Free Pharmacology MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

Q1 : Aspirin causes___________?

A: Agranulocytosis B: Hemolytic anemia C: Aplastic anemia D: Hypoprothrombinemia

Q2 : Beta blockers are contraindicated in___________?

A: Angina pectoris B: Cardiac arrhythmia C: Cardiac failure D: Myocardial infarction

Q3 : 1st past metabolism effect can be observed with which route______________?

A: Oral B: Inhalation C: Rectal D: Parental

Q4 : Hallucinations are seen after ________ anesthesia?

A: Ketamine B: Thiopentone C: Tentanyl D: Nitrous oxide

Q5 : Povidine iodine is used for_____________?

A: Burns B: Tinea C: Non-specific vaginitis D: All of the above

Q6 : For Arsenic poisoning Antidote is_____________?

A: Penicillamine B: E.D.T.A C: Desferrixamine D: B.A.L

Q7 : An aminoglycoside that is often combined with polymyxin and bacitracin for the treatment of topical infection is____________?

A: Gentamycin B: Tetracycline C: Aztreonam D: Neomycin

Q8 : Which one of the anti hypertensives is contraindicated in pregnancy ?

A: Hydralazine B: a-Methldopa C: Nifedipine D: Enlapril

Q9 : Which of the following drugs is least efficacious in the treatment of cemporal lobe epilepsy ?

A: Phenobarbitone B: Phenytoin sodium C: Primidone D: Carbamazepine

Q10 : Prolonged use of aspirin leads to______________?

A: peptic ulcer B: Bleeding defects C: Carcinoma D: A & B

Q11 : All of the following antibacterial agents acts by inhibiting cell wall systhesis except________________?

A: Carbapenems B: Monobactams C: Cephamycins D: Nitrofurantoins

Q12 : Drugs used in cysticercosis_______________?

A: Prazequantal B: Metronidazole C: Niclosamide D: Pyrantel

Q13 : A young lady talking rifampicin and OCP together become pregnant, most probable cause is____________?

A: Rifampicin causes hepatic enzyme induction and increase metabolism of OCP’s B: Decreased absorption of OCP’s C: Obstruction of fallopian tubes D: Increase excretion of OCP’s

Q14 : An antiepileptic drug used in petitmal epilepsy is______________?

A: Phenobarbitonse B: Dilantoin sodium C: Diazepam D: Ethosuximide

Q15 : The most preferred acute emetic for emesis induced by anticancer drugs is______________?

A: Ondensetron B: Metaclopromide C: Chlorpromazine D: Dicyclomine

Q16 : A factor with a mucopoly saccaride, present in liver, presenting in platelet aggregation is______________?

A: Plasmin B: Acetylsalicylic acid C: Heparin D: Prothrombin

Q17 : Mechanism of action of nifidipine is_____________?

A: It has a prominent smooth muscle relaxant action causes arteolar dilation leading to fall in blood pressure B: Nifidipine depresses the SA node thus decreasing mycocoardial excitability C: Decreased cardiac output thus decreasing load on myocardium D: Mainly depression of A-V conduction

Q18 : Toxic optic neuropathy can be caused by all of the following EXCEPT_______________?

A: Ethambutol B: Ethylene glycol C: Ciprofloxacin D: Tetracycline

Q19 : Long acting beta – 2 agonist ?

A: Albuterol B: Salmeterol C: Pirlbuterol D: Orciprenaline

Q20 : Gastric irritation is minimum with one of the following non-steroidal anti inflammatory drugs_____________?

A: Piroxicam B: Tenoxicam C: Meloxicam D: Indomethacin

Q21 : Which of the following is antiasthmatic_____________?

A: Histamine B: Salbutamol C: Acetylcholine D: Serotonin

Q22 : An untoward effect of that is common to all phenothiazines is______________?

A: A marked increase in blood pressure B: Rigidity and tremor at rest, particularly with prolonged use C: Suppression of prolacin D: Nausea

Q23 : The administration of penicillin G along with probenicid result in_____________?

A: Increased excretion of probenacid in the feaces and perspiration B: Increased excretion of probenacid in urine C: Increased metabolis of penciling G D: Decreased renal excretion of penciling G

Q24 : Which one is not converted to an active metabolite ?

A: Quinapril B: Fosinopril C: Benzopril D: Lisinopril

Q25 : While performing a procedure, a resident doctor injures herself with a suture needle that has been used to stitch a patient with HIV infection for 11 years. He has been complaint with therapy for several years and has recently changed tablets because of alteration in his appearance. His last CD4 count was 360 cells/mm. The doctor is offered post exposure prophylaxis. Which regimen should she take ?

A: Ziduvidine and Lamivudine B: Ziduvidine and Lamivudine and Indivair C: Ziduvidine and Lamivudine and Stavudine D: Ziduvidine and Lamivudine and Abacavir

Q26 : Folic acid deficiency occurs in______________?

A: Aspirin B: Phenytoin C: Chloromphenicol D: Cyclosporine

Q27 : All of the following statements about opioids is correct except_____________?

A: Pentazocine and buprinorphine B: Pentazocine shows withdrawal symptoms in opioid dependent patients C: Partial agonists are free from classic opioid adverse effects D: Ethomorphine is similar to pethidine chemically

Q28 : An attack of bronchial asthma is most likely to be triggered by________________?

A: Aspirin B: Ibuprufen C: Diclofenac potassium D: Both A & B

Q29 : Which produces dissociative anaesthesia_____________?

A: Propanidid B: Theiopentone sodium C: Theiopentone sodium D: Ketamine

Q30 : Which of the following statements regarding nitroglycerin is true ?

A: The effect is more pronounced in venous B: High membrane penetrability C: Poorly suited for oral administration D: All of the above

Q31 : Which of the following is NOT a systemic effect of corticosteroid ?

A: Increase in IL-1 B: Increase in total amount of circulatory neutrophils C: Anti-inflammatory effect is increased D: Inhibit phospholipase A2

Q32 : Heroin, an addict drug contains______________?

A: ASA B: Acetyl morphine C: Pentazocine D: Propoxyphene

Q33 : What is the advantage of sublingual route of administration of drugs_____________?

A: prevents or bypasses first pass effects B: Easy to administer C: Lipid soluble D: Can be spitted out with signs of toxicity

Q34 : Bradycardia is most commonly treated with which of the following drugs_____________?

A: Epinephrine B: Atropine C: A diuretic D: A potent vasadilatior

Q35 : Neuro adaptation to drug is same as______________?

A: Physical dependence B: Psychological dependence C: Addiction D: Habituation

Q36 : Which of the following is used in the prophylaxis of migraine ?

A: Carbamazepine B: Topiramate C: Ethosuxamide D: Phenobarbitone

Q37 : Amitryptyline is a____________?

A: Antibiotic B: Sedative C: Tricyclic antidepressant D: Diuretic

Q38 : Which of the following is not true for histamine ?

A: Causes arteriolar dialation B: causes bronchodialtion C: Causes pain when injected subcutaneously D: Is released following injury and in certain allergic responses

Q39 : Loading dose depends on_____________?

A: Volume of distribution B: Clearance C: Rate of administration D: Half life

Q40 : Teratogenicity results when drugs are given during____________?

A: First trimester B: Second trimester C: Second trimester D: Soon after birth

Q41 : Which of the following is a nonsteroldad anti inflammatory agent with a tendency to produce blood dyscriasis

A: Indomathecin (indocin) B: Ibuprofen (Motrin) C: Ketoroloc D: Aceteminophen

Q42 : Best and most effective drug to control convulsions in toxicity cases is______________?

A: Phenobarbitone B: Phenytoin C: Diazepam D: Carbemezipine

Q43 : All of the following are tocolytic except_______________?

A: Isoxsuprine B: Natrexam C: Atosiban D: Ritodrine

Q44 : Nevirapine is a______________?

A: Protease inhibitor B: Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor C: Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor D: Fusion inhibitor

Q45 : Drug which crosses placental barrier is____________?

A: phenytoin B: Diazepam C: Corticosteroids D: All of the above

Q46 : Peripheral neuritis is a complication of_______________?

A: Isoniazid B: Ethambutol C: Rifampicin D: Pirazinamide

Q47 : Only Aspirin can:

A: Reduce fever. B: Irreversible inhibit its target enzyme. C: Prevent episodes of gouty arthritis with long term use. D: Reduce the risk of colon cancer.

Q48 : Lidocaine produces its antiarrhythmic effects by_____________?

A: Increasing A-V conduction B: Decreasing cardiac excitability C: Increasing cardiac conduction velocity D: Increasing spontaneous pacemaker activity

Q49 : Dermatologic manifestation of drug allergy are managed by_____________?

A: Lorazepam B: Pirenzepine C: Ranitidine D: Chlorpheniramine

Q50 : Antagonist of morphine is_______________?

A: Naloxone B: Nalosphine C: Nalpuphine D: Methadine

Q51 : Drug which is used to control status epilepticus is______________?

A: Diazepam B: Sodium nitroprusside C: Glyceryl trinitrite D: Pheno barbital

Q52 : Which of the following is a leukotriene antagonist ?

A: Montelukast B: Zileuton C: Nedocromil D: Misopristol

Q53 : Diuretics cause loss of_______________?

A: Sodium B: Calcium C: Potassium D: Iron

Q54 : Centrineuraxial (spinaland epidural) anaesthesia is not contraindicated in____________?

A: Platalets <80,000 B: Patient on aspirin C: Patient on oral anticoagulants D: Raised intracranial pressure

Q55 : A dentist who first used ether as a general antithetic was_____________?

A: Martin B: Morton C: Morrison D: Murray

Q56 : Which of the following is a 4th generation cephalosporin______________?

A: Ceftrioxone B: Cefaclor C: Cefepime D: Cefuroxime

Q57 : Immune mediated qualitative drug intolerance is called______________?

A: Super sensitivity B: Idiosyncrasy C: Hyper sensitivity D: Hyper acidity

Q58 : All of the given drugs may be useful in acute exacerbation of bronchial asthma EXCEPT_____________?

A: Cromolyn sodium B: Hydrocortisone C: Salbutamol D: Ipratropium

Q59 : Which of the following is true about parasympathetic nervous system ?

A: Ach is transmitter at both pre & post synaptic junction B: It causes dilatation of skeletal muscles C: Post ganglionic fibres are longer than pre ganglionic fibres D: Noradrenalin is the neurotransmitter at post ganglionic junction

Q60 : One of the following is not penicillinase susceptible______________?

A: Amoxicillin B: Penicillin G C: Piperacillin D: Cloxacillin

Q61 : Patients tend to exhibit a greater than normal response drugs in each of the following conditions except_______________?

A: Congestive cardiac failure B: Hepartic cirrhossis C: Hyperthyroidism D: Hypolbuminaemia

Q62 : All of the following drugs are components of the MOPP cancer Chemotherapy regimen EXCEPT______________?

A: Procarbazine B: Vincristine C: Mechlorethamine D: Methotrexate

Q63 : Morphine is contraindicated in all of the following except_______________?

A: Pulmonary oedema B: Emphysema C: Bronchial asthma D: Head injury

Q64 : During administration of NSAIDs in children, the most important of dose administration is______________?

A: . Weight of the child B: Age of child C: Nature of the drug D: Chronicity of pain

Q65 : Aminocaproic acid is a drug of choice for treatment of:

A: Acute myocardial infarction B: Bleeding from fibrinolytic therapy C: Heart failure D: Multiple pulmonary emboli

Q66 : All of the following decrease skeletal muscle tone by CNS effects except____________?

A: D-tubocurarin B: Diazepam C: Beclofen D: Mephensin

Q67 : Which one of the following agents sensitises the myocardium to catechlomines____________?

A: Isoflurane B: Ether C: Halothane D: Proplofol

Q68 : Plasma concentration of drug at time 0 is 96g/mL. if t1/2 is 2 hours concentration is plasma at 10 hours will be___________?

A: 48 B: 24 C: 12 D: 3

Q69 : Which one of the following drugs is not contraindicated in bronchial asthma ?

A: Morphine B: Propanolol C: Stropine D: Nitroglycerine

Q70 : Rapid onset of inhalational GA depends on____________?

A: Blood solubility B: Cerebral blood flow C: Partial pressure of GA D: All of the above

Q71 : A patient, without prior medication, breathes a gas mixture consisting of 50 percent nitrous oxide and 50 percent oxygen by volume. Which of the following effects would be expected_____________?

A: Analgesia B: Excitation C: Surgical anesthesia D: Respiratory arrest

Q72 : Tetracyclines act by__________________?

A: Inhibiting the binding of aminoacyl tRNA to the ribosomal complex B: Inhibiting peptidyl transferase C: Inactivating elongation factors D: Causing misreading of mRNA

Q73 : Aspirine is useful in all the following conditions EXCEPT_____________?

A: Fever B: Post myocardial infarction C: Venous thrombosis D: Gout

Q74 : A drug A & B compared, all are true except____________?

A: 1 mg of A causes same effect of 3 mg of B, so A is more potent B: 1 mg of A cause effect not even caused by maximum tolerated dose of B, so drug A is more efficacious C: 1 mg of A cause effect not caused by 1 mg of B so A is more efficacious D: Efficacy is not dose dependent

Q75 : Which one of the following is Not true of angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor____________?

A: May cause hyperkalaemia in diabetic patients B: Contraindicated in pregnancy C: Contraindicated in diabetic nephropathy D: NSAIDs may impair its hypotensive effect

Q76 : 1st generation cephalosporin is________________?

A: Cephadroxil B: Cefepime C: Cefotaxime D: Cefotaxime

Q77 : The potent anti arrhythmic drug which has little negative ionotropic effect valuable in patients with poor left ventricular function_____________?

A: Amlodipine B: Bidoprolo C: Amiodarnone D: Digoxin

Q78 : When a drug creates an effect that is unpredictable and unique it is termed as____________?

A: Side effect B: Toxicity effect C: Idiosyncratic effect D: Drug on Drug effect

Q79 : Not true about PnG is______________?

A: Destroyed by gastic acid B: Very active against sensitive gram positive coci C: Used for treatment of meningococcal meningitis D: More concentrated in prostatic secretion and intraocular fluids

Q80 : Which of the following drugs in likely to damage the eighth cranial nerve when administered for a long period of time ?

A: Ethambutol B: Isoniazid C: Rifampicin D: Streptomycin

Q81 : Cross resistance of isoniazid is seen with_____________?

A: Rifampicin B: Ethionamide C: Cycloserine D: Ethambutol

Q82 : Intramuscular route is precluded during the medication of________________?

A: Anti-hypertensives B: Anti-diabetics C: Anticoagulants D: Anti-fibrinolytics

Q83 : Therapeutic index is____________?

A: LD 100/Ed100 B: ED 100/LD 100 C: LD 50/ED500 D: ED50/LD50

Q84 : Allergic reactions depends on all except____________?

A: previous exposure to the drug B: Dosage of the drug received C: Pharmacological action of the drug D: Antigen antibody reaction

Q85 : Tick the drug type for which microsomal oxidation is the most prominent:

A: Lipid soluble B: Water soluble C: Low molecular weight D: High molecular weight

Q86 : Local anaesthetics act by inhibiting_____________?

A: Motor fibers only B: Motor and sensory fibres C: Only sensory fibres D: None of the above

Q87 : Which of the following anti inflammatory drug is a COX-2 inhibitor_____________?

A: Aspirin B: Ketoprofen C: Rofecoxib D: Sulidec

Q88 : About articaine, all are true except_____________?

A: Plasma half-life is 90 min B: Is amide which is metabolized in liver C: Mandibular infiltration is more effective than nerve block in mandibular molar teeth D: More breaks down causes more toxicity

Q89 : The choice of treatment in anaphylactic shock is_______________?

A: Corticosteroids B: Adrenaline C: Glucose 1.V D: Saline 1.V

Q90 : Isosorbide 5 – mononitrate is preferred because____________?

A: Less tolerance develops B: Sublingual absorption is better C: Longer duration of action D:

Q91 : A patient suffering from syphilis is given pencillin He may develop_____________?

A: Cholestatic Jaundice B: Grey Syndrome C: Fanconi Syndrome D: Jarish – Herxheimer reaction

Q92 : Ketamine is a________________?

A: Short general anesthetic agent B: Local anesthetic agent C: Antidepressive agent D: Hypnotic agent

Q93 : Drugs showing zero order kinetics of elimination_____________?

A: Are more common than first order kinetics B: Decrease in concentration exponentially with time C: Have a half – life independent of dose D: Show a plot of drug concentration versus time that is linear

Q94 : A distinict advantage that tetracyclines have over penicillins is that tetracyclines_____________?

A: Have no side effects B: Do not cause superinfections C: Are safer to use during pregnancy D: Have a wider range of antibacterial activity

Q95 : The drug not belonging to amide group_______________?

A: Procaine B: Xylocaine C: Lignocaine D: Bupivacaine

Q96 : Which among the following is a pure antagonist of opioid receptors ?

A: Natrexone B: Nalbuphine C: Butorphanol D: Pentazonice

Q97 : Which of the following drugs will not produce allergic reactions ?

A: Pencillins B: Sulfonamides C: Certrizine D: Cephalosporins

Q98 : Relative contraindications for the administration of Ketamine hydrochioride include all of the following EXCEPT ?

A: Age < 5 years B: History of epilepsy C: Raised intracranial tension D: Recent anterior myocardial infarction

Q99 : All the following about antiemetic drugs are correct except_______________?

A: Domperidone blocks the D2 receptors in CTZ and upper gut B: Domperidone causes Dystonia C: Ondastran acts on selective 5 -HT3 receptors D: Ondastran may cause vomiting by effecting the cytotoxic antige receptors

Q100 : Buprenorphine acts by following mechanism________________?

A: Mu receptor antagonist B: Kappa receptor antagonist C: Mu receptor partial agnoist D: Kappa receptor partial agonist

Free Pharmacology MCQs Mock Test Online with Answers

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