sodium

Q55 : Which of the following is beta-lactam antibiotic ?

A: Sulphonamide B: Carbamide C: Cephalosporins D: Ofloxacin

Q56 : The mechanism of action of chloramphenicol is inhibition of synthesis of_____________?

A: Cell wall B: Cell membrane C: Protein D: DNA

Q57 : A patient on 300 mg of aspirin will show all the following except________________?

A: Irreversible inhibition of cyclooxygenase path way B: Prolonged bleeding time C: Inhibition of thromboxane TXA2 D: Inhibition of prostaglandin PGI2

Q58 : American society of anesthesiologists physical status classification system, P2 is a is a patient who______________?

A: Is healthy B: With mild systemic disease C: With severe systemic disease D: None of the above

Q59 : Which of the following cardiac depressants is contraindicated in a patient with cardiac arrhythmia____________?

A: Lidocaine B: Quinidine C: Phenytoin D: Propranolol

Q60 : Beta blockers are contraindicated in___________?

A: Angina pectoris B: Cardiac arrhythmia C: Cardiac failure D: Myocardial infarction

Q61 : A patient, without prior medication, breathes a gas mixture consisting of 50 percent nitrous oxide and 50 percent oxygen by volume. Which of the following effects would be expected_____________?

A: Analgesia B: Excitation C: Surgical anesthesia D: Respiratory arrest

Q62 : Which one of the following NSAIDs has adverse effects on liver ?

A: Acetaminophen B: Aspirin C: Ibuprofen D: Diclofenac Sodium

Q63 : All of the following are vasodilators except______________?

A: Cocaine B: Etomidate C: Cyclopropane D: Procaine

Q64 : Prolonged use of aspirin causes_______________?

A: Hypoprothrombinemia B: Hyperprothrombinemia C: Hyprphosphatasia D: Hypercalcemia

Q65 : The vulnerable period of pregnancy for the causation of foetal malformation is_____________?

A: 1 – 18 days B: 19 – 55 days C: 56 – 85 days D: II trimester

Q66 : Only Aspirin can:

A: Reduce fever. B: Irreversible inhibit its target enzyme. C: Prevent episodes of gouty arthritis with long term use. D: Reduce the risk of colon cancer.

Q67 : Morphine a powerful opioid analgesic drug should be avoided in all the following conditions except____________?

A: Left ventricular failure B: Bronchial asthma C: Constipation D: A & C

Q68 : Roxithromycin is______________?

A: A long acting macrolide B: Short action quinolone C: Short acting macrolide D: Long acting polypeptide

Q69 : Which of the following is a leukotriene antagonist ?

A: Montelukast B: Zileuton C: Nedocromil D: Misopristol

Q70 : The ratio of the median lethal dose of the median effective dose is the_____________?

A: Morbidity index B: Moratality index C: Anesthetic ratio D: Therapeutic index

Q71 : A factor with a mucopoly saccaride, present in liver, presenting in platelet aggregation is______________?

A: Plasmin B: Acetylsalicylic acid C: Heparin D: Prothrombin

Q72 : Cross resistance of isoniazid is seen with_____________?

A: Rifampicin B: Ethionamide C: Cycloserine D: Ethambutol

Q73 : Following analgesic combination should be avoided ?

A: Codeine B: Paracetamol and Dextropropoxyphene C: Ibuprofen and Paracetamol D: Ibuprofen and DIclofenac

Q74 : Which drug may be administered even when the patient is on alcoholic beverages ?

A: . Animal charcoal B: Glibenclamide C: Chloral hydrate D: Cefixime

Q75 : In cirrhoses patients, dose reduction is needed for all the following drugs except_____________?

A: Lorazepam B: Theophylline C: Paracetamol D: Metronidazole

Q76 : An untoward effect of that is common to all phenothiazines is______________?

A: A marked increase in blood pressure B: Rigidity and tremor at rest, particularly with prolonged use C: Suppression of prolacin D: Nausea

Q77 : Action of Nitroglycerin is______________?

A: Direct action on smooth muscle B: Slows SA node conductivity C: Blocks arrhythmia D: Increases perfusion to heart

Q78 : B-lactam antibiotics are_____________?

A: Penicillin B: Imipenem C: Cephalosporins D: All of the above

Q79 : Which of the following statements about Azoles is false ?

A: They are fungistatic B: They are hepatotoxic C: Resistance to the drug is common D: They affect the metabolism of drugs such as cyclosporine necessitating an increasing in dosage

Q80 : Side of action of muscle selanant is______________?

A: Myoneural junction B: Central C: Ascending reticular D: Red nucleus activating system

Q81 : Platelet aggregation in inhibited by all except_______________?

A: Indomenthacin B: Salicylates C: Dypyradimole D: Phenobarbitone

Q82 : Which is a prodrug ?

A: Enalapril B: clonidine C: Salmeterol D: Acetazolamide

Q83 : Ketamine is a________________?

A: Short general anesthetic agent B: Local anesthetic agent C: Antidepressive agent D: Hypnotic agent

Q84 : Hepatic first pass metabolism is important in____________?

A: Drugs given IM B: Drugs taken orally C: Drugs given IV D: None of the above

Q85 : Drug which crosses placental barrier is____________?

A: phenytoin B: Diazepam C: Corticosteroids D: All of the above

Q86 : Ipratropium bromide is used for_____________?

A: Renal colic B: Organophosphorus poisoning C: Bronchial asthma D: miosis

Q87 : The following drugs are useful in hypertension except_____________?

A: Calcium channel blockers B: Alpha methyl dopa C: Beta blockers D: Pentoxifyline

Q88 : The drug for choice for treatment of infection involving non-penicillinase producing staphylococcus is___________?

A: Ampicillin B: Erythromycin C: Penicilling G D: Methicillin sodium

Q89 : Lidocaine produces its antiarrhythmic effects by_____________?

A: Increasing A-V conduction B: Decreasing cardiac excitability C: Increasing cardiac conduction velocity D: Increasing spontaneous pacemaker activity

Q90 : Local anaesthetics act by inhibiting_____________?

A: Motor fibers only B: Motor and sensory fibres C: Only sensory fibres D: None of the above

Q91 : Which of the following anesthetic drugs produces powerful stimulation of the cerebral cortex_____________?

A: Cocaine B: Procaine C: Lidocaine D: Tetracaine

Q92 : Which of the following inhalational agents is the induction agent of choice in children______________?

A: Methoxyflurane B: Sevoflurane C: Desflurane D: Isoflurane

Q93 : Which of the following is not a contraindication in the therapy with opioids_____________?

A: Use in head injury patient B: use in impaired pulmonary function C: Use of agonist with mixed agonist-antagonist D: Use in severe constant pain

Q94 : A patient with grand mal epilepsy would likely be under treatment with_____________?

A: Meprobamate B: Pentobarbital C: Trimethadione D: Phenytoin

Q95 : The most prominent toxic effect associated with acetominophen use is______________?

A: Respiratory alkalosis B: Haemorrhage C: Hepatic necrosis D: Gastric Ulceration

Q96 : The potent anti arrhythmic drug which has little negative ionotropic effect valuable in patients with poor left ventricular function_____________?

A: Amlodipine B: Bidoprolo C: Amiodarnone D: Digoxin

Q97 : Mandibular sublaxation is associated with________________?

A: Prochlorperazine B: Carbamezapine C: Diphenhydramine D: Ciprofloxacin

Q98 : An attack of migraine can be easily terminated by___________?

A: Acetylcholine B: Ergotamine C: Morphine D: Ibuprofen

Q99 : Not true about PnG is______________?

A: Destroyed by gastic acid B: Very active against sensitive gram positive coci C: Used for treatment of meningococcal meningitis D: More concentrated in prostatic secretion and intraocular fluids

Q100 : All of the following drugs are components of the MOPP cancer Chemotherapy regimen EXCEPT______________?

A: Procarbazine B: Vincristine C: Mechlorethamine D: Methotrexate

Free Pharmacology MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

Time to prove what you know!

LAT Test

GAT Test

Contact Info

Free Pharmacology MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

Subscribe our Newsletter

LAT Test

GAT Test

Contact Info