Free Pharmacology MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

Q1 : Platelet aggregation in inhibited by all except_______________?

A: Indomenthacin B: Salicylates C: Dypyradimole D: Phenobarbitone

Q2 : B- blocker with additional a-blocking property is____________?

A: Propranolol B: Timolol C: Metoprolol D: Labetalol

Q3 : A young man of 24 years is suffering from Generalized Anxiety Disorder; which drug may be preferred for his problem?

A: Zolpidem B: Buspiron. C: Midazolam D: Phenobarbital

Q4 : Which of the following is true for carbonic anhydrase inhibitor ?

A: It causes excertion of Na & Cl B: It is used as an adjunct in epilepsy C: It is very potent D: It causes metabolic alkalosis

Q5 : Sildenafil is inhibitor of_______________?

A: cAMP B: cGMP C: PDE-5 D: PGI2

Q6 : Which of the following is NOT a systemic effect of corticosteroid ?

A: Increase in IL-1 B: Increase in total amount of circulatory neutrophils C: Anti-inflammatory effect is increased D: Inhibit phospholipase A2

Q7 : Which is not antiemetic ?

A: Domperidone B: Phenazocine C: Cyclizine D: Ondanestron

Q8 : Lidocaine produces its antiarrhythmic effects by_____________?

A: Increasing A-V conduction B: Decreasing cardiac excitability C: Increasing cardiac conduction velocity D: Increasing spontaneous pacemaker activity

Q9 : A common side effect associated with all NSAID drugs is_______________?

A: Drowsiness B: Gastric irritation C: Xerostomia D: Constipation

Q10 : Complete drug elimination occurs after how many hours, if t½ is 4 hrs______________?

A: 12 hrs B: 20 hrs C: 25 hrs D: 30 hrs

Q11 : Elimination after 4 half lives in first order kinetics is____________?

A: 84% B: 93% C: 80.5% D: 4.75%

Q12 : The maximum antiseptic action is seen with which of the following concedntrations of ethanol_____________?

A: 50% B: 65% C: 70% D: 95%

Q13 : Buprenorphine acts by following mechanism________________?

A: Mu receptor antagonist B: Kappa receptor antagonist C: Mu receptor partial agnoist D: Kappa receptor partial agonist

Q14 : Which drug is not acetylated ?

A: Metaclopramide B: INH C: Dapsone D: Hydralazine

Q15 : The following drugs are useful in hypertension except_____________?

A: Calcium channel blockers B: Alpha methyl dopa C: Beta blockers D: Pentoxifyline

Q16 : True about aminoglycoside is all except______________?

A: Are bacteriostatic B: Distributed only extracellularly C: Excreted unchanged in urine D: Teratogenic

Q17 : All of the following statements regarding biovailability of a drug are true except______________?

A: It is the proportion (fraction) of unchanged drug that reaches the systemic circulation B: Biovailability of an orally administered drug can be calculated by comparing the area under cure (o-a) after oral and intravenous (IV) administration C: Low oral biovailability always and necessarily mean poor absorption D: Biovailability can be determined from plasma concentration or urinary excretion data

Q18 : Which is a prodrug ?

A: Enalapril B: clonidine C: Salmeterol D: Acetazolamide

Q19 : A dentist who first used ether as a general antithetic was_____________?

A: Martin B: Morton C: Morrison D: Murray

Q20 : The organ most resistant to GA is______________?

A: Spinal Cord B: Medulla oblonagata C: Medullary cortex D: Cerebrum

Q21 : Hypokalemia is seen in therapy with____________?

A: Digitalis B: Ibuprufen C: Corticosteroids D: Diazepam

Q22 : All of the following antibacterial agents acts by inhibiting cell wall systhesis except________________?

A: Carbapenems B: Monobactams C: Cephamycins D: Nitrofurantoins

Q23 : Which of the following is a 4th generation cephalosporin______________?

A: Ceftrioxone B: Cefaclor C: Cefepime D: Cefuroxime

Q24 : IF patient suffered from exaggerated effect of pharmacological effect____________?

A: Idosyncrasy B: Toxicity C: Side effect D: None of the above

Q25 : Which of the following is an ACE inhibitor ?

A: Saralosin B: Diltiazem C: Coptopril D: Spirino lactone

Q26 : Roxithromycin is______________?

A: A long acting macrolide B: Short action quinolone C: Short acting macrolide D: Long acting polypeptide

Q27 : Phenothiazines are used to____________?

A: Produce muscle relaxation B: Alter psychotic behaviour C: Suppress coughing D: Produce analgesia

Q28 : The most important property in determining the induction of a general anaesthetic agent is_____________?

A: Alveolar exchage B: Pulmonary ventilation C: Solubility of anaesthetic in blood D: solubility of anaesthetic in tissue

Q29 : All of the given drugs may be useful in acute exacerbation of bronchial asthma EXCEPT_____________?

A: Cromolyn sodium B: Hydrocortisone C: Salbutamol D: Ipratropium

Q30 : The mechanism of action of chloramphenicol is inhibition of synthesis of_____________?

A: Cell wall B: Cell membrane C: Protein D: DNA

Q31 : The antiseptic recommended for application in oral mucosa is_____________?

A: Hydrogen peroxide B: Mebromine C: Iodine D: None of the above

Q32 : Which of the following drugs when used for prolonged period in the maintenance treatment of tonic-clonic seizures can lead to increased metabolism of warfarin like drugs?

A: Phenobarbital. B: Meprobamate C: Chlordiazepoxide D: Triazolam

Q33 : AIDS is a disease if the immune system primarily affecting_____________?

A: Granulocytes B: Immunoglobulins C: Opsonins D: T lymphocytes

Q34 : Drugs showing zero order kinetics of elimination_____________?

A: Are more common than first order kinetics B: Decrease in concentration exponentially with time C: Have a half – life independent of dose D: Show a plot of drug concentration versus time that is linear

Q35 : Cardiac arrhythmias are most commonly seen during administration of____________?

A: Thiopental B: Halothane C: Ethyl Ether D: Nitrous oxide

Q36 : Side of action of muscle selanant is______________?

A: Myoneural junction B: Central C: Ascending reticular D: Red nucleus activating system

Q37 : Cross resistance of isoniazid is seen with_____________?

A: Rifampicin B: Ethionamide C: Cycloserine D: Ethambutol

Q38 : I.V anesthesia is_________________?

A: Propofol B: Sevoflurane C: Flumazanil D: . Naloxane

Q39 : While performing a procedure, a resident doctor injures herself with a suture needle that has been used to stitch a patient with HIV infection for 11 years. He has been complaint with therapy for several years and has recently changed tablets because of alteration in his appearance. His last CD4 count was 360 cells/mm. The doctor is offered post exposure prophylaxis. Which regimen should she take ?

A: Ziduvidine and Lamivudine B: Ziduvidine and Lamivudine and Indivair C: Ziduvidine and Lamivudine and Stavudine D: Ziduvidine and Lamivudine and Abacavir

Q40 : Quindine is used to treat______________?

A: Hypertension B: Angina pectoris C: Atrial fibrillation D: Congestive heart failure

Q41 : Diuretics cause loss of_______________?

A: Sodium B: Calcium C: Potassium D: Iron

Q42 : Serum sickness is caused by all the following drugs except_____________?

A: Aspirin B: Pencillins C: Sulfonamides D: Chloroquin

Q43 : The first choice of drug for patitmal seizure is________________?

A: Phentoin sodium B: Carbamazepine C: Phenobarbitone D: None of the above

Q44 : Tetracycline acts on______________?

A: 30S ribosomes B: 50S ribosomes C: Cell membrane D: Cell membrane

Q45 : All of the following are true except____________?

A: A special application of dantrolene is used to treat malignant hyperthermia B: Interferons have a role in immunology of cancer C: Thalidomide is used for the treatment of leprosy D: Allopurinol is a derivative of 8-mercaptopurine

Q46 : A child has phocomelia, this impliments his mother had taken which of the following medication during pregnancy______________?

A: Tetracycline B: Thalidomide C: Warfarin D: Chloroquine

Q47 : Which one of the following muscle relaxant has the maximum duration of action ?

A: Atracurium B: Vecuronium C: Rocuronium D: Doxacurium

Q48 : Quinine is obtained from CINCHONA________________?

A: Root B: Bark C: Leaves D: Seed capsule

Q49 : Which one of the following is NOT an ergot alkaloids_____________?

A: Bromocriptine B: Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD) C: Ketanserin D: Methysergide

Q50 : Which of the following drugs is least efficacious in the treatment of cemporal lobe epilepsy ?

A: Phenobarbitone B: Phenytoin sodium C: Primidone D: Carbamazepine

Q51 : Rapid onset of inhalational GA depends on____________?

A: Blood solubility B: Cerebral blood flow C: Partial pressure of GA D: All of the above

Q52 : Cephalosporin active against pseudomonas aeruginosa______________?

A: Cefoperazone B: Cefaclor C: Ceftriaxone D: Cefotaxime

Q53 : The most preferred acute emetic for emesis induced by anticancer drugs is______________?

A: Ondensetron B: Metaclopromide C: Chlorpromazine D: Dicyclomine

Q54 : Which drugs had high first pass effect_____________?

A: Amiodarone B: Phenytoin C: Verapamil D: Disorpyamide

Q55 : Alpha blocker used as anti hypertensive agent_____________?

A: Alpha blocker used as anti hypertensive agent_____________? B: Prazosin C: Clonidine D: Propranolol

Q56 : Povidine iodine is used for_____________?

A: Burns B: Tinea C: Non-specific vaginitis D: All of the above

Q57 : The drug Amifostine is used in subjects undergoing radiotherapy for cancer as it________________?

A: Scavanges free radicals B: Enhances the production of free radicals C: Promotes damage of DNA D: Prevents repair of damaged DNA

Q58 : Drug binds to activate the receptor is same fashion, which directly or indirectly brings effect, is_____________?

A: Inverse agonist B: Antagonist C: Agonist D: Partial agonist

Q59 : Clotting time is most like to be prolonged by the administration of____________?

A: Vitamin K B: Barbiturates C: Acetominophen D: Acetyl salicylic acid

Q60 : Which statement is true about carbamazepine ?

A: Used in trigeminal neuralgia B: Carbamazepine is an enzyme inhibitor C: Can cause megaloblastic anemia D: It is the drug of choice for status epilepticus

Q61 : Which one of the following agents sensitises the myocardium to catechlomines____________?

A: Isoflurane B: Ether C: Halothane D: Proplofol

Q62 : Intramuscular route is precluded during the medication of________________?

A: Anti-hypertensives B: Anti-diabetics C: Anticoagulants D: Anti-fibrinolytics

Q63 : Shortest acting opioid analgesic is______________?

A: Morphine B: Fentanyl C: Remifentanil D: Sufentanil

Q64 : Dissociative Sedation and analgesia described by Robert and Rosebaum in 1971 is____________?

A: 5 to 20% N20 B: 20 to 30% N20 C: 30 to 50% N20 D: 50 to 70% N20

Q65 : Which drug causes photosensitivity______________?

A: Tetracycline B: Aminoglycoside C: Penicillin D: Cephalosporin

Q66 : IV ultrashort acting barbiturate_____________?

A: Meprobamate B: Pentobarbitone C: Thiopentone D: Phenobarbitone

Q67 : When a drug creates an effect that is unpredictable and unique it is termed as____________?

A: Side effect B: Toxicity effect C: Idiosyncratic effect D: Drug on Drug effect

Q68 : Which of the following is true about parasympathetic nervous system ?

A: Ach is transmitter at both pre & post synaptic junction B: It causes dilatation of skeletal muscles C: Post ganglionic fibres are longer than pre ganglionic fibres D: Noradrenalin is the neurotransmitter at post ganglionic junction

Q69 : A Hemophiliac patient has rheumatold arthritis. Which drug might be prescribed to relieve the pain ?

A: Acetaminophen B: Acetylsalicylic acid C: Phenylbutazone D: Naproxen

Q70 : Which one is not converted to an active metabolite ?

A: Quinapril B: Fosinopril C: Benzopril D: Lisinopril

Q71 : H antagonists are effective in the therapy of all the following except______________?

A: Common cold B: Systemic anaphylaxis C: Motion sickness D: Parkinsonism

Q72 : Finasteride is a ?

A: 5 alpha reductase inhibitor B: PDE inhibitor C: Alpha blocker D: Androgen receptor blocker

Q73 : Drug which crosses placental barrier is____________?

A: phenytoin B: Diazepam C: Corticosteroids D: All of the above

Q74 : Which of the following is not a contraindication in the therapy with opioids_____________?

A: Use in head injury patient B: use in impaired pulmonary function C: Use of agonist with mixed agonist-antagonist D: Use in severe constant pain

Q75 : True about use of midazolam over diazepam is sedation in all except ?

A: Less thrombophlebitis due to low solubility in blond B: More plasma binding and less toxicity C: More potent than diazepam D: Binds to benzodiazepine receptors with 3-4 time more avidly

Q76 : Thiopentone action is terminated by______________?

A: Excretion B: Metabolism C: Redistribution D: Recycling

Q77 : All the following about antiemetic drugs are correct except_______________?

A: Domperidone blocks the D2 receptors in CTZ and upper gut B: Domperidone causes Dystonia C: Ondastran acts on selective 5 -HT3 receptors D: Ondastran may cause vomiting by effecting the cytotoxic antige receptors

Q78 : Therapetic index indicates____________?

A: Drug toxicty B: Drug potency C: Drug safety D: Drug’s Lethal effect

Q79 : Morphine a powerful opioid analgesic drug should be avoided in all the following conditions except____________?

A: Left ventricular failure B: Bronchial asthma C: Constipation D: A & C

Q80 : Which of the following is a first generation oral cephalosporin_____________?

A: Cephapirin B: Cefadroxil C: Cefaclor D: Cefixime

Q81 : Aspirin is used in treatment of Myocardial Infarction___________?

A: It inhibits thromboxanes B: It stimulates Prostacyclins C: It is a vasodilator D: Ithelps in reducing inflammatory aggregate

Q82 : Mechanism of action of nifidipine is_____________?

A: It has a prominent smooth muscle relaxant action causes arteolar dilation leading to fall in blood pressure B: Nifidipine depresses the SA node thus decreasing mycocoardial excitability C: Decreased cardiac output thus decreasing load on myocardium D: Mainly depression of A-V conduction

Q83 : Which of the following drug is used to counter act the gastric irritation produced by administration of NSAID_______________?

A: Roxatidine B: Pirenzipine C: Betaxolol D: Misoprostol

Q84 : The choice of treatment in anaphylactic shock is_______________?

A: Corticosteroids B: Adrenaline C: Glucose 1.V D: Saline 1.V

Q85 : Adrenaline can be given in all of the following situations except_______________?

A: Asthma B: Myocardial infarction C: Shock D: Anaphylaxis

Q86 : Secretory immunoglobulin is_____________?

A: IgG B: IgA C: IgM D: IgE

Q87 : Therapeutic index is____________?

A: LD 100/Ed100 B: ED 100/LD 100 C: LD 50/ED500 D: ED50/LD50

Q88 : Which of the following cardiac depressants is contraindicated in a patient with cardiac arrhythmia____________?

A: Lidocaine B: Quinidine C: Phenytoin D: Propranolol

Q89 : A patient taking which of the following drug should not eat cheese, etc_____________?

A: Tetracycline B: Amoxycillin C: Doxycycline D: Triamterene

Q90 : True about amoxycillin in comparison to ampicillin is_______________?

A: Higher oral biovailability B: Lower oral biovailability C: Equal oral biovailability D: Can be given Parenterally

Q91 : All are symptoms of opiate withdrawls except______________?

A: Diarrhea B: Lacrimation C: Mydriasis D: Excessive speech

Q92 : Which of the following is a protective drug in the management of gastric and duodenal ulcers ?

A: H2 antihistamines B: NaHCO3 C: Famotidine D: Carbenoxolone

Q93 : Which among the following Not a pharmacological action of opioids______________?

A: Cough suppression B: Anti-emesis C: Miosis D: Truncal rigidity

Q94 : One of the following is not penicillinase susceptible______________?

A: Amoxicillin B: Penicillin G C: Piperacillin D: Cloxacillin

Q95 : Phenytoin is associated with_____________?

A: Folic acid deficiency B: Alzhiemer’s disease C: Cushing’s syndrome D: Vitamin C deficiency

Q96 : Which of the following opioids is not given intrathecally ?

A: Remifentanil B: Morphine C: Sufentanil D: Fentanyl

Q97 : A factor with a mucopoly saccaride, present in liver, presenting in platelet aggregation is______________?

A: Plasmin B: Acetylsalicylic acid C: Heparin D: Prothrombin

Q98 : Blockers are used in all except_____________?

A: Phenochyromocytoma B: Migraine C: Thyrotoxcosis D: Secondary shock

Q99 : Indomethacin is preferred over Colchicine for Acute Attack of Gout because it is:

A: Less likely to cause gastrointestinal bleeding. B: Less likely to cause diarrhea. C: Less likely to cause acute renal failure. D: More likely to prevent further acute attacks

Q100 : The Ethyl alcohol (Ethanol) is more effective when mixed with water and used as_____________?

A: 10 to 20 percent B: 20 to 30 percent C: 40 to 50 percent D: 60 to 70 percent

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